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Microbiology
Microbiology for MBBS, written in exam-answer format.
Classification and General Features
| Group | Features |
|---|---|
| Bacteria | Prokaryotes — no nuclear membrane, no mitochondria, a single circular chromosome, 70S ribosomes, and a peptidoglycan cell wall |
| Fungi | Eukaryotes with a chitin cell wall and an ergosterol membrane — which is why antifungals are more toxic than antibacterials |
| Viruses | Obligate intracellular parasites with either DNA or RNA (never both), no cell wall and no ribosomes; they use host machinery entirely |
| Parasites | Eukaryotic protozoa and helminths |
| Special groups | Mycoplasma (no cell wall, so resistant to beta-lactams); rickettsiae and chlamydiae (obligate intracellular bacteria) |
Bacterial Cell Wall
| Feature | Gram positive | Gram negative |
|---|---|---|
| Peptidoglycan | Thick, 50–90% of the wall, many cross-linked layers | Thin, 5–10%, one or two layers |
| Outer membrane | Absent | Present — contains lipopolysaccharide (LPS) |
| Teichoic acid | Present | Absent |
| Periplasmic space | Minimal | Prominent — contains beta-lactamases |
| Porins | Absent | Present — hydrophilic channels through which many antibiotics must pass; their loss is a resistance mechanism |
| Response to lysozyme | Susceptible | More resistant |
| Toxin | Chiefly exotoxins (secreted proteins) | Endotoxin (LPS), released on lysis |
| Antibiotic susceptibility | More susceptible to penicillin and lysozyme | The outer membrane excludes many agents — vancomycin is too large to cross it, which is why gram-negatives are intrinsically resistant |
CLINICAL PEARL
The Gram stain works because of what the wall does with the decolouriser. Crystal violet–iodine complex is trapped in the thick, highly cross-linked peptidoglycan of gram-positive organisms, which alcohol dehydrates and closes further. In gram-negatives the alcohol dissolves the lipid-rich outer membrane and the thin peptidoglycan cannot retain the dye, so the complex washes out and the counterstain shows. Almost every difference between the two groups — toxin type, antibiotic susceptibility, lysozyme sensitivity — follows from that same wall structure.
Lipopolysaccharide and Endotoxin
LPS has three parts — lipid A, a core polysaccharide, and the O-specific side chain → lipid A is the toxic moiety; the O side chain is the O antigen used in serotyping (as in Salmonella and E. Coli O157) → On bacterial lysis, lipid A is released and binds TLR4 on macrophages → Massive release of TNF-alpha, IL-1 and IL-6 → Fever, hypotension, capillary leak, disseminated intravascular coagulation → septic shock and multi-organ failure
| Feature | Exotoxin | Endotoxin |
|---|---|---|
| Nature | Protein, secreted by living cells | Lipopolysaccharide, part of the wall, released on lysis |
| Source | Mainly gram-positive (also some gram-negative) | Gram-negative only |
| Heat stability | Heat-labile (destroyed at 60°C) | Heat-stable (withstands autoclaving) — which is why sterile fluids can still be pyrogenic |
| Potency and specificity | Highly potent and highly specific in action | Less potent; effects are the same whatever the organism |
| Antigenicity | Strongly antigenic; converted to toxoids for vaccines (tetanus, diphtheria) | Poorly antigenic; NO toxoid can be made |
| Examples | Tetanospasmin, diphtheria toxin, cholera toxin, botulinum toxin | LPS of Salmonella, E. Coli, Neisseria |
Other Structures and Their Significance
- Capsule — usually polysaccharide (but polypeptide (D-glutamate) in Bacillus anthracis). It is antiphagocytic and therefore a major virulence factor; demonstrated by the quellung reaction and by negative staining. Capsular polysaccharide is the basis of the pneumococcal, meningococcal and Hib conjugate vaccines
- Flagella — organs of motility, made of flagellin; the H antigen. Arrangements: monotrichous, lophotrichous, amphitrichous and peritrichous. Motility is demonstrated by hanging drop or in semisolid medium
- Fimbriae (common pili) — short, numerous, for adhesion to host cells; a virulence factor in uropathogenic E. Coli and gonococci. sex pilus — long, one or two per cell, mediates conjugation and the transfer of resistance plasmids
- Spores — dormant, highly resistant forms produced by Bacillus and Clostridium; contain dipicolinic acid with calcium and very little water, which is the basis of their heat resistance. They are the reference standard for sterilisation
- Plasmids — extrachromosomal circular DNA carrying resistance and virulence genes, transferable between organisms
- Cell membrane — site of respiration and transport; sterols are absent except in mycoplasma
Bacterial Morphology and Arrangement
| Shape | Arrangement and examples |
|---|---|
| Cocci (spherical) | In clusters — Staphylococcus; in chains — Streptococcus; in pairs (diplococci) — pneumococcus (lanceolate) and Neisseria (kidney-shaped); in tetrads — Micrococcus; in packets of eight — Sarcina |
| Bacilli (rod-shaped) | Single, in chains (streptobacilli), in "chinese letter" or palisade arrangement — Corynebacterium; "bamboo stick" appearance — Bacillus anthracis |
| Coccobacilli | Short ovoid rods — Haemophilus, Brucella, Bordetella |
| Vibrio | Comma-shaped, with a single polar flagellum; "fish in stream" appearance in a hanging drop — Vibrio cholerae |
| Spiral | Spirilla (rigid) and spirochaetes (flexible, with axial filaments) — Treponema, Leptospira, Borrelia |
| Filamentous / branching | Actinomyces, Nocardia — resemble fungi but are bacteria |
| Pleomorphic | Lacking a fixed shape — mycoplasma, which has no cell wall |
- Arrangement reflects the plane of division and whether daughter cells separate — division in one plane with cells remaining attached gives chains; division in several planes gives clusters. It is a genuinely useful identifying feature on a Gram film
Applied Aspects
- The peptidoglycan wall is absent in man, which is why penicillins and cephalosporins have such a wide therapeutic index — their only serious hazard is allergy
- Mycoplasma has no cell wall, so beta-lactams are useless against it; this is why atypical pneumonia requires a macrolide or tetracycline
- Endotoxin survives autoclaving, so intravenous fluids and devices must be tested for pyrogens (the LAL test) as well as for sterility — a sterile solution can still cause rigors
- Gram-negative sepsis remains a leading cause of death, and the cytokine cascade explains why killing the organism with an antibiotic can transiently worsen the patient through massive endotoxin release
- Capsular vaccines fail in infants unless conjugated to a protein carrier, because polysaccharide alone provokes a T-independent response without memory
- The Gram stain remains one of the most valuable and cheapest investigations in medicine — available within minutes, it guides initial antibiotic choice long before culture results
- L-forms and spheroplasts are cell-wall-deficient variants produced by penicillin or lysozyme; they can revert and may explain some relapses after apparently adequate treatment
- Fimbriae explain why urinary infection is so common in women — uropathogenic E. Coli adhere by P fimbriae to uroepithelial receptors, and the short urethra shortens the journey
- Motility is a useful bedside laboratory clue — the darting "fish in a stream" motility of Vibrio cholerae in a hanging drop, abolished by specific antiserum, has been used for rapid diagnosis in outbreaks
- Antigenic structure underlies serotyping — the O (somatic), H (flagellar) and K or Vi (capsular) antigens are the basis of the Kauffmann-White scheme for Salmonella and of E. Coli serotyping such as O157:H7
- Rickettsiae and chlamydiae are bacteria, not viruses, despite being obligate intracellular organisms — they have both DNA and RNA and a cell wall, and they respond to antibiotics, which viruses do not
Definitions
| Term | Definition |
|---|---|
| Sterilisation | Complete destruction or removal of all forms of microbial life, including spores. An absolute term — an object is sterile or it is not |
| Disinfection | Destruction of most pathogenic organisms on inanimate objects; spores usually survive |
| Antisepsis | Application of a chemical to living tissue to reduce microbial numbers |
| Sanitisation | Reduction of microbial numbers to a level judged safe by public health standards |
| Asepsis | The technique of preventing organisms from reaching a site at all |
| Bactericidal / bacteriostatic | Kills organisms / inhibits their multiplication |
Physical Methods — Heat
| Method | Conditions | Uses and comments |
|---|---|---|
| Red heat | Held in a flame until red | Inoculating loops, wires, forceps tips |
| Flaming | Passed through a flame | Mouths of tubes, scalpels, slides |
| Incineration | Complete burning | Soiled dressings, animal carcasses, pathological and sharps waste |
| Hot air oven (dry heat) | 160°C for 2 hours | Glassware, metal instruments, oils, greases, powders, glass syringes — things that steam cannot penetrate or would damage. Slower and needs a higher temperature than moist heat |
| Pasteurisation | Holder 63°C for 30 min; flash 72°C for 15–20 sec | Milk — kills Mycobacterium bovis, Brucella, Salmonella and Coxiella without sterilising; the phosphatase test confirms adequacy |
| Boiling | 100°C for 10–20 min | Disinfection only — spores survive |
| Autoclave (moist heat under pressure) | 121°C at 15 lb/in² for 15 minutes (or 134°C at 30 lb for 3 min) | The standard hospital method — surgical instruments, dressings, linen, culture media, rubber goods |
CLINICAL PEARL
Moist heat kills at a much lower temperature than dry heat, and the reason is the mechanism. Moist heat coagulates and denatures protein, and water conducts heat efficiently while steam releases a large amount of latent heat as it condenses on the load. Dry heat must work by oxidation, which is far slower. That is why 121°C for 15 minutes in an autoclave achieves what needs 160°C for 2 hours in an oven.
The Autoclave in Detail
- Principle — water boils at 100°C at atmospheric pressure; raising the pressure raises the boiling point, so saturated steam at 15 lb/in² reaches 121°C
- All air must BE removed — this is the single most important requirement. Air is a poor conductor, and a pocket of trapped air is cooler than the surrounding steam, so items within it are not sterilised. Modern autoclaves use a pre-vacuum to remove it
- Steam must be saturated and must condense on the load, releasing latent heat and wetting the surface; superheated or wet steam both perform poorly
- Loading matters — packs must not be overpacked and must allow steam to penetrate; the holding time begins only when the whole load has reached temperature
- Not suitable for oils, powders, greases (steam cannot penetrate), or heat-labile plastics and endoscopes
Sterilisation Control
| Type of indicator | Example | What it tells you |
|---|---|---|
| Physical | Thermometers, pressure gauges, time and temperature charts | That the machine reached the stated conditions — but not whether the inside of the load did |
| Chemical | Autoclave (Bowie-Dick) tape, BROWNE tubes which change from red to green, Class 6 emulating indicators | That the pack was exposed to the process; the BOWIE-DICK test specifically checks air removal and steam penetration and is done daily |
| Biological — the definitive test | Spore strips: autoclave — Geobacillus stearothermophilus; hot air oven — Bacillus subtilis subsp. niger; ethylene oxide — Bacillus atrophaeus; ionising radiation — Bacillus pumilus | That organisms were actually killed — the only indicator that tests the outcome rather than the conditions |
- Bacterial spores are used because they are the most resistant form of life to the process being tested; if the spores are dead, everything else is
Other Physical Methods and Chemical Agents
- Radiation — non-ionising (UV, 254 nm) causes thymine dimers but has very poor penetration, so it disinfects surfaces and air (operating theatres, safety cabinets) and cannot sterilise a wrapped object; it also damages the eyes and skin. ionising (gamma rays, electron beam) penetrates deeply and is "cold sterilisation" used industrially for disposable syringes, gloves, catheters, sutures and plastics
- Filtration — membrane filters of 0.22 micrometre pore size for heat-labile fluids (sera, antibiotic solutions, vaccines); viruses and mycoplasma pass through. HEPA filters remove particles above 0.3 micrometre from air in operating theatres, laminar flow cabinets and isolation rooms
- Gaseous sterilisation — ethylene oxide for heat-sensitive items (endoscopes, prosthetic heart valves, plastics); it is an alkylating agent, effective but highly toxic, mutagenic, carcinogenic and explosive, and requires prolonged aeration afterwards. Alternatives are hydrogen peroxide plasma and formaldehyde vapour
- Chemical disinfectants — glutaraldehyde (2%) for endoscopes, being sporicidal with prolonged contact; hypochlorite for surfaces and spills, and sporicidal, which is why it is used against Clostridioides difficile; 70% alcohol, chlorhexidine, povidone-iodine for skin
- Spaulding classification — critical items entering sterile tissue or the vascular system require sterilisation; semi-critical items contacting mucous membranes (endoscopes) require high-level disinfection; non-critical items touching intact skin require low-level disinfection
Choosing a Method
| Item | Appropriate method | Reason |
|---|---|---|
| Surgical instruments, dressings, linen | Autoclave | Steam penetrates and is reliable |
| Glassware, metal, oils, powders | Hot air oven | Steam cannot penetrate oils and powders |
| Heat-labile fluids — sera, antibiotic solutions, vaccines | Membrane filtration (0.22 micrometre) | Heat would destroy the product; note that viruses pass through |
| Endoscopes and heat-sensitive instruments | Glutaraldehyde (high-level disinfection) or hydrogen peroxide plasma | Heat would damage optics and plastics |
| Prosthetic valves, catheters, plastics (industrial) | Ethylene oxide or gamma irradiation | Effective at ambient temperature; gamma rays penetrate sealed packs |
| Operating theatre and safety cabinet air | UV light and HEPA filtration | Surface and air disinfection only — UV has poor penetration |
| Milk | Pasteurisation | Kills pathogens while preserving nutritional and organoleptic quality |
| Infectious laboratory waste | Autoclaving followed by incineration | Must be decontaminated before it leaves the laboratory |
Applied Aspects
- Use a biological indicator regularly, not merely tape; autoclave tape shows only that the pack met steam, not that sterilisation was achieved
- Perform the Bowie-Dick test daily on a vacuum autoclave; failure of air removal is the commonest cause of sterilisation failure
- Clean before you disinfect — organic matter (blood, pus, faeces) inactivates hypochlorite and quaternary ammonium compounds and shields organisms; this is the most frequently neglected step
- Endoscopes are a recognised vehicle of transmission, and outbreaks have been traced to inadequate cleaning of channels; the process is manual, tedious and easily short-cut
- Prions resist all routine methods — standard autoclaving does not destroy them, and extended cycles (134°C for 18 minutes), sodium hydroxide, or disposal by incineration are required
- Reuse of single-use devices is common in India for reasons of cost, and is a real infection risk; where it is unavoidable, validated reprocessing is essential rather than informal cleaning
- Boiling is disinfection, not sterilisation, and the distinction is frequently misunderstood in smaller facilities where boiled instruments are treated as sterile
- Check the expiry and integrity of sterile packs; a pack that is damp, torn or has been stored badly is no longer sterile whatever the indicator shows
- Disinfectant solutions can themselves become contaminated — outbreaks of Pseudomonas and Burkholderia have been traced to diluted or topped-up containers, which is a real hazard where cost drives dilution
Bacterial Nutrition and Growth Requirements
- Nutritional requirements — a carbon source, nitrogen, inorganic ions, water, and for some organisms specific growth factors that they cannot synthesise
- Classification by carbon and energy source — autotrophs use carbon dioxide; heterotrophs require organic carbon, and all medically important bacteria are heterotrophs
- Oxygen requirement — obligate aerobes (Pseudomonas, Mycobacterium); obligate anaerobes (Clostridium, Bacteroides), which lack catalase and superoxide dismutase and are killed by oxygen; facultative anaerobes (most Enterobacteriaceae, staphylococci), which grow either way; microaerophilic (Campylobacter, Helicobacter); and capnophilic organisms requiring extra carbon dioxide (Neisseria, Haemophilus, Brucella)
- Temperature — most pathogens are mesophiles growing optimally at 37°C; psychrophiles and thermophiles are of food and environmental importance
- PH — most grow best near neutrality (7.2 to 7.6); Vibrio cholerae prefers alkaline conditions (pH 8.5), which is exploited in alkaline peptone water, and lactobacilli tolerate acid
The Bacterial Growth Curve
Lag phase — no increase in number; the cells are metabolically very active, synthesising enzymes and adapting; the cell is at its largest → log (exponential) phase — growth at a constant maximum rate; cells are uniform, most metabolically active and most susceptible to antibiotics and disinfectants; this is the phase used for Gram staining and sensitivity testing → stationary phase — nutrient exhaustion and accumulation of toxic products; division equals death; spores, exotoxins and secondary metabolites are formed here → decline (death) phase — the number of viable cells falls; involution forms appear
CLINICAL PEARL
Penicillin works only on bacteria that are dividing, which is why the growth phase matters clinically. Beta-lactams inhibit the cross-linking of new peptidoglycan, so an organism that is not building a wall is not harmed. This explains why they act best in the log phase, why they are ineffective against dormant organisms, and why a bacteriostatic drug given at the same time can antagonise them by stopping the division they depend on.
Culture Media — Classification
| Type | Purpose | Examples |
|---|---|---|
| Simple (basal) | Support growth of ordinary organisms | Nutrient broth and agar, peptone water |
| Enriched | A basal medium with added nutrients (blood, serum, egg) to grow fastidious organisms | Blood agar, chocolate agar (heated blood, which releases X and V factors for Haemophilus), Loeffler serum slope |
| Enrichment (liquid) | Encourage the wanted organism and inhibit others, increasing its proportion | Selenite F and tetrathionate broth for Salmonella; alkaline peptone water for Vibrio |
| Selective (solid) | Contain an inhibitor that suppresses unwanted organisms so the wanted one forms colonies | DCA and Wilson-Blair for Salmonella; TCBS for Vibrio; lowenstein-JENSEN (malachite green) for mycobacteria; Thayer-Martin for gonococci; MacConkey (bile salts inhibit gram-positives) |
| Indicator / differential | Contain a substrate and indicator so that different organisms look different on the same plate | MacCONKEY agar — lactose fermenters form pink colonies, non-fermenters are pale; blood agar shows haemolysis; Wilson-Blair shows black colonies of S. Typhi |
| Transport | Maintain viability without multiplication during transit | Stuart, Amies, Cary-Blair (for Vibrio and Campylobacter), Venkatraman-Ramakrishnan |
| Anaerobic | Provide a reduced environment | Robertson cooked meat medium, thioglycollate broth |
| Sugar media | Demonstrate fermentation | Peptone water with sugar and Andrade indicator, with Durham's tube for gas |
- MacConkey agar is both selective and differential — the bile salts and crystal violet select against gram-positives, while lactose with neutral red differentiates fermenters from non-fermenters. It is the single most useful plate in a routine laboratory
Methods of Anaerobic Culture
- Anaerobic jar (McIntosh-Fildes) with a gas-generating sachet producing hydrogen and carbon dioxide, and a palladium catalyst; an indicator (methylene blue or resazurin) confirms anaerobiosis
- Anaerobic chamber or glove box — the most reliable, allowing plates to be handled without oxygen exposure
- Robertson cooked meat medium — the meat particles absorb oxygen and provide reducing substances; also indicates saccharolytic (pink meat) or proteolytic (black, foul-smelling) activity
- Thioglycollate broth — contains a reducing agent and permits both aerobic and anaerobic growth in one tube
- Pre-reduced media and prompt transport matter as much as the incubation method; anaerobes die during transit, which is the commonest reason they are not isolated
Identification of Bacteria from Culture
- Colony morphology — size, shape, edge, elevation, consistency, pigment and odour. Pseudomonas produces greenish pyocyanin with a characteristic fruity smell; Proteus swarms over the plate
- Haemolysis on blood agar — alpha (partial, greenish — viridans streptococci, pneumococcus); beta (complete, clear — Streptococcus pyogenes, Staphylococcus aureus); gamma (none — enterococci)
- Gram stain of the colony, and motility by hanging drop
- Biochemical reactions — catalase (separates staphylococci, positive, from streptococci, negative); coagulase (separates S. Aureus from other staphylococci); oxidase (positive in Pseudomonas, Vibrio and Neisseria; negative in Enterobacteriaceae); urease, indole, citrate, and the triple sugar iron reaction
- Serotyping with specific antisera for Salmonella, Shigella and E. Coli; and MALDI-TOF mass spectrometry, which identifies an isolate from its protein fingerprint within minutes where available
Measurement of Bacterial Growth
| Method | What it measures | Comment |
|---|---|---|
| Total (direct) count | All cells, living and dead | Counting chamber, or Breed count on a smear; rapid but cannot distinguish viable organisms |
| Viable count | Only cells capable of forming a colony | Pour plate or surface spread after serial dilution, expressed as colony-forming units per mL — the basis of significant bacteriuria and of food and water standards |
| Turbidity | Optical density, proportional to cell mass | Rapid; used to standardise the inoculum for sensitivity testing against the McFARLAND standard |
| Dry weight and nitrogen estimation | Total biomass | Used for filamentous organisms and in research |
| Metabolic activity | Carbon dioxide production, ATP, oxygen consumption | The basis of automated blood culture systems, which flag a bottle as positive within hours |
Applied Aspects
- Collect the specimen before antibiotics are given — a single dose can sterilise blood cultures and leave the patient without a diagnosis for the rest of the illness
- Choose the right medium and tell the laboratory what you suspect; mycobacteria, anaerobes, fungi and fastidious organisms all need specific media and prolonged incubation that will not be set up routinely
- Use a transport medium for swabs that cannot reach the laboratory promptly, and never allow a specimen for anaerobic culture to be exposed to air
- Interpret growth in the context of the site — a positive culture from a normally sterile site is significant; growth from sputum, wound swabs or urine may be colonisation or contamination
- Automated blood culture systems have transformed practice, giving results in hours rather than days, though cost limits availability in India
- Quality control of media, reagents and incubators is what makes laboratory results trustworthy, and is invisible until it fails
- Blood culture bottles must be filled to the marked volume; volume is the single greatest determinant of yield, and an under-filled bottle commonly explains a negative result in an obviously septic patient
- Incubate for long enough — brucella, HACEK organisms, fungi and mycobacteria all require extended incubation that will not happen unless the laboratory is told what is suspected
- Growth of three or more organisms from urine indicates contamination, not polymicrobial infection, and the specimen should be repeated rather than treated
- Interpret a colony count alongside the pyuria and the symptoms; bacteriuria without symptoms is usually not treated, except in pregnancy and before urological instrumentation
- Media must be quality-controlled with known organisms before use, since a batch that fails to support growth produces false negatives that nobody detects
- Selective media reduce sensitivity as well as raising specificity, so a non-selective plate is inoculated alongside where the organism is uncertain
- Automated blood culture systems have transformed turnaround, flagging positives within hours rather than days, though their cost limits availability in much of India
- Prolonged incubation of a "negative" culture is worthwhile when the clinical picture is convincing; slow growers are lost when plates are discarded at 48 hours by protocol
- Store media correctly — blood agar deteriorates, selective agents lose potency and plates dry out; the commonest cause of a laboratory "not growing anything" is the medium, not the specimen
- Record the antibiotic history on the request form, since prior therapy explains a sterile culture from an infected site and changes how the result should be read
Bacterial Genome and Variation
- The bacterial genome is a single circular double-stranded DNA molecule with no nuclear membrane and no introns; it is haploid, so any mutation is immediately expressed
- Extrachromosomal elements — plasmids (autonomous circular DNA, often carrying resistance or virulence genes; the F factor confers the ability to conjugate); transposons ("jumping genes" that move between DNA molecules and can carry resistance genes); and integrons, which capture and express gene cassettes and are a major vehicle for multidrug resistance
- Variation arises by mutation or by gene transfer, and the distinction matters clinically: mutation is vertical and slow, gene transfer is horizontal and can spread resistance between species overnight
Mechanisms of Gene Transfer
| Mechanism | Process | Requirements and examples |
|---|---|---|
| Transformation | Uptake of naked DNA from the environment, released by lysis of another cell | The recipient must be "competent". Demonstrated by griffith experiment with pneumococci, which led to the identification of DNA as the genetic material. Natural in pneumococci, Haemophilus, Neisseria — and it is how pneumococci acquire altered penicillin-binding proteins |
| Transduction | Transfer of DNA by a bacteriophage | Generalised — any fragment is packaged by error; specialised — only genes adjacent to the prophage site. Staphylococcal penicillinase and toxin genes are transduced |
| Conjugation | Direct transfer through a sex pilus, requiring cell-TO-cell contact | Requires the F factor; the donor is F+ or Hfr. The most important mechanism for the spread of multidrug resistance, since whole R plasmids carrying several resistance genes move together, and can cross between species and genera |
| Lysogenic conversion | A prophage integrated into the chromosome confers a new property on the host | Diphtheria toxin, botulinum toxin, cholera toxin, streptococcal erythrogenic toxin, and Shiga toxin in E. Coli O157 are all phage-encoded — the organism is only toxigenic if it carries the phage |
| Transposition | Movement of transposons within or between DNA molecules | Spreads resistance genes onto plasmids |
CLINICAL PEARL
Corynebacterium diphtheriae is only dangerous if it has been infected by a virus. The gene for diphtheria toxin is carried by a beta-phage, not by the bacterium itself, so a non-lysogenised strain colonises the throat harmlessly. Lysogenic conversion is therefore what turns a commensal into a killer — and the same is true of botulinum, cholera and Shiga toxins. Virulence, in these organisms, is borrowed.
Mechanisms of Drug Resistance
| Mechanism | Explanation | Examples |
|---|---|---|
| Enzymatic inactivation | The commonest mechanism | Beta-lactamases, including ESBL and carbapenemases (NDM-1, KPC, OXA-48); aminoglycoside-modifying enzymes; chloramphenicol acetyltransferase |
| Altered target | The binding site changes so the drug no longer fits | MRSA (PBP2a encoded by mecA); VRE (D-ala-D-lactate); ribosomal methylation for macrolides; gyrase mutation for quinolones; rpoB mutation for rifampicin |
| Reduced permeability | Loss or alteration of porins in the outer membrane | Pseudomonas and Enterobacteriaceae resisting carbapenems |
| Efflux pumps | Active extrusion; one pump often handles several unrelated classes, giving multidrug resistance at a stroke | Tetracyclines, macrolides, fluoroquinolones |
| Bypass pathway | An alternative enzyme insensitive to the drug | Altered dihydrofolate reductase and dihydropteroate synthase |
| Biofilm | Organisms embedded in a matrix are metabolically quiescent and physically protected | Prosthetic joints, catheters and heart valves — which is why infected devices usually have to be removed |
Genetic Techniques in Diagnosis
- Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) — amplifies a target sequence; rapid, extremely sensitive, and detects organisms that are non-cultivable, slow-growing or already suppressed by antibiotics. Real-time PCR quantifies, as in HIV and hepatitis viral load
- CBNAAT / GeneXpert — a cartridge-based automated PCR that detects Mycobacterium tuberculosis and rifampicin resistance within about 2 hours; it has transformed tuberculosis diagnosis in India
- Line probe assay — detects mutations conferring resistance to isoniazid, rifampicin and second-line drugs
- Nucleic acid hybridisation and DNA probes; whole genome sequencing for outbreak investigation and resistance prediction
- Limitations of molecular methods — they detect nucleic acid, not viability, so they may remain positive after successful treatment; they are prone to contamination giving false positives; and they do not provide an isolate for full sensitivity testing
Bacterial Mutation and its Consequences
- Mutation is a spontaneous heritable change in the base sequence, occurring at a rate of roughly 10-6 to 10-9 per cell division; it is random and not induced by the drug
- Because bacteria are haploid, a mutation is expressed immediately, without the masking that a second allele would provide
- Types — point mutation (substitution), frameshift (insertion or deletion), and deletion of larger segments
- Clinical consequences — single-step high-level resistance to rifampicin (rpoB), streptomycin and fluoroquinolones (gyrA), which is exactly why these drugs must never be used alone in tuberculosis
- The mathematics of combination therapy — if resistance to one drug arises at 10-6 and to another at 10-8, an organism resistant to both arises at 10-14, which exceeds the number of bacilli in any lesion. This is the whole rationale for multidrug regimens in tuberculosis, leprosy and HIV
- Phenotypic variation — changes in expression without genetic change, such as capsule loss on subculture or the smooth-to-rough colony transition
Genetic Basis of Vaccines and Diagnostics
- Recombinant vaccines — the gene for a protective antigen is expressed in yeast or another host: the hepatitis B surface antigen vaccine and the HPV vaccine are made this way, avoiding any need to handle the pathogen
- Live attenuated organisms are produced by repeated subculture or by deliberate deletion of virulence genes, which gives a more stable attenuation than the classical method
- MRNA and viral vector vaccines deliver the genetic instructions for an antigen rather than the antigen itself, and the platform can be redirected to a new pathogen very quickly — as the COVID-19 vaccines demonstrated
- Molecular diagnosis — PCR and real-time PCR, CBNAAT detecting M. Tuberculosis and rifampicin resistance within about 2 hours, line probe assays, and whole genome sequencing for outbreak tracing and resistance prediction
- Molecular typing — pulsed-field gel electrophoresis, multilocus sequence typing and sequencing have largely replaced phage typing where they are affordable, and allow an outbreak strain to be traced between wards, hospitals and countries
- CRISPR was discovered as a bacterial immune system against phages, storing fragments of previous invaders to recognise them again; it is now the basis of genome editing — a reminder that fundamental microbiology repeatedly yields tools nobody was looking for
- Genetically engineered organisms produce many therapeutic proteins — human insulin, growth hormone, erythropoietin, interferons and clotting factors — which removed the risks of animal and cadaveric sources
- Antibiotic resistance genes are used as markers in genetic engineering, which has itself raised concern about their environmental spread
- Resistance carries a fitness cost in most organisms, so reducing antibiotic use allows sensitive strains to re-establish; resistance is therefore reversible in principle, which is the strongest argument for stewardship
- The gut is the great mixing vessel — commensals and pathogens exchange plasmids there under the selective pressure of whatever antibiotic the patient is taking, which is why an antibiotic given for a chest infection can select urinary resistance
- Environmental and agricultural use contributes substantially, and resistant organisms reach humans through food, water and effluent; this is a public health problem beyond clinical prescribing
- Never add a single drug to a failing regimen — that is functional monotherapy against an already-resistant population, and resistance to the added drug follows within weeks
- Fixed-dose combinations prevent inadvertent monotherapy, which is why they are used in tuberculosis, leprosy and HIV programmes where supervision cannot be guaranteed
- Detecting resistance genes is faster than growing the organism, and CBNAAT reporting rifampicin resistance in 2 hours has changed the management of tuberculosis in India more than any new drug
- A gene may be present without being expressed, so molecular resistance testing complements rather than replaces culture and phenotypic sensitivity
Applied Aspects
- Antibiotics do not create resistance; they select for it — resistant mutants arise spontaneously, and the drug kills the sensitive majority and leaves them to multiply without competition
- Conjugation is why resistance spreads so fast — a plasmid carrying several resistance genes can move between species in the gut of a single patient, so using one antibiotic can select resistance to others
- Combination therapy prevents resistance in tuberculosis, leprosy and HIV because the probability of simultaneous resistance to several drugs is the product of the individual probabilities
- Molecular detection of rifampicin resistance guides treatment within hours instead of weeks, which is the single most useful diagnostic advance in Indian tuberculosis practice
- Infection control limits the spread of resistant organisms, and no prescribing policy compensates for poor hand hygiene; the two must go together
- India has among the highest rates of antimicrobial resistance in the world, driven by over-the-counter sale, incomplete courses and agricultural use; the National Action Plan and Schedule H1 are steps toward control
Normal Flora
The normal flora (microbiota) is the population of micro-organisms that regularly inhabits the body surfaces of a healthy person without causing disease.
| Site | Predominant flora | Notes |
|---|---|---|
| Skin | Coagulase-negative staphylococci, Corynebacterium (diphtheroids), Propionibacterium acnes | Staphylococcus epidermidis is the commonest cause of prosthetic and line infection precisely because it is always there |
| Mouth and throat | Viridans streptococci, Neisseria, anaerobes | Viridans streptococci cause endocarditis after dental procedures |
| Stomach | Almost sterile because of acid | Acid suppression allows overgrowth and increases enteric infection and pneumonia |
| Large intestine | Overwhelmingly anaerobes (Bacteroides, bifidobacteria) — about 99% — with E. Coli and enterococci | The source of organisms in intra-abdominal sepsis and urinary infection |
| Vagina | Lactobacilli in the reproductive years, producing lactic acid and keeping the pH below 4.5 | Antibiotics disturb this and allow candidal overgrowth |
| Normally sterile sites | Blood, cerebrospinal fluid, deep tissues, lower respiratory tract, bladder, peritoneum | Any organism isolated from these is significant unless it is a known contaminant |
- Beneficial roles — colonisation resistance (competing for nutrients and receptors and producing inhibitory substances), synthesis of vitamin K and B group vitamins, stimulation of the immune system and of gut-associated lymphoid tissue, and aid to digestion
- Harmful roles — they act as opportunistic pathogens when displaced from their site (E. Coli in the urinary tract), when a barrier is breached (bowel perforation, a catheter), or when immunity fails; and they are a reservoir of resistance genes
CLINICAL PEARL
Antibiotics cause disease by removing the flora that was protecting the patient. The normal population occupies niches and competes for nutrients, so suppressing it allows resistant organisms to flourish — oral and vaginal candidiasis, and clostridioides difficile colitis. This is why the treatment for superinfection is usually to stop the antibiotic that caused it rather than to add another.
Host-parasite Relationship
| Term | Meaning |
|---|---|
| Infection | Entry, multiplication and establishment of an organism in the host; may or may not cause disease |
| Colonisation | Multiplication without tissue invasion or host response — not disease, and usually not requiring treatment |
| Carrier | Harbours and disseminates the organism without illness. Healthy, convalescent, incubatory, or chronic (as in the typhoid carrier, in whom the gallbladder is the reservoir) |
| Pathogenicity | The ability of a species to cause disease — a qualitative property |
| Virulence | The degree of pathogenicity — a quantitative property, measured as the LD50 or ID50 |
| Opportunistic pathogen | Causes disease only when host defences are impaired |
| Nosocomial infection | Acquired in hospital, appearing 48 hours or more after admission |
Determinants of Bacterial Virulence
- Adhesion — pili and fimbriae, adhesins and surface proteins; without attachment there is no infection, which is why the flushing action of urine and the mucociliary escalator are so protective
- Invasion — invasins and enzymes: hyaluronidase ("spreading factor"), collagenase, streptokinase (fibrinolysin), lecithinase
- Evasion of host defences — the capsule (antiphagocytic); protein A of staphylococci (binds the Fc portion of IgG the wrong way round); M protein of Streptococcus pyogenes; IgA protease; coagulase, which walls the organism off in fibrin; intracellular survival (Mycobacterium, Salmonella, Listeria); and antigenic variation
- Toxin production — exotoxins and endotoxin
- Iron acquisition by siderophores, competing with host transferrin and lactoferrin
- Biofilm formation on devices and damaged tissue
Host Defence Mechanisms
- Mechanical barriers — intact skin, mucous membranes, the mucociliary escalator, coughing and sneezing, the flushing of urine and tears
- Chemical barriers — gastric acid, lysozyme in tears and saliva, fatty acids and low pH of skin, lactoferrin, defensins, the acidic vaginal pH
- Biological — the normal flora itself
- Innate cellular and humoral — phagocytes (neutrophils and macrophages), natural killer cells, the complement system, interferons, acute phase proteins, fever and inflammation
- Adaptive — humoral (antibody) and cell-mediated immunity, with memory
Koch Postulates and Their Limitations
- The postulates — the organism must be found in all cases of the disease and not in healthy individuals; it must be isolated in pure culture; it must reproduce the disease when inoculated into a susceptible animal; and it must be RE-isolated from that animal
- Limitations — some organisms cannot be cultured (M. Leprae, Treponema pallidum); some have no animal model; asymptomatic carriers harbour the organism without disease, breaking the first postulate; disease may require several organisms or a particular host state; and ethical considerations forbid human inoculation
- Modified molecular postulates now relate a gene to virulence — the gene should be present in pathogenic strains, its inactivation should reduce virulence, and restoring it should restore virulence
- They remain a useful discipline of thought — before attributing a disease to an organism, ask whether it is present in all cases, absent in health, and capable of producing the illness
Applied Aspects
- Distinguish colonisation from infection before prescribing — a positive wound swab, sputum culture or catheter urine in a well patient usually needs no antibiotic, and treating it selects resistance
- Every indwelling device breaches a barrier; catheters, cannulae and tubes should be removed as soon as they are not needed, which prevents more infection than any antibiotic
- Immunosuppressed patients are threatened by their own flora and by organisms of low virulence, so the differential diagnosis of fever is entirely different
- Chronic carriers sustain outbreaks — the typhoid carrier with gallbladder colonisation is the classical example, and food handlers must be identified and treated
- Do not suppress gastric acid unnecessarily; it is a genuine defence, and its removal increases enteric infection, C. Difficile and pneumonia
- Handwashing removes transient flora and is the single most effective measure against cross-infection; alcohol rub is faster and better for most organisms, but soap and water is required for C. Difficile spores
- Resident flora cannot be eliminated, only reduced, which is why surgical scrub uses a substantive agent such as chlorhexidine that goes on acting under the glove
- Probiotics aim to restore the flora, and faecal microbiota transplantation for recurrent C. Difficile infection is a striking demonstration that the flora itself can be therapeutic
- The microbiome is increasingly implicated beyond infection — in obesity, immune development and inflammatory disease — which reframes the normal flora as an organ rather than a set of passengers
- Opportunistic infection defines the differential in the immunosuppressed — organisms of low virulence that would never trouble a normal host, so the threshold for investigation must be far lower
- Malnutrition, diabetes, HIV and chronic kidney disease are the common causes of impaired defence in Indian practice, and each shifts the likely pathogens in a predictable direction
- Virulence and host resistance are two sides of one balance; the same organism causes asymptomatic carriage in one person and fatal sepsis in another, which is why treating the host matters as much as killing the organism
- Vaccination works by shifting that balance before exposure, and is the only intervention that prevents infection without selecting for resistance
- Nutrition is an underrated determinant of infection outcome, and in India undernutrition remains a major reason why tuberculosis, measles and diarrhoea kill children who would otherwise recover
- Splenectomised patients are at lifelong risk from capsulated organisms — pneumococcus, meningococcus and Haemophilus — and require vaccination, prophylaxis and a card, because the spleen is what clears them
- Take an occupational, travel and animal contact history; brucellosis, leptospirosis, scrub typhus, anthrax and rabies are all suggested by exposure long before any test is available
Principle
The autoclave sterilises by saturated steam under pressure, which kills by coagulation and denaturation of microbial protein.
Water boils at 100°C at atmospheric pressure → Increasing the pressure raises the boiling point → At 15 lb/in² (1 atmosphere above ambient), steam reaches 121°C → Steam condenses on the cooler load, releasing a large amount of latent heat and wetting the surface → Moisture and heat together denature and coagulate protein → Holding for 15 minutes at 121°C kills all organisms including spores
| Temperature | Pressure | Holding time |
|---|---|---|
| 121°C | 15 lb/in² | 15 minutes — the standard cycle |
| 126°C | 20 lb/in² | 10 minutes |
| 134°C | 30 lb/in² | 3 minutes — the "flash" cycle; and 18 minutes for prion inactivation |
CLINICAL PEARL
Complete removal of air is the single most important requirement, and the commonest cause of failure. Air is a poor conductor of heat and does not mix freely with steam, so a trapped air pocket sits at a lower temperature than the chamber gauge reports. Instruments inside it are not sterilised, while every physical indicator says the cycle was correct. This is precisely why the BOWIE-DICK test, which checks air removal and steam penetration, is performed daily on vacuum autoclaves.
Types of Autoclave
- Simple (pressure cooker) type — downward displacement, in which steam entering at the top pushes the denser air out through a discharge tap at the bottom; suitable for unwrapped solid instruments and fluids
- Gravity displacement — the standard hospital jacketed autoclave, working on the same principle
- Pre-vacuum (high-vacuum) type — a pump evacuates the chamber before steam is admitted, so air removal is virtually complete and penetration into porous loads is immediate. It allows shorter cycles at 134°C and is essential for wrapped packs, dressings, linen and porous loads
Uses and Limitations
- Uses — surgical instruments, dressings, gowns and linen, gloves, rubber and suitable plastics, culture media, aqueous solutions, and the decontamination of infectious laboratory waste before disposal
- Not suitable for — oils, greases and powders (steam cannot penetrate them, so a hot air oven is used); heat-labile plastics, endoscopes and prosthetic materials (ethylene oxide or hydrogen peroxide plasma); and sharp cutting edges, which are blunted
- Practical requirements — do not overload; leave space between packs; open the taps or lids of containers so steam can enter; and begin timing only when the whole load has reached temperature, not when the gauge does
- Fluids must be cooled slowly to avoid flash boiling and bottle explosion when the door is opened
Sterilisation Control
- Physical — thermometer, pressure gauge, timer and a printed cycle chart; these confirm the machine's conditions but not the centre of the load
- Chemical — autoclave tape (shows exposure only, not sterility), BROWNE tubes (red to green), and the BOWIE-DICK test for air removal, done as the first cycle of each day
- Biological — the definitive control: spore strips of Geobacillus stearothermophilus, which are the most heat-resistant organisms known and germinate at 55 to 60°C if the cycle failed. If these spores are dead, everything else is
- Records must be kept for every cycle, with the load identified, so that a failed cycle can be traced and the instruments recalled
Applied Aspects
- Autoclave tape proves exposure, not sterility — relying on it alone is the commonest false reassurance in a small hospital or clinic
- Run a biological indicator regularly (weekly, and with every implant load), and act on a failure by recalling and reprocessing
- Clean instruments before autoclaving; blood and tissue shield organisms from steam and may bake on permanently
- Autoclave infectious laboratory and hospital waste before disposal, in line with the Biomedical Waste Management Rules
- Do not use a "flash" cycle as routine practice for convenience; it is intended for an urgently needed unwrapped instrument, and packs sterilised this way cannot be stored
- Where autoclaves are unreliable or power is intermittent, as in some peripheral Indian facilities, this must be recognised and addressed rather than assumed away — unsterile instruments transmit hepatitis B, C and HIV
Definition and Occurrence
A bacterial spore (endospore) is a dormant, highly resistant, non-reproductive body formed within the vegetative cell in response to adverse conditions — a survival form, not a means of multiplication.
- Formed by two medically important genera — bacillus (aerobic) and clostridium (anaerobic)
- Sporulation is triggered by nutrient depletion, usually in the stationary phase; one cell produces one spore, so there is no increase in numbers
- Germination back to the vegetative form occurs when conditions become favourable, and is the phase in which the organism causes disease
Structure and the Basis of Resistance
| Component | Feature and contribution to resistance |
|---|---|
| Core | Contains the nucleoid and ribosomes with only 10–30% of the normal water content — dehydration is a major reason protein cannot be denatured |
| Dipicolinic acid with calcium | Forms up to 15% of the dry weight and is unique to spores; it stabilises DNA and proteins and is central to heat resistance |
| Small acid-soluble proteins (SASPs) | Coat and protect the DNA from heat, desiccation and UV radiation |
| Cortex | Thick, loosely cross-linked peptidoglycan maintaining dehydration of the core |
| Spore coat | Keratin-like protein layers giving resistance to chemicals, lysozyme and enzymes |
| Exosporium | An outer lipoprotein membrane in some species |
| Metabolism | Essentially dormant — no measurable metabolism, so antibiotics that require an active target have nothing to act on |
CLINICAL PEARL
The spore is resistant because it is dry, and antibiotics fail against it because it is asleep. Moist heat kills by coagulating protein, which requires water; a core with almost no free water simply cannot be coagulated at ordinary temperatures. And since penicillin needs a cell to be building a wall and other agents need active metabolism, a dormant spore presents no target at all. Both facts follow from the same structure.
Position, Shape and Identification
- Position and shape are used in identification — central and non-bulging in Bacillus anthracis; subterminal in Clostridium perfringens; terminal and bulging, giving a "drumstick" appearance in Clostridium tetani; and oval subterminal bulging in C. Botulinum
- Staining — spores are unstained by the Gram method and appear as clear refractile areas within the cell; they are demonstrated by the modified Ziehl-Neelsen (Schaeffer-Fulton) method with malachite green, which stains the spore green and the vegetative cell red
- Demonstrated in culture by heating a specimen at 80°C for 10 minutes, which kills vegetative forms and selects for spore-bearers
Medical and Practical Importance
- They are the reference standard for sterilisation — a process is defined as sterilising only if it kills spores, and biological indicators use spore strips of Geobacillus stearothermophilus and Bacillus subtilis
- Survival in the environment for years to decades — anthrax spores persist in soil for many years, which is why buried carcasses remain a hazard and why anthrax is a bioterrorism agent
- Diseases caused by spore-formers — tetanus (soil-contaminated wounds), gas gangrene, botulism (including infant botulism from honey), anthrax, Bacillus cereus food poisoning, and clostridioides difficile colitis
- Resistance to disinfectants — spores survive alcohol, most quaternary ammonium compounds and boiling; only sporicidal agents (glutaraldehyde with prolonged contact, hypochlorite, ethylene oxide, peracetic acid) are effective
- Alcohol hand rub does not kill spores — hand-washing with soap and water is required to physically remove them, which is the central infection control measure in a C. Difficile outbreak
Applied Aspects
- Thorough wound toilet and debridement prevent tetanus and gas gangrene more reliably than any antibiotic, since spores in devitalised tissue germinate in the anaerobic environment created by the injury itself
- Give tetanus prophylaxis appropriate to the wound and the immunisation history — toxoid, and immunoglobulin for a dirty wound in an inadequately immunised patient
- Do not give honey to infants under 1 year, because of the risk of infant botulism from ingested spores germinating in an immature gut
- Use soap and water, not alcohol rub, for C. Difficile, and clean the environment with a sporicidal agent such as hypochlorite
- Tetanus remains a cause of preventable death in India, particularly neonatal tetanus from unclean cord practices; maternal immunisation and clean delivery have brought it close to elimination
- Reprocess instruments by a method proven sporicidal; boiling is disinfection, not sterilisation, and this distinction is frequently misunderstood in smaller facilities
Principle of Staining
- Bacteria are colourless and nearly transparent, with a refractive index close to that of water; staining provides contrast and reveals morphology, arrangement and internal structures
- Simple staining uses a single dye (methylene blue, carbol fuchsin) to show shape and arrangement
- Differential staining uses more than one reagent and divides organisms into groups — the gram and ZIEHL-neelsen methods
- Negative staining (India ink, nigrosin) stains the background, leaving the organism or its capsule clear — used for cryptococcus in cerebrospinal fluid
Gram Stain
| Step | Reagent | Purpose |
|---|---|---|
| 1. Primary stain | Crystal violet (1 minute) | Stains all cells violet |
| 2. Mordant | Gram'S iodine (1 minute) | Forms a large crystal violet–iodine complex within the cell, too big to escape easily |
| 3. Decolourisation — the critical step | Acetone or 95% alcohol (a few seconds only) | Gram-positives retain the complex in their thick cross-linked peptidoglycan, which alcohol dehydrates and closes; gram-negatives lose their lipid-rich outer membrane and the thin peptidoglycan cannot hold the dye |
| 4. Counterstain | Safranin or dilute carbol fuchsin (30 seconds) | Stains the now-colourless gram-negative cells pink or red |
- Result — gram-positive organisms appear violet or blue, gram-negative organisms pink or red
- Over-decolourisation is the commonest error, making gram-positives appear gram-negative; under-decolourisation does the reverse
- Old cultures and antibiotic-treated organisms may appear gram-variable, so a young culture is preferred
CLINICAL PEARL
The Gram stain is over a century old and remains one of the most useful investigations in medicine. It costs almost nothing, takes about three minutes, and it divides organisms into two groups that differ in wall structure, toxin type and antibiotic susceptibility. A gram stain of cerebrospinal fluid, pus or a sputum sample guides the first antibiotic dose hours or days before any culture result — which is usually when the decision has to be made.
Ziehl-neelsen (acid-fast) Stain
| Step | Reagent and technique |
|---|---|
| 1. Primary stain with heat | Strong carbol fuchsin, heated until steam rises, for 5 minutes; the heat drives the dye through the waxy wall. The slide must not be allowed to boil or dry |
| 2. Decolourise | 20% sulphuric acid (and 3% alcohol for M. Tuberculosis) |
| 3. Counterstain | Methylene blue or malachite green |
| Result | Acid-fast bacilli appear bright red against a blue background |
- The basis of acid-fastness is the mycolic acid in the mycobacterial cell wall — a long-chain lipid that makes the wall waxy and impermeable, so heat is needed to drive the stain in and, once in, acid cannot wash it out
- Degrees of acid-fastness — M. Tuberculosis resists 20% sulphuric acid; M. Leprae only 5%; Nocardia and cryptosporidial oocysts only 1%, so a modified stain with weaker acid is used for them
- Fluorescence microscopy with auramine-rhodamine is more sensitive and faster to read, and is now widely used in tuberculosis programmes; reporting is semi-quantitative, since the number of bacilli relates to infectivity and to response
Other Staining Methods
- ALBERT stain — demonstrates the metachromatic (volutin) granules of Corynebacterium diphtheriae, which appear bluish-black against green bacilli arranged in a "Chinese letter" pattern
- Capsule staining — negative staining with India ink, or the quellung reaction, in which type-specific antiserum causes apparent capsular swelling and identifies the serotype
- Spore staining — Schaeffer-Fulton with malachite green
- Flagella staining — requires a mordant to thicken the flagellum enough to be visible
- Giemsa and Leishman — for blood parasites, Borrelia, and intracellular inclusions
- Immunofluorescence — antibody labelled with a fluorochrome, for rapid detection of specific organisms and antigens
Applied Aspects
- A gram stain of cerebrospinal fluid can guide treatment within minutes — gram-positive diplococci suggest pneumococcus, gram-negative diplococci meningococcus, and gram-negative coccobacilli Haemophilus
- Assess sputum quality before reporting — a specimen with many squamous epithelial cells is saliva, and culturing it yields oral flora and misleads treatment
- Sputum microscopy remains the mainstay of tuberculosis diagnosis in India, being cheap, rapid and available at peripheral level; two specimens including an early-morning sample improve yield
- A negative smear does not exclude tuberculosis — about 10,000 bacilli per millilitre are needed for a positive smear, so culture or CBNAAT is required where suspicion remains
- Heat gently and never boil during the Ziehl-Neelsen stain; overheating distorts the smear, and all specimens must be handled as potentially infectious, with sputum smears prepared in a safety cabinet where facilities allow
WHY Anaerobes Are Difficult
- Obligate anaerobes are killed by oxygen because they lack superoxide dismutase and catalase, and so cannot detoxify the superoxide and hydrogen peroxide formed in its presence
- They require a low oxidation-reduction (redox) potential, which is created in the body by devitalised tissue, poor blood supply, foreign material and the presence of aerobes consuming oxygen
- They are a large part of the normal flora — about 99% of colonic organisms — so infections are usually endogenous and polymicrobial
- They die during transport, which is the commonest reason they are not isolated; the laboratory then reports "no growth" from an obviously infected specimen
Specimen Collection and Transport
- Aspirate pus with a syringe rather than using a swab, expel the air, and cap the needle or transfer to an anaerobic transport vial; a swab exposed to air is the worst possible specimen
- Appropriate specimens — aspirated pus, tissue, blood, deep wound aspirate, and specimens from normally sterile sites
- Unsuitable specimens — anything contaminated with normal flora, since anaerobes are part of it: throat swabs, expectorated sputum, voided urine, faeces (except for C. Difficile toxin), and vaginal swabs
- Transport promptly in a reduced transport medium such as Cary-Blair or a commercial anaerobic system; delay is the enemy
- Clues to anaerobic infection — a foul, putrid odour, gas in tissues, necrosis, an abscess, proximity to a mucosal surface, and organisms seen on Gram stain but no growth on ordinary culture
CLINICAL PEARL
"Pus cells seen, no organisms grown" often means an anaerobe was there and died on the way. A Gram stain showing abundant polymorphs and mixed organisms, followed by a sterile aerobic culture, is a characteristic and much-misread pattern. It should prompt anaerobic culture and, in practice, empirical anaerobic cover — not the conclusion that the specimen was contaminated or the infection viral.
Methods of Anaerobic Culture
| Method | Principle | Comments |
|---|---|---|
| Anaerobic jar (McINTOSH-FILDES) | Hydrogen from a gas-generating sachet combines with residual oxygen over a palladium catalyst to form water; carbon dioxide is also released | The commonest practical method. An indicator (methylene blue or resazurin, which is colourless when reduced) must be included to confirm anaerobiosis, and a control aerobic plate is incubated alongside |
| Anaerobic chamber (glove box) | A sealed cabinet with an oxygen-free atmosphere in which plates are inoculated and handled | The most reliable method, since plates are never exposed to air; expensive and available only in reference laboratories |
| Robertson cooked meat medium | Meat particles contain reducing substances and absorb oxygen; the layer of paraffin excludes air | Also differentiates — saccharolytic organisms turn the meat pink with gas and acid; proteolytic organisms turn it black with a foul odour |
| Thioglycollate broth | Sodium thioglycollate reduces the medium; a redox indicator shows the anaerobic zone | Permits growth of aerobes at the top and anaerobes at the bottom in a single tube |
| Candle jar | Burning a candle in a sealed jar consumes some oxygen and raises CO2 | Produces a microaerophilic and capnophilic atmosphere, not a truly anaerobic one — suitable for pneumococci and gonococci but not for strict anaerobes |
| Pre-reduced anaerobically sterilised media | Media prepared and stored under oxygen-free gas | Best recovery rates |
Identification and Treatment
- Identification — colony morphology, pigment and fluorescence, Gram stain, gas-liquid chromatography of metabolic products, biochemical tests, and increasingly MALDI-TOF mass spectrometry, which identifies isolates within minutes
- Important pathogens — bacteroides fragilis (the commonest anaerobe in clinical infection, and notably beta-lactamase producing), Prevotella, Fusobacterium, Peptostreptococcus, clostridium species and Actinomyces
- Treatment — surgical drainage and debridement are primary; antibiotics penetrate pus poorly and the environment is hostile. metronidazole (a prodrug activated only under anaerobic conditions), clindamycin, carbapenems, and beta-lactam with beta-lactamase inhibitor combinations
- Aminoglycosides are inactive against anaerobes, because their uptake requires an oxygen-dependent transport system — a point of practical importance when choosing empirical cover for intra-abdominal sepsis
Applied Aspects
- Send pus, not a swab; this single change in practice improves anaerobic isolation more than any laboratory method
- Tell the laboratory that anaerobic infection is suspected, or the appropriate media and jars will not be set up
- Drain the abscess — no antibiotic reliably sterilises a collection, and source control outranks drug choice
- Cover anaerobes empirically where the site suggests them — intra-abdominal, pelvic, aspiration pneumonia, diabetic foot, and bite wounds
- Anaerobic culture is not available in many Indian laboratories, so treatment is frequently empirical; recognising the clinical pattern therefore matters more, not less
- Remember tetanus and gas gangrene are clinical diagnoses — treatment must not await laboratory confirmation, which may never come
Definitions and Classification of Biosafety
Biosafety comprises the containment principles, technologies and practices that prevent unintentional exposure to pathogens or their accidental release.
| Level | Organisms | Requirements |
|---|---|---|
| BSL-1 | Agents not known to cause disease in healthy adults — Bacillus subtilis, non-pathogenic E. Coli | Standard microbiological practice; open bench; no special containment |
| BSL-2 | Moderate-hazard agents — Staphylococcus, Salmonella, hepatitis B and C, HIV, most routine clinical specimens | Restricted access, biohazard signs, personal protective equipment, and a biological safety cabinet for aerosol-generating procedures. The level at which most hospital laboratories operate |
| BSL-3 | Agents transmitted by the aerosol route causing serious disease — Mycobacterium tuberculosis, Brucella, SARS-CoV-2 culture, Coxiella | Controlled access with a double door, negative pressure with directional airflow, HEPA-filtered exhaust, all work in a safety cabinet, respiratory protection |
| BSL-4 | Dangerous agents with a high risk of aerosol transmission and NO available treatment or vaccine — Ebola, Marburg, Nipah, smallpox | Maximum containment: a separate building, positive-pressure suits or a Class III cabinet, airlocks, and decontaminating showers. Very few such laboratories exist; NIV Pune has one |
CLINICAL PEARL
The biosafety level is set by the route of transmission, not by how frightening the disease is. HIV is a lethal infection yet is handled at BSL-2, because it is not transmitted by aerosol and the risk in a laboratory is from needlestick injury. Tuberculosis requires BSL-3 despite being curable, because a single aerosol-generating procedure can infect everyone in the room. Containment is engineered against the mechanism of spread.
Laboratory-acquired Infection and its Prevention
- Commonest laboratory-acquired infections — tuberculosis, brucellosis, typhoid, shigellosis, hepatitis B, and Q fever
- Routes — aerosol generation (centrifugation, vortexing, pipetting, flaming a loop with material on it) is the most important and least appreciated; percutaneous injury from needles and broken glass; ingestion by mouth pipetting or hand-to-mouth contact; and splashes to mucous membranes
- Prevention — work in a biological safety cabinet for aerosol-generating procedures; never mouth pipette; use sealed centrifuge buckets; wear gloves, gown and eye protection; no eating, drinking or cosmetics in the laboratory; and immunise staff against hepatitis B
- Standard (universal) precautions — treat every specimen as potentially infectious, since the ones that are known to be dangerous are not the ones that cause accidents
- Post-exposure management — wash the site immediately, encourage bleeding without squeezing, report at once, assess the source, and give post-exposure prophylaxis for HIV within hours and hepatitis B immunoglobulin with vaccine where indicated
Biomedical Waste Management
| Category | Colour code (India) | Contents and treatment |
|---|---|---|
| Yellow | Yellow bag | Human and animal anatomical waste, soiled waste, expired medicines, chemical waste, laboratory and microbiological waste — treated by incineration or deep burial; laboratory cultures must be autoclaved before disposal |
| Red | Red bag | Contaminated recyclable plastic — tubing, bottles, intravenous sets, catheters, syringes without needles; autoclaved or treated, then recycled |
| White (translucent) | Puncture-proof, leak-proof container | Sharps — needles, blades, scalpels; disinfected and destroyed by shredding or encapsulation |
| Blue | Cardboard box with blue marking | Broken or discarded glassware and metallic implants; disinfected and recycled |
- Governed by the Bio-Medical Waste Management Rules 2016 (as amended) in India
- Segregation AT source is the whole basis of the system — once infectious waste is mixed with general waste, the entire quantity must be treated as infectious, multiplying cost and risk
- Never recap a needle; recapping is the commonest cause of needlestick injury, and sharps must go directly into the container at the point of use
- Sharps containers are filled to three-quarters only and then sealed
Applied Aspects
- Immunise all healthcare workers and students against hepatitis B and check the antibody response; this is the single most effective protective measure and is still incompletely implemented
- Report every needlestick injury, however trivial it seems; under-reporting means prophylaxis is not given and the injury is not prevented next time
- Aerosols are the underestimated hazard — opening a centrifuge too soon, flaming a wet loop, or forcing a plunger all generate them invisibly
- Unsafe injection practice and improper waste disposal remain serious problems in parts of India, and are documented routes of hepatitis B, C and HIV transmission; scavenging of discarded syringes for resale is a recognised hazard
- Autoclave microbiological cultures before disposal, without exception; sending live cultures out with general waste endangers waste handlers
- Train and protect the people who handle waste, who are at greater risk than clinical staff and have the least say in how it is generated
Definition and Structure
A bacteriophage ("phage") is a virus that infects bacteria. It consists of a nucleic acid core, usually double-stranded DNA, within a protein coat.
- Typical structure (T-even phages) — a head (icosahedral capsid containing the nucleic acid), a tail with a contractile sheath, a base plate, and tail fibres that recognise specific receptors on the bacterial surface
- Host specificity is very high — a given phage infects only particular species or even strains, which is the basis of phage typing
- Discovered independently by Twort and d'Herelle, who named them for their ability to "eat" bacteria
Lytic and Lysogenic Cycles
Adsorption — tail fibres attach to a specific receptor → penetration — the sheath contracts and nucleic acid is injected; the protein coat remains outside (the basis of the Hershey–Chase experiment showing DNA is the genetic material) → The pathway now divides → lytic cycle — phage DNA takes over host machinery; new phage components are synthesised and assembled; the cell lyses, releasing progeny. Such phages are virulent → lysogenic cycle — phage DNA integrates into the bacterial chromosome as a prophage and replicates with it silently. The phage is temperate and the bacterium is lysogenic → The prophage may later be induced by UV light or chemicals to enter the lytic cycle
CLINICAL PEARL
The lysogenic cycle explains why some bacteria are dangerous and their relatives are not. A prophage can carry genes that give the host new properties — lysogenic conversion. The toxins of diphtheria, botulism, cholera, scarlet fever and E. Coli O157 are all phage-encoded, so the organism is only toxigenic if it carries the phage. Virulence in these species is not intrinsic; it is inherited from a virus.
Importance in Microbiology
- Lysogenic conversion — as above, and of the greatest medical importance
- Transduction — phages carry bacterial DNA from one cell to another, transferring resistance and virulence genes; generalised transduction packages any fragment by error, and specialised transduction moves genes adjacent to the prophage site
- Phage typing — strains within a species are distinguished by their pattern of susceptibility to a set of phages. Used epidemiologically for Staphylococcus aureus, Salmonella Typhi and Vibrio cholerae to trace outbreaks and identify a common source
- Molecular biology tools — phages are used as cloning vectors, in phage display, and the CRISPR system (now a genome-editing tool) originated as a bacterial defence against them
- Detection of specific bacteria — phage amplification assays for mycobacteria
Phage Therapy
- The use of lytic phages to treat bacterial infection, developed in Eastern Europe and largely abandoned in the West after antibiotics appeared, and now under renewed investigation because of antimicrobial resistance
- Advantages — highly specific, so the normal flora is spared; they replicate at the site of infection, so the dose is self-amplifying; they are effective against multidrug-resistant organisms and can penetrate biofilms; and new phages can be isolated relatively quickly
- Limitations — the very specificity that is an advantage means the organism must be identified and a matching phage found; bacteria develop resistance to phages as readily as to antibiotics; the immune system clears them; lysis releases endotoxin; and regulatory frameworks are not designed for a self-replicating, individualised treatment
- Current status — used compassionately in individual cases of resistant infection with some striking successes, with formal trials in progress; not yet established practice
Applied Aspects
- Phage typing traces outbreaks to their source, which is how staphylococcal and typhoid outbreaks have been linked to particular carriers and food handlers
- Toxigenicity must be tested, not assumed — a strain of C. Diphtheriae is confirmed as toxigenic by the Elek test or PCR for the tox gene, since a non-lysogenised strain is harmless
- Phage-encoded toxins explain why some E. Coli cause haemolytic-uraemic syndrome, and why antibiotics may worsen it by inducing the prophage and increasing Shiga toxin release
- Interest in phage therapy is driven by resistance, and India's high burden of multidrug-resistant infection makes it a plausible area of future practice
- Molecular typing has largely replaced phage typing in well-resourced laboratories, but phage typing remains cheap and useful where sequencing is unavailable
- The history is instructive — a promising treatment was abandoned because a better one appeared, and is being reconsidered because the better one is failing; therapeutic options are rarely obsolete for ever
Principles of Specimen Collection
- Collect before antibiotics are started wherever possible — a single dose can render cultures sterile and leave the patient without a microbiological diagnosis for the remainder of the illness
- Collect from the actual site of infection, avoiding contamination with normal flora; the deeper and more specific the specimen, the more interpretable the result
- Adequate quantity — a swab is the least satisfactory specimen; pus, tissue and fluid are far better
- Correct container and transport medium, correctly labelled, with the clinical details and antibiotic history on the request form
- Prompt transport; where delay is unavoidable, refrigerate urine but never refrigerate cerebrospinal fluid (meningococci and pneumococci die) or specimens for anaerobic culture
| Specimen | Key points |
|---|---|
| Blood culture | The most important microbiological investigation in a septic patient. Take at least 2 sets from separate sites, with strict skin antisepsis; volume is the single greatest determinant of yield (8–10 mL per bottle in adults); take before antibiotics |
| Urine | Clean-catch midstream; significant bacteriuria is conventionally ≥105 colony-forming units/mL of a single organism, though lower counts matter in symptomatic young women and in suprapubic samples. Growth of three or more organisms indicates contamination |
| Sputum | Deep cough, preferably early morning; assess quality first — many squamous cells means saliva. Two specimens for tuberculosis |
| Cerebrospinal fluid | Process immediately; do not refrigerate; divide for cell count, biochemistry and microbiology; Gram stain guides immediate treatment |
| Pus and wound | Aspirate with a syringe rather than swab; send tissue where possible |
| Stool | Fresh sample in a clean container; Cary-Blair for Vibrio and Campylobacter; three samples for parasites |
CLINICAL PEARL
Volume matters more than technique in blood culture, and this is consistently underestimated. Bacteraemia is often low-grade, with only a few organisms per millilitre, so every extra millilitre raises the yield measurably. Two properly filled sets from separate sites, taken before antibiotics, will detect the great majority of bloodstream infections — and a single under-filled bottle taken after the first dose will frequently detect nothing at all.
Antimicrobial Susceptibility Testing
| Method | Principle | Comments |
|---|---|---|
| Disc diffusion (Kirby-Bauer) | Antibiotic discs on a lawn of the organism on Mueller-Hinton agar; the antibiotic diffuses outward, creating a concentration gradient, and the zone OF inhibition is measured | Simple, cheap and the standard method in most Indian laboratories. Interpreted against CLSI or EUCAST breakpoints as sensitive, intermediate or resistant. Inoculum density, agar depth and disc potency must be standardised |
| Broth or agar dilution | Doubling dilutions determine the minimum inhibitory concentration (MIC) | The reference method; gives a quantitative result needed for endocarditis and for reduced-susceptibility organisms |
| E-test | A strip with a gradient of antibiotic; the MIC is read where the elliptical zone meets the strip | Combines the simplicity of diffusion with a quantitative MIC; more expensive |
| Automated systems | Growth measured turbidimetrically in wells | Rapid identification and MIC together; costly |
| Molecular detection | Detects the resistance gene rather than the phenotype | MecA for MRSA, rpoB for rifampicin resistance (CBNAAT), carbapenemase genes; fast, but a gene may be present without being expressed |
- "Sensitive" means the organism is likely to respond to the usual dose at the usual site — it is a clinical prediction, not a chemical measurement, which is why breakpoints differ between sites (a urinary breakpoint differs from a meningeal one)
- Special tests — the D-test for inducible clindamycin resistance; double-disc synergy for ESBL; modified Hodge and combined disc tests for carbapenemases; cefoxitin disc for MRSA
Serological and Molecular Diagnosis
- Antibody detection — a fourfold rise in titre between acute and convalescent samples is diagnostic; a single titre is difficult to interpret in an endemic area where background seropositivity is high. IgM indicates recent infection
- Common tests — WIDAL (typhoid; poor specificity and much over-used in India), ELISA, agglutination, complement fixation, and immunofluorescence
- Antigen detection — faster than antibody and positive early: rapid tests for malaria, dengue NS1, cryptococcal antigen, streptococcal antigen, and lateral flow assays generally
- Molecular methods — PCR, real-time PCR for viral load, CBNAAT for tuberculosis and rifampicin resistance, and sequencing; they detect nucleic acid rather than viability and are prone to contamination
- MALDI-TOF mass spectrometry identifies an isolate within minutes from a colony by its protein fingerprint, and has transformed turnaround time where available
Applied Aspects
- Take cultures before the first antibiotic dose, and do not delay treatment of a septic patient to do so — the two take a few minutes together
- Give the laboratory clinical information; a request marked only "culture and sensitivity" cannot prompt the special media and prolonged incubation that tuberculosis, anaerobes, fungi or fastidious organisms require
- Interpret a result in context — ask whether the organism fits the site and the illness, whether it could be contamination or colonisation, and whether the clinical course matches
- De-escalate when the sensitivity returns; the purpose of the test is to narrow therapy, and failing to act on it wastes both the specimen and the opportunity
- The Widal test is over-used and over-interpreted in India; a single raised titre in an endemic population is weak evidence, and blood culture remains the definitive test for typhoid
- Local antibiograms should guide empirical therapy rather than textbook spectra, since resistance patterns differ markedly between hospitals and regions
Definition and Classification
Immunity is the resistance of the host to infection and to foreign substances. It is broadly innate (natural, non-specific) or adaptive (acquired, specific).
| Feature | Innate immunity | Adaptive immunity |
|---|---|---|
| Specificity | Non-specific — recognises broad patterns (PAMPs) shared by classes of organism | Highly specific for a particular epitope |
| Speed | Immediate (minutes to hours) | Slow on first exposure (days), rapid thereafter |
| Memory | None — the response is identical every time | Present — the basis of vaccination |
| Components | Barriers, phagocytes, NK cells, complement, interferons, acute phase proteins, inflammation, fever | B lymphocytes and antibody; T lymphocytes |
| Receptors | Germ-line encoded, limited in number — TOLL-like receptors | Generated by gene rearrangement, giving enormous diversity |
| Diversity | Limited | Effectively unlimited |
| Present in | All multicellular organisms | Vertebrates only |
- Adaptive immunity is further classified as active (the host makes its own response, slow to develop but long-lasting, with memory) or passive (preformed antibody is transferred, giving immediate but temporary protection with no memory)
- Active natural — clinical or subclinical infection; active artificial — vaccination
- Passive natural — maternal IgG across the placenta and IgA in colostrum; passive artificial — immunoglobulin, antivenom, antitoxin
CLINICAL PEARL
The two systems are not alternatives; the innate response instructs the adaptive one. Dendritic cells recognising a pathogen through Toll-like receptors do not merely phagocytose it — they migrate to lymph nodes, present its antigen, and through the cytokines they release determine what kind of adaptive response follows. Without that instruction the adaptive system does not know what to make, which is why adjuvants work: they provoke innate signals.
Organs of the Immune System
| Category | Organs | Function |
|---|---|---|
| Primary (central) | Bone marrow and thymus | Sites where lymphocytes are produced and mature, and where self-reactive cells are deleted. B cells mature in the bone marrow (the bursa equivalent); T cells mature in the thymus |
| Thymic education | — | Positive selection retains cells that can recognise self-MHC; negative selection deletes those reacting strongly to self antigen — the basis of central tolerance. Over 95% of thymocytes die in the process |
| Secondary (peripheral) | Lymph nodes, spleen, and mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue (malt, GALT, tonsils, Peyer patches) | Sites where mature lymphocytes encounter antigen and mount a response |
| Lymph node | — | Cortex contains B-cell follicles with germinal centres; paracortex is the T-cell zone; medulla contains plasma cells. Filters lymph |
| Spleen | — | Filters blood; white pulp is lymphoid; the chief site of response to blood-borne and capsulated organisms — hence the risk after splenectomy |
Cells of the Immune System
| Cell | Markers | Function |
|---|---|---|
| B lymphocyte | CD19, CD20, surface immunoglobulin | Recognises native antigen through surface immunoglobulin; differentiates into plasma cells secreting antibody, and into memory B cells |
| T helper (CD4) | CD3, CD4 | Recognises antigen with MHC class II; the coordinator of the whole adaptive response. Subsets: Th1 (interferon-gamma; activates macrophages, cell-mediated immunity), Th2 (IL-4, IL-5; antibody and eosinophil responses), Th17 (mucosal defence against fungi and extracellular bacteria), T regulatory (suppress responses and maintain peripheral tolerance) |
| T cytotoxic (CD8) | CD3, CD8 | Recognises antigen with MHC class I; kills virus-infected and tumour cells by perforin, granzymes and Fas |
| Natural killer cell | CD16, CD56; CD3 negative | Innate lymphocyte that kills without prior sensitisation and without MHC restriction; it kills cells that have lost MHC class I ("missing self"), which is how viruses and tumours evade cytotoxic T cells. Also mediates ADCC |
| Macrophage and dendritic cell | MHC class II, CD14 (macrophage) | Antigen-presenting cells; phagocytosis, cytokine production. The dendritic cell is the most efficient and the only one that activates a naive T cell |
| Neutrophil | — | Principal phagocyte in acute bacterial infection |
| Eosinophil | — | Parasitic (helminth) infection and allergic disease |
| Mast cell and basophil | High-affinity IgE receptor (FcepsilonRI) | Type I hypersensitivity — release histamine and leukotrienes |
Innate Defence Mechanisms in Detail
- Mechanical barriers — intact skin, mucous membranes, the mucociliary escalator, coughing, sneezing, and the flushing action of urine and tears
- Chemical barriers — gastric acid, lysozyme in tears and saliva (which splits peptidoglycan), fatty acids and low pH of skin, lactoferrin sequestering iron, and defensins
- Biological — the normal flora, through colonisation resistance
- Phagocytosis — chemotaxis, adherence (greatly enhanced by opsonins: IgG and C3b), ingestion, and killing by oxygen-dependent (respiratory burst, myeloperoxidase) and oxygen-independent (lysozyme, lactoferrin, defensins) mechanisms
- Complement, interferons, acute phase proteins (C-reactive protein, mannose-binding lectin), fever and inflammation
- Pattern recognition — TOLL-like receptors recognise conserved microbial structures: TLR4 binds LPS, TLR2 peptidoglycan, TLR5 flagellin, TLR3, 7, 8 and 9 nucleic acids
Cytokines
| Cytokine | Chief source | Principal action |
|---|---|---|
| IL-1 | Macrophages | Endogenous pyrogen — fever; acute phase response; T-cell activation |
| IL-2 | Th1 cells | T-cell growth factor — the central autocrine signal of clonal expansion; the target of calcineurin inhibitors |
| IL-4, IL-5 | Th2 cells | IL-4 drives class switching to IgE; IL-5 activates eosinophils — together the basis of allergy and antihelminth defence |
| IL-6 | Macrophages, T cells | Acute phase proteins; fever; a key mediator of cytokine release syndrome, blocked by tocilizumab |
| IL-10, TGF-beta | T regulatory cells | Anti-inflammatory — suppress the response and maintain tolerance |
| IL-12 | Dendritic cells, macrophages | Drives Th1 differentiation |
| Interferon-gamma | Th1 cells, NK cells | The principal macrophage-activating cytokine; essential against intracellular organisms; up-regulates MHC |
| Interferon-alpha and beta | Virus-infected cells | Antiviral — induce an antiviral state in neighbouring cells |
| TNF-alpha | Macrophages | Inflammation, fever, cachexia; central to septic shock and to granuloma maintenance — which is why anti-TNF agents reactivate tuberculosis |
| Chemokines | Many cells | Direct leucocyte migration; CCR5 and CXCR4 are HIV co-receptors |
Applied Aspects
- Maternal IgG protects the infant for about 3 to 6 months, which is why the primary immunisation schedule begins at 6 weeks — earlier vaccination is partly neutralised by maternal antibody
- Splenectomised patients are at lifelong risk from capsulated organisms — pneumococcus, meningococcus, Haemophilus — and require vaccination, penicillin prophylaxis and a warning card
- Defects in phagocyte function cause recurrent pyogenic infection, as in chronic granulomatous disease, where the respiratory burst fails and catalase-positive organisms survive inside the phagocyte
- Passive immunisation gives immediate protection and no memory, which is why antivenom, antitoxin and immunoglobulin are used for immediate threats and are given alongside the vaccine in post-exposure prophylaxis
- Adjuvants work by provoking innate signals; alum and newer adjuvants convert a weakly immunogenic protein into an effective vaccine by supplying the danger signal that dendritic cells require
- Undernutrition impairs cell-mediated immunity particularly, and is a major reason why tuberculosis, measles and diarrhoea remain lethal in Indian children who would otherwise recover
Antigen — Definitions
| Term | Meaning |
|---|---|
| Antigen | A substance that reacts specifically with antibody or with a lymphocyte receptor |
| Immunogen | A substance that can induce an immune response. All immunogens are antigens, but not all antigens are immunogens |
| HAPTEN | An incomplete antigen — too small to induce a response alone, but becomes immunogenic when coupled TO A carrier protein. It can still react with preformed antibody. This is how penicillin causes allergy: the drug binds host protein and the complex is recognised |
| Epitope (antigenic determinant) | The smallest part of the antigen that actually binds the antibody or receptor; one antigen carries many epitopes |
| Adjuvant | A substance that enhances the response to an antigen without being antigenically related — alum, Freund adjuvant; it works by provoking innate signals and by depot formation |
| Superantigen | Binds MHC class II and the T-cell receptor outside the antigen groove, activating up to 20% of all T cells non-specifically — a massive cytokine storm. Examples: staphylococcal TSST-1 and enterotoxins, streptococcal pyrogenic exotoxins |
- Determinants of immunogenicity — foreignness (the greater the phylogenetic distance, the stronger the response), large molecular size (above about 10 kDa), chemical complexity (proteins are the best immunogens, then polysaccharides; lipids and nucleic acids are poor unless conjugated), degradability, and the dose, route and genetic constitution of the host
Immunoglobulin Structure
The basic unit is a Y-shaped glycoprotein of four polypeptide chains → two identical heavy chains (about 50 kDa) and two identical light chains (about 25 kDa), joined by disulphide bonds → Light chains are either kappa or lambda — never both in one molecule → Each chain has a variable (V) region at the amino end and a constant (C) region → The variable regions of one heavy and one light chain together form the antigen-binding site, containing three hypervariable regions (complementarity-determining regions) that make the actual contact → The hinge region gives flexibility so the two arms can grip epitopes at varying distances → The heavy chain constant region forms the Fc portion, which determines the class and all the effector functions
| Fragment | Produced by | Properties |
|---|---|---|
| Fab (2 per molecule) | PAPAIN digestion | "Fragment antigen binding" — each binds antigen but is monovalent, so it cannot cross-link and cannot precipitate or agglutinate |
| Fc (1 per molecule) | Papain digestion | "Fragment crystallisable" — no antigen binding; carries complement fixation, placental transfer, opsonisation and cell binding |
| F(ab')2 | Pepsin digestion | Bivalent, so it can cross-link and precipitate, but has NO Fc — therefore no complement activation and less immunogenicity. This is why F(ab')2 antivenom causes fewer reactions than whole antiserum |
CLINICAL PEARL
Splitting the molecule separates recognition from action, and that is exploited therapeutically. The Fab arms decide what is bound; the Fc stem decides what happens next. Removing the Fc, as in F(ab’)2 antivenom or digoxin-specific Fab fragments, keeps the binding and discards the complement activation and immunogenicity — which is exactly what is wanted when the object is to mop up a toxin rather than to provoke inflammation.
Classes of Immunoglobulin
| Class | Heavy chain | Form and % | Key features |
|---|---|---|---|
| IgG | Gamma | Monomer; 75–80% — the most abundant | The only class crossing the placenta (giving passive immunity for 3–6 months); predominant in the secondary response; fixes complement; opsonises; neutralises toxins; longest half-life (about 23 days); four subclasses |
| IgM | Mu | Pentamer with a J chain; 5–10%; the largest ("millionaire molecule") | First antibody in the primary response and first made by the fetus; the most efficient complement activator (10 binding sites); best agglutinator; cannot cross the placenta — so IgM in cord blood means intrauterine infection; it is the natural isotype of ABO isohaemagglutinins |
| IgA | Alpha | Monomer in serum; dimer with J chain and secretory component in secretions; 10–15% | The chief mucosal antibody — in saliva, tears, respiratory, gastrointestinal and genitourinary secretions, and colostrum. The secretory component protects it from proteolysis. Does not fix complement by the classical pathway. Produced in the greatest daily amount of any class |
| IgE | Epsilon | Monomer; lowest serum concentration of all | Binds with high affinity to mast cells and basophils; mediates type I hypersensitivity; defence against helminths. Raised in atopy and parasitic infection |
| IgD | Delta | Monomer; trace | Chiefly a surface receptor on mature naive B cells; function otherwise unclear |
Primary and Secondary Immune Response
| Feature | Primary response | Secondary (anamnestic) response |
|---|---|---|
| Lag phase | Long — 5 to 10 days | Short — 1 to 3 days |
| Antibody class | IgM predominates | IgG predominates (class switching) |
| Peak level | Low | Much higher |
| Duration | Short | Prolonged |
| Affinity | Lower | Higher — affinity maturation by somatic hypermutation in germinal centres |
| Antigen dose needed | Large, often with adjuvant | Small |
| Cells involved | Naive B cells | Memory B cells |
- The secondary response is the entire basis of booster doses and of why a vaccinated person is protected: on real exposure the response is fast enough to prevent disease
Monoclonal Antibodies
- Produced by hybridoma technology — a B cell from an immunised animal is fused with a myeloma cell, giving an immortal clone secreting a single antibody of one specificity (Köhler and Milstein)
- Nomenclature indicates origin and immunogenicity — "-omab" murine (most immunogenic, provoking human anti-mouse antibodies), "-ximab" chimeric, "-zumab" humanised, "-umab" fully human (least immunogenic)
- Diagnostic uses — ELISA and rapid tests, immunohistochemistry, blood grouping, flow cytometry, and tumour marker assays
- Therapeutic uses — rituximab (anti-CD20), trastuzumab (anti-HER2), infliximab and adalimumab (anti-TNF), tocilizumab (anti-IL-6R), omalizumab (anti-IgE), eculizumab (anti-C5), and the checkpoint inhibitors in cancer
- Passive immunisation — palivizumab against respiratory syncytial virus, and monoclonal antibodies developed against SARS-CoV-2 and rabies
- Limitations — very high cost, parenteral administration, infusion reactions, immunogenicity, and infection risk with immunosuppressive agents; biosimilars produced in India have substantially improved access
Applied Aspects
- IgM in the newborn indicates intrauterine infection, since maternal IgM cannot cross the placenta — the practical basis of diagnosing congenital rubella, toxoplasmosis, syphilis and cytomegalovirus
- A fourfold rise in antibody titre between acute and convalescent sera is diagnostic; a single titre is hard to interpret where the population has high background seropositivity, as in India
- IgM indicates recent infection and IgG past exposure or immunity, which is why both are measured in dengue, hepatitis and torch screening
- Secretory IgA in colostrum protects the newborn gut, which is a concrete immunological argument for breastfeeding and for feeding through diarrhoeal illness
- Selective IgA deficiency is the commonest primary immunodeficiency, and these patients may develop anaphylaxis to blood products containing IgA
- Monoclonal antibodies are now major therapeutic agents — rituximab, trastuzumab, infliximab and the checkpoint inhibitors
- Hapten-carrier conjugation explains drug allergy — penicillin is far too small to be immunogenic alone, and becomes so only by binding host protein; this is also why cross-reactivity occurs within a drug class
- Superantigens explain toxic shock syndrome — a small amount of TSST-1 activates a huge fraction of T cells at once, and the resulting cytokine storm causes the shock rather than any direct toxicity
- Adjuvants are what make a purified protein vaccine work; without an innate danger signal the adaptive system responds poorly, which is why alum is added to toxoid and recombinant vaccines
- A booster dose exploits the secondary response, producing higher-affinity IgG within days; the interval between doses matters because memory cells need time to develop
- Immunoglobulin levels vary with age — a physiological trough at 3 to 6 months as maternal IgG wanes before the infant’s own production rises, which is when antibody deficiencies first declare themselves
- Serum protein electrophoresis is a useful screen — a monoclonal band suggests myeloma, a diffuse polyclonal rise suggests chronic infection or liver disease, and a reduced gamma region suggests hypogammaglobulinaemia
- Antibody neutralises toxin but cannot reach an intracellular organism, which is why humoral immunity protects against diphtheria and tetanus and cell-mediated immunity is required against tuberculosis
- Passive antibody interferes with live vaccines, so measles vaccination is deferred for some months after immunoglobulin or blood transfusion
- Affinity maturation takes weeks, which is why the antibody of a primary response is less protective than that of a secondary one even at the same titre
Definition and Components
The complement system is a group of about 30 heat-labile serum proteins, mostly made in the liver, which act in a self-amplifying cascade to mediate inflammation, opsonisation and lysis.
- Inactivated at 56°C for 30 minutes — the basis of "heat inactivation" of serum before certain serological tests
- C3 is the most abundant and the central component, at which all three pathways converge
The Three Pathways
| Pathway | Trigger | Early components | C3 convertase |
|---|---|---|---|
| Classical | Antigen-antibody complexes — IgM (most efficient, one molecule suffices) or IgG (needs two adjacent molecules) | C1q, C1r, C1s → C4 → C2 | C4b2a |
| Alternative (properdin) | Microbial surfaces directly — LPS, teichoic acid, zymosan; NO antibody required, so it works from the first moment of infection | C3b with factors B and D, stabilised by properdin | C3bBb |
| Lectin | Mannose-binding lectin binds mannose residues on microbial surfaces; also antibody-independent | MBL with MASP-1 and MASP-2 → C4 → C2 | C4b2a |
All three pathways generate a C3 convertase → C3 → C3a + C3b → C3b binds the surface (opsonisation) and forms the C5 convertase → C5 → C5a + C5b → C5b binds C6, C7, C8 and multiple C9 molecules → membrane attack complex (MAC, C5b-9) forms a transmembrane pore → Osmotic lysis of the cell
CLINICAL PEARL
The alternative and lectin pathways matter because they work without antibody. The classical pathway requires a prior adaptive response, so it is useless on first encounter with a new organism. The other two recognise microbial surfaces directly and are active within minutes of infection, before any antibody exists — which is why complement belongs to innate immunity even though its classical arm is triggered by antibody.
Biological Functions
| Function | Component | Effect |
|---|---|---|
| Opsonisation — the most important | C3b (and C4b) | Coats the organism; phagocytes carry C3b receptors, so ingestion is greatly enhanced. This is why C3 deficiency causes severe pyogenic infection |
| Chemotaxis | C5a (the most potent) | Attracts and activates neutrophils |
| Anaphylatoxins | C3a, C4a, C5a | Cause mast cell degranulation, histamine release, increased vascular permeability and smooth muscle contraction — an antibody-independent route to anaphylaxis-like reactions, as with radiocontrast |
| Cytolysis | MAC (C5b-9) | Lyses gram-negative bacteria; gram-positives are protected by their thick wall. Especially important against neisseria |
| Immune complex clearance | C3b | Complexes coated with C3b bind CR1 on erythrocytes and are carried to the liver and spleen for removal — failure of this causes immune complex disease |
| B-cell activation | C3d with CR2 (CD21) | Lowers the threshold for B-cell responses |
Complement Deficiencies and Regulation
| Deficiency | Consequence |
|---|---|
| C1 inhibitor | Hereditary angio-oedema — recurrent non-itchy, non-urticarial swelling of face, larynx and gut; mediated by bradykinin, so it does not respond to adrenaline, antihistamines or steroids. Treated with C1 inhibitor concentrate, icatibant or fresh frozen plasma. ACE inhibitors precipitate attacks |
| C3 | Severe, recurrent pyogenic infections from infancy — the most serious complement deficiency, because opsonisation fails |
| C5–C9 (terminal components / MAC) | Characteristically recurrent neisserial infection — meningococcal and gonococcal — because these organisms are cleared chiefly by MAC lysis. Any patient with recurrent meningococcal disease should be tested |
| C1, C2, C4 (early classical) | SLE-like disease and immune complex disorders, from failure of complex clearance |
| DAF (CD55) and CD59 | Paroxysmal nocturnal haemoglobinuria — an acquired defect of the GPI anchor; unregulated complement lyses the patient’s own red cells. Treated with eculizumab, an anti-C5 antibody |
| MBL | Increased infection in infancy |
- Regulatory proteins prevent damage to host cells — C1 inhibitor, factor H and factor I, DAF and CD59. Host cells are protected; microbial surfaces are not, which is what gives the alternative pathway its selectivity
Measurement and Clinical Interpretation
| Test | What it assesses | Interpretation |
|---|---|---|
| CH50 | Functional integrity of the whole classical pathway plus terminal components | A value of zero points to a complete deficiency of one component and is the screening test in recurrent neisserial infection |
| AH50 | Alternative pathway | Abnormal in factor B, D or properdin deficiency |
| C3 and C4 levels | Individual components, measured by nephelometry | Both low — classical pathway consumption, as in active SLE and serum sickness. C3 low with normal C4 — alternative pathway activation, as in post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis. C4 low with normal C3 — suggests C1 inhibitor deficiency |
| C1 inhibitor level and function | Hereditary angio-oedema | Level may be normal in the type II variant, so function must also be measured |
| Complement in tissue | Immunofluorescence on renal biopsy | "Full house" staining with IgG, IgA, IgM, C3 and C1q is characteristic of lupus nephritis |
- Falling C3 and C4 indicate active consumption and are used to track disease activity, whereas a persistently low level with no illness suggests an inherited deficiency
Applied Aspects
- Test complement in recurrent neisserial infection; terminal component deficiency is easily missed and the patient benefits from meningococcal vaccination and prophylaxis
- Hereditary angio-oedema is repeatedly mistaken for anaphylaxis and treated with adrenaline, antihistamines and steroids, none of which work; the absence of urticaria and itch is the clue, and a low C4 supports the diagnosis
- Low C3 and C4 indicate active consumption, and are used to monitor disease activity in SLE and post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis
- Eculizumab blocks C5 and prevents MAC formation, transforming paroxysmal nocturnal haemoglobinuria and atypical haemolytic-uraemic syndrome — but it produces exactly the deficiency described above, so patients must be vaccinated against meningococcus before treatment
- Anaphylatoxins explain "pseudo-allergic" reactions to radiocontrast, vancomycin and some drugs, which look like anaphylaxis but involve no IgE and may occur on first exposure
- Heat serum at 56°C for 30 minutes to destroy complement before certain serological tests, or non-specific lysis confuses the result
- C3 deficiency is the most dangerous, because opsonisation fails and both the classical and alternative pathways converge on it; such children present with severe pyogenic infection in infancy
- Complement is consumed in disseminated intravascular coagulation and severe sepsis, and low levels there reflect consumption rather than deficiency
- The alternative pathway is active from the first moment of infection, which is why complement is classed as innate immunity despite its classical arm needing antibody
- Immune complexes are cleared on erythrocytes through CR1, so anaemia and splenectomy both impair clearance and predispose to immune complex deposition
- C1 inhibitor also regulates the contact and kinin systems, which is why its deficiency causes bradykinin-mediated angio-oedema rather than a complement-mediated illness, and why ACE inhibitors precipitate attacks
- Complement is heat-labile at 56°C but the antibody is not, which is the basis of inactivating serum without destroying the specific antibody being measured
- The alternative pathway distinguishes self from non-self by regulation — host surfaces carry factor H and other inhibitors, microbial surfaces do not, so amplification proceeds only on the invader
- Complement therapeutics are expanding — eculizumab and its successors block C5, and their cost and the meningococcal risk they create are both practical considerations
- Vaccinate against meningococcus before starting a C5 inhibitor, and consider continuous penicillin prophylaxis; the drug creates precisely the deficiency that predisposes to neisserial disease
- C-reactive protein and mannose-binding lectin are innate opsonins that activate complement without antibody, which is why CRP rises so early in bacterial infection
- Do not confuse low complement with immunodeficiency in an acutely ill patient; consumption in active SLE or sepsis is far commoner than an inherited defect
- Complement bridges innate and adaptive immunity — C3d binding CR2 lowers the threshold for B-cell activation, so the innate system amplifies the adaptive one it also instructs
- Splenectomy impairs complement-mediated clearance as well as removing the site of response to blood-borne capsulated organisms, which is why these patients need vaccination and prophylaxis for life
Definition and Classification
Hypersensitivity is an exaggerated or inappropriate immune response to an antigen, resulting in tissue damage. Gell and Coombs described four types.
| Type | Name | Mediator | Time to onset |
|---|---|---|---|
| I | Immediate (anaphylactic, atopic) | IgE on mast cells | Seconds to minutes |
| II | Cytotoxic (antibody-mediated) | IgG or IgM against a cell-surface or matrix antigen | Minutes to hours |
| III | Immune complex | Antigen-antibody complexes deposited in tissue | 3 to 10 hours (up to weeks in serum sickness) |
| IV | Delayed (cell-mediated) | T lymphocytes and macrophages — NO antibody | 24 to 72 hours |
- Types I, II and III are antibody-mediated and can therefore be transferred by serum; type IV is cell-mediated and can be transferred only by cells. This is the single most useful way to hold the classification
- A type V (stimulatory) is sometimes added for antibodies that stimulate rather than destroy — the TSH-receptor antibody of graves disease
Type I — Immediate Hypersensitivity
First exposure — antigen drives a Th2 response with IL-4 → B cells class-switch to produce IgE → IgE binds high-affinity FcepsilonRI receptors on mast cells and basophils — the person is now sensitised but has no symptoms → second exposure — antigen cross-links adjacent IgE molecules → degranulation within seconds → preformed mediators — histamine, tryptase, heparin, chemotactic factors → newly synthesised mediators — leukotrienes (the old SRS-A), prostaglandins, platelet-activating factor, cytokines → early phase (minutes) — vasodilatation, increased permeability, bronchospasm, itch; then a late phase at 4–12 hours with eosinophil infiltration and sustained inflammation
- Examples — anaphylaxis, atopic asthma, allergic rhinitis, urticaria and angio-oedema, food and drug allergy, insect sting reactions
- Tests — skin prick test, intradermal test, serum specific IgE (RAST), and total IgE
- Treatment — adrenaline intramuscularly in anaphylaxis; antihistamines, corticosteroids and mast cell stabilisers for lesser reactions; allergen avoidance; and desensitisation (immunotherapy) in selected patients
CLINICAL PEARL
The first exposure causes no reaction, and that is what makes drug allergy so treacherous. Sensitisation is silent — the patient tolerates the drug perfectly, and the IgE is made afterwards. The reaction comes on a later exposure, often to a drug the patient and the doctor both know has been given safely before. A previous uneventful course is therefore no guarantee of safety.
Type II — Cytotoxic Hypersensitivity
- Mechanism — IgG or IgM binds an antigen on a cell surface or basement membrane, and damage follows by (1) complement activation and lysis, (2) opsonisation and phagocytosis, (3) antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity (ADCC) by NK cells
- Examples — ABO-incompatible transfusion reaction; haemolytic disease OF the newborn (Rh incompatibility); autoimmune haemolytic anaemia and immune thrombocytopenia; goodpasture syndrome (anti-glomerular basement membrane antibody affecting kidney and lung); rheumatic carditis (molecular mimicry with streptococcal M protein); drug-induced cytopenias; and hyperacute graft rejection
- Antibodies that block or stimulate rather than destroy — myasthenia gravis (blocking the acetylcholine receptor) and graves disease (stimulating the TSH receptor)
- Test — the COOMBS (antiglobulin) test: direct detects antibody already on the patient’s red cells; indirect detects free antibody in the serum, and is used in cross-matching and antenatal screening
Type III and Type IV
| Feature | Type III — immune complex | Type IV — delayed |
|---|---|---|
| Mechanism | Soluble complexes formed in antigen excess are too small to be cleared and deposit in vessel walls, glomeruli, joints and skin; they fix complement, C5a attracts neutrophils, and enzyme release damages tissue | Sensitised CD4 Th1 cells recognise antigen and release cytokines (interferon-gamma) that recruit and activate macrophages; CD8 cells kill directly. Persistent antigen leads to granuloma formation |
| Timing | 3–10 hours; weeks in serum sickness | 24–72 hours (or weeks for granuloma) |
| Local example | ARTHUS reaction — local necrosis at a site of repeated antigen injection; hypersensitivity pneumonitis ("farmer’s lung") | Tuberculin (Mantoux) reaction; contact dermatitis to nickel, chromate and topical drugs |
| Systemic example | Serum sickness (fever, rash, arthralgia, proteinuria 7–10 days after heterologous serum); SLE; post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis; polyarteritis nodosa | Granulomatous disease — tuberculosis, leprosy, sarcoidosis, deep mycoses; graft rejection; and much of the tissue damage of these infections |
| Transferable by | Serum | Cells only |
| Histology | Neutrophils, fibrinoid necrosis, complement and immunoglobulin deposits | Lymphocytes and macrophages; epithelioid and giant cells |
Diagnostic Tests in Hypersensitivity
| Test | Type detected | Notes |
|---|---|---|
| Skin prick test | Type I | Read at 15–20 minutes as a wheal and flare; requires a positive (histamine) and negative control; antihistamines must be stopped beforehand. Resuscitation facilities must be available |
| Intradermal test | Type I | More sensitive but greater risk of a systemic reaction |
| Serum specific IgE (RAST) | Type I | Safe where skin testing is impossible — extensive eczema, dermographism, or inability to stop antihistamines |
| Serum tryptase | Type I | Rises after mast cell degranulation; confirms anaphylaxis retrospectively |
| COOMBS (antiglobulin) test | Type II | Direct detects antibody already coating the red cells; indirect detects free antibody in serum and is used for cross-matching and antenatal screening |
| Complement levels, immune complexes, biopsy | Type III | Low C3 and C4 with immunofluorescence showing immunoglobulin and complement deposits |
| Patch test | Type IV | Applied to the back and read at 48 and 96 hours; identifies contact allergens |
| Mantoux (tuberculin) test | Type IV | 0.1 mL of PPD intradermally, read at 48–72 hours as the diameter of induration (not erythema) |
Applied Aspects
- In tuberculosis and leprosy, much of the tissue damage is type IV hypersensitivity rather than the organism itself — which is why corticosteroids are given in tuberculous meningitis and pericarditis, and in type 1 lepra reactions to save nerve function
- The Mantoux test measures exposure, not disease, and in a country with universal BCG and high background infection its positive predictive value is limited; a negative test does not exclude tuberculosis, particularly in miliary disease, HIV or malnutrition, where anergy occurs
- Give anti-D immunoglobulin to Rh-negative mothers after delivery of an Rh-positive infant and after any sensitising event; it prevents haemolytic disease of the newborn by removing fetal cells before the mother can respond
- Ask about previous reactions before giving heterologous serum — antivenom, antitoxin — and have adrenaline drawn up; but never withhold antivenom from an envenomated patient for fear of a reaction, since the alternative is death
- Adrenaline is the only drug that reverses every feature of anaphylaxis, and antihistamines and steroids must never delay it
- Contact dermatitis is a common occupational problem — nickel, chromate in cement, rubber accelerators, and topical antibiotics; patch testing identifies the agent and avoidance is the treatment
- Read the Mantoux as induration, not erythema, at 48 to 72 hours; measuring redness is a common and consequential error
- Desensitisation (allergen immunotherapy) works by shifting the response from IgE toward IgG blocking antibody and regulatory T cells; it is effective for venom and pollen allergy but must be done where anaphylaxis can be treated
- Type II and type III are distinguished by where the antigen is — fixed on a cell surface in type II, soluble and forming circulating complexes in type III; the mediators overlap but the pattern of damage differs entirely
- Serum sickness is now seen chiefly with antivenom, antitoxin and some monoclonal antibodies, appearing 7 to 10 days after administration with fever, rash, arthralgia and proteinuria
- Atopy runs in families and tends to march — infantile eczema, then food allergy, allergic rhinitis and asthma; recognising the pattern allows earlier and better management
- Hypersensitivity pneumonitis is occupational and preventable — farmer’s lung, bagassosis, bird fancier’s lung; identifying and removing the exposure prevents irreversible fibrosis
- Type IV reactions to drugs may be severe — Stevens-Johnson syndrome and toxic epidermal necrolysis, associated with particular HLA types and with carbamazepine, allopurinol, sulphonamides and nevirapine
- Transfusion reactions span several types — acute haemolytic (type II, from ABO incompatibility and usually a clerical error), febrile non-haemolytic, allergic and anaphylactic (type I, notably in IgA deficiency)
- Check the identity of patient and unit at the bedside; ABO-incompatible transfusion is a preventable type II reaction and the fault is almost always administrative rather than immunological
- Latex allergy is an occupational hazard for healthcare workers, and cross-reacts with banana, avocado and kiwi; powder-free and synthetic gloves have greatly reduced it
- Anaphylaxis to antivenom must never prevent its use in an envenomated patient; adrenaline is drawn up first, the reaction treated, and the antivenom continued
Antigen Processing and Presentation
| Feature | MHC class I | MHC class II |
|---|---|---|
| Found on | All nucleated cells and platelets | Only antigen-presenting cells — dendritic cells, macrophages, B cells |
| Presents antigen to | CD8 cytotoxic T cells | CD4 helper T cells |
| Source of peptide | Endogenous — made inside the cell (viral and tumour proteins), degraded by the proteasome | Exogenous — taken up from outside by phagocytosis or endocytosis and degraded in lysosomes |
| Genes (in man) | HLA-A, B, C | HLA-DP, DQ, DR |
| Logic | "What is happening inside me?" — a virus-infected cell displays viral peptide and is killed | "What have I found outside?" — a phagocyte displays microbial peptide and recruits help |
CLINICAL PEARL
Two classes exist because there are two different problems. A cell infected by a virus must announce it, and the only useful response is for that cell to be destroyed — hence class I on every nucleated cell, read by CD8 cells. A phagocyte that has swallowed a bacterium must instead summon help — hence class II, read by CD4 cells that then coordinate antibody and macrophage activation. The location of the threat determines which pathway is used.
The Humoral Immune Response
Antigen is captured by a dendritic cell and carried to the lymph node → A naive B cell binds native antigen through its surface immunoglobulin and internalises it → The B cell presents processed peptide on MHC class II to a CD4 helper T cell → The T cell provides CD40L and cytokines — the "second signal" → The B cell proliferates, forming a germinal centre → class switching (IgM to IgG, IgA or IgE) and affinity maturation by somatic hypermutation → Differentiation into plasma cells (antibody factories) and memory B cells
- T-dependent antigens (proteins) require helper T cells, and therefore produce class switching, affinity maturation and memory
- T-independent antigens (polysaccharides, LPS) activate B cells directly but give IgM only, with NO memory and a poor response in infants under 2 — which is precisely why plain polysaccharide vaccines fail in young children and why conjugation to a protein carrier works
- Effector functions of antibody — neutralisation of toxins and viruses, opsonisation, complement activation, ADCC, agglutination and precipitation, and mucosal exclusion by secretory IgA
The Cell-mediated Immune Response
- Essential against — intracellular organisms (mycobacteria, Listeria, Salmonella, Brucella, Leishmania), viruses, fungi, tumour cells, and grafts; and it mediates type IV hypersensitivity
- CD4 Th1 cells release interferon-gamma, which is the principal macrophage-activating cytokine; activated macrophages then kill organisms they had merely contained
- CD8 cytotoxic T cells kill by releasing perforin (which forms pores) and granzymes (which trigger apoptosis), and by the Fas-Fas ligand pathway
- Granuloma formation is the response to antigen that cannot be eliminated — epithelioid cells, giant cells and lymphocytes wall it off; the characteristic lesion of tuberculosis, leprosy, sarcoidosis and deep mycoses
- Tests of cell-mediated immunity — delayed hypersensitivity skin tests (mantoux, lepromin), lymphocyte transformation, cytokine assays, and interferon-gamma release assays, which are unaffected by prior BCG
Immunological Tolerance and its Failure
- Tolerance is specific unresponsiveness to an antigen — and tolerance to self is what prevents autoimmunity
- Central tolerance — deletion of strongly self-reactive lymphocytes during maturation in the thymus and bone marrow
- Peripheral tolerance — anergy (recognition without the second signal), suppression by T regulatory cells, deletion, and sequestration of antigens in privileged sites (eye, testis, brain)
- Mechanisms of failure, causing autoimmunity — molecular mimicry (streptococcal M protein resembling cardiac myosin, giving rheumatic fever; Campylobacter and Guillain-Barré syndrome); release of sequestered antigen (sympathetic ophthalmia after eye injury); polyclonal activation by superantigens; failure of regulatory cells; and genetic predisposition, strongly linked to particular HLA types
Immune Evasion BY Pathogens
| Strategy | Mechanism | Examples |
|---|---|---|
| Antigenic variation | Change surface antigens so existing antibody no longer recognises the organism | Influenza (antigenic drift and shift), HIV, trypanosomes, Borrelia, gonococcal pili and Plasmodium |
| Intracellular survival | Hide where antibody cannot reach; block phagosome-lysosome fusion or escape into cytoplasm | M. Tuberculosis, Salmonella, Listeria, Leishmania, viruses |
| Antiphagocytic structures | Capsule; M protein; protein A binding IgG the wrong way round | Pneumococcus, S. Pyogenes, S. Aureus |
| IgA protease | Cleaves secretory IgA at the mucosal surface | Neisseria, Haemophilus, pneumococcus |
| Complement resistance | Recruit host regulatory proteins or shed the membrane attack complex | Neisseria, group A streptococci |
| Down-regulation of MHC | Hides the infected cell from cytotoxic T cells — but NK cells detect the "missing self" and kill it, which is why both systems are needed | Herpesviruses, cytomegalovirus, tumours |
| Immunosuppression | Direct attack on immune cells | HIV destroying CD4 cells; measles causing transient anergy |
| Latency | Persist without expressing antigen | Herpes simplex, varicella-zoster, tuberculosis |
Applied Aspects
- Conjugate vaccines exist because polysaccharides are T-independent; linking the polysaccharide to a protein recruits T-cell help and produces memory, which is what makes Hib, pneumococcal and meningococcal vaccines effective in infants
- HIV destroys CD4 cells and therefore both arms of the response, since the helper cell coordinates antibody production as well as macrophage activation; this is why the opportunistic infections are so diverse
- Interferon-gamma release assays are preferred to the Mantoux test in a BCG-vaccinated population, since they use antigens absent from BCG; but neither distinguishes latent infection from active disease
- Corticosteroids and other immunosuppressants act chiefly on cell-mediated immunity, which is why they reactivate tuberculosis and predispose to fungal and viral infection rather than to simple pyogenic disease
- Rheumatic fever is a disease of molecular mimicry, and secondary penicillin prophylaxis works by preventing the streptococcal infections that provoke it — an important programme in India
- Anergy in an ill patient is itself informative — a negative Mantoux in miliary tuberculosis, or loss of skin test reactivity in HIV, measles or severe malnutrition, indicates depressed cell-mediated immunity rather than absence of infection
- Antigenic shift causes pandemics and drift causes epidemics — which is why the influenza vaccine must be reformulated annually and why a genuinely novel subtype finds a population with no immunity at all
- NK cells and cytotoxic T cells are complementary: a virus that down-regulates MHC to hide from T cells makes itself a target for NK cells, so evading one arm exposes it to the other
- Live vaccines are contraindicated in T-cell deficiency, since the attenuated organism requires cell-mediated immunity to be contained — BCG has caused disseminated disease in infants with undiagnosed severe combined immunodeficiency
- Immunological memory is why vaccination works and why a second attack of measles is rare; the duration of that memory determines whether boosters are needed, and it differs greatly between vaccines
- Sequestered antigen explains sympathetic ophthalmia, in which injury to one eye exposes previously hidden antigen and the other eye is attacked — a rare but devastating illustration of why privileged sites exist
- Regulatory T-cell failure causes severe early autoimmunity, as in the IPEX syndrome, demonstrating that active suppression, and not merely deletion, is required to maintain tolerance
- Oral tolerance is exploited therapeutically in allergen immunotherapy, where controlled exposure by a tolerogenic route shifts the response away from IgE
- Tolerance is antigen-specific, whereas immunosuppression is not — which is why inducing tolerance to a graft remains the goal of transplantation research: it would remove the infection and malignancy risk that lifelong immunosuppression brings
- The Th1/Th2 balance determines the outcome in leprosy — a strong Th1 response gives paucibacillary tuberculoid disease with few organisms and much tissue damage; a Th2-dominant response gives lepromatous disease with abundant bacilli and little cellular reaction
- Cytotoxic T cells require the cell to display antigen on MHC class I, so a tumour that loses MHC escapes them — and it is that loss which checkpoint inhibitors and NK-based therapies attempt to circumvent
- Cell-mediated immunity is what BCG and the interferon-gamma release assays measure, and its impairment by HIV, malnutrition or steroids is why tuberculosis reactivates in exactly those patients
- The second signal prevents autoimmunity — a T cell meeting antigen without co-stimulation becomes anergic rather than activated, which is how the system distinguishes a genuine threat from harmless self
- Mucosal immunity is a separate compartment with its own IgA response, which is why oral polio vaccine gives gut immunity that the injectable form does not, and why that difference mattered in eradication strategy
- Dendritic cells decide what kind of response follows, so the cytokines they release on first encountering an organism determine whether a Th1, Th2 or Th17 response develops — and therefore whether the infection is controlled
- Vaccination is the deliberate creation of memory without disease, which is the single most successful application of immunology and the only intervention that prevents infection without selecting for resistance
Basic Structure
An immunoglobulin is a glycoprotein produced by plasma cells that binds antigen specifically. The basic unit is two identical heavy and two identical light chains linked by disulphide bonds in a Y shape.
- Light chains — kappa or lambda (about 2:1 in man); a single molecule carries only one type
- Heavy chains determine the class — gamma (IgG), mu (IgM), alpha (IgA), epsilon (IgE), delta (IgD)
- Each chain has variable and constant regions; the variable regions of one heavy and one light chain form the antigen-binding site, with three hypervariable (complementarity-determining) regions making the contact
- The hinge region allows the arms to move, so epitopes at different spacings can be gripped
- Fab and Fc — PAPAIN gives two Fab and one Fc; pepsin gives one bivalent F(ab')2 and digests the Fc
The Five Classes Compared
| Feature | IgG | IgM | IgA | IgE | IgD |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| Serum % | 75–80 | 5–10 | 10–15 | Least of all | Trace |
| Form | Monomer | Pentamer (J chain) | Monomer in serum; dimer in secretions | Monomer | Monomer |
| Crosses placenta | Yes — the only one | NO | No | No | No |
| Complement (classical) | Yes | Yes — the most efficient | No | No | No |
| Half-life | About 23 days — the longest | 5 days | 6 days | 2 days — the shortest | 3 days |
| Chief role | Secondary response; opsonisation; toxin neutralisation; fetal protection | Primary response; agglutination; ABO isohaemagglutinins | Mucosal defence; colostrum | Type I hypersensitivity; helminths | B-cell surface receptor |
CLINICAL PEARL
IgM is a pentamer for a reason, and it is not simply size. The antibody made first in a response has low affinity, because affinity maturation has not yet happened. Ten binding sites compensate by giving high avidity — many weak grips hold as well as a few strong ones. The same architecture makes it the best agglutinator and the most efficient complement activator, since a single molecule can engage C1q.
Special Features
- Secretory IgA — a dimer joined by a J chain, with a secretory component added by the epithelial cell as it is transported across. That component protects it from proteolysis in the gut and secretions, which is why it survives where other antibodies would not
- Total daily production of IgA exceeds that of all other classes combined, reflecting the size of the mucosal surface it defends
- IgG subclasses — IgG1 and IgG3 fix complement well and cross the placenta best; IgG2 responds chiefly to polysaccharide antigens and its deficiency causes recurrent infection with capsulated organisms; IgG4 does not fix complement
- Immunoglobulin variants — isotype (the class, present in all members of a species), allotype (genetic differences between individuals), and idiotype (variation in the variable region, unique to a clone)
- Monoclonal antibodies are produced by hybridoma technology, fusing an antibody-producing B cell with a myeloma cell to give an immortal clone; they are now central to diagnosis and to therapy
Applied Aspects
- IgM in cord blood or neonatal serum means intrauterine infection, since maternal IgM cannot cross the placenta — the basis of diagnosing congenital rubella, syphilis, toxoplasmosis and cytomegalovirus
- IgM indicates recent infection; IgG indicates past exposure or immunity, and both are measured in dengue, hepatitis and antenatal screening
- Maternal IgG protects for 3 to 6 months and then wanes, which sets both the timing of primary immunisation and the age at which infections such as pneumococcal disease begin
- Selective IgA deficiency is the commonest primary immunodeficiency; many are asymptomatic, but some develop recurrent respiratory and gut infection, and they may react anaphylactically to blood products containing IgA
- Multiple myeloma produces a monoclonal band on electrophoresis with free light chains in urine (Bence Jones protein), while the other classes are suppressed — hence the paradox of a high total protein with recurrent infection
- Anti-D immunoglobulin is IgG, and works by removing fetal red cells from the maternal circulation before the mother can mount her own response
Principles
Antigen-antibody reactions are the specific, reversible, non-covalent combinations of antigen with antibody, used to detect either partner and forming the basis of serology.
- Bonds are non-covalent — hydrogen bonds, electrostatic, van der Waals and hydrophobic forces — so the reaction is reversible
- Affinity is the strength of binding of a single site to a single epitope; avidity is the overall strength of the whole molecule, which is why pentameric IgM has high avidity despite low affinity
- The zone phenomenon — visible reaction occurs only in the zone OF equivalence. In antibody excess (prozone) or antigen excess (postzone) the lattice does not form and the test is falsely negative
CLINICAL PEARL
The prozone phenomenon is a false negative caused by too much antibody, which is exactly the opposite of what intuition suggests. Each antigen becomes coated with separate antibody molecules and no cross-linking lattice forms, so nothing is seen. It is a recognised cause of a falsely negative VDRL in secondary syphilis, when antibody levels are at their highest — and the remedy is simply to dilute the serum and repeat.
Types of Reaction
| Reaction | Principle | Examples |
|---|---|---|
| Precipitation | Soluble antigen + antibody form a visible lattice | Ring test (Ascoli, Lancefield grouping); immunodiffusion (ouchterlony double diffusion, showing patterns of identity, non-identity and partial identity); radial immunodiffusion (Mancini) for quantification; immunoelectrophoresis; ELEK test for diphtheria toxigenicity |
| Agglutination | Particulate antigen clumps; more sensitive than precipitation | ABO blood grouping; WIDAL test; slide and tube agglutination; COOMBS (antiglobulin) test; latex agglutination; passive haemagglutination; Weil-Felix |
| Complement fixation | Antigen-antibody complexes consume complement, so added sensitised sheep red cells are not lysed | Historically important — the Wassermann test for syphilis; largely superseded |
| Neutralisation | Antibody blocks the biological activity of a toxin or virus | Antistreptolysin O (ASO) titre; virus neutralisation tests |
| Immunofluorescence | Antibody labelled with a fluorochrome and viewed by UV microscopy | Direct for antigen in tissue (rabies in brain, respiratory viruses); indirect for antibody in serum, and more sensitive |
| ELISA | Enzyme-labelled antibody produces a colour change | HIV, hepatitis, dengue; the workhorse of modern serology |
| Radioimmunoassay | Radioisotope label | Very sensitive; superseded by non-radioactive methods |
| Immunochromatography (lateral flow) | Antigen or antibody captured on a strip, read visually | Rapid point-of-care tests — malaria, dengue NS1, HIV, pregnancy; no equipment required, which makes them invaluable in field conditions |
Interpretation of Serological Results
- A fourfold rise in titre between acute and convalescent samples taken 10 to 14 days apart is the standard evidence of recent infection
- A single titre is difficult to interpret in an endemic area, where much of the population is already seropositive from past exposure — a persistent problem with the Widal test in India
- IgM indicates recent infection; IgG indicates past infection or immunity
- Antibody appears only after a window period, so early serology is negative; antigen detection or nucleic acid testing is required in that interval, which is critical in HIV and hepatitis
- False positives arise from cross-reacting antigens, rheumatoid factor, pregnancy, autoimmune disease and other infections; false negatives from the window period, the prozone effect, and immunosuppression
- Sensitivity and specificity govern use — a highly sensitive test is used to screen and a highly specific test to confirm, which is why a reactive HIV ELISA is confirmed by a second assay before any result is given
Applied Aspects
- Never report a positive HIV screening test as a diagnosis; India’s national algorithm requires reactivity on three different assays, and pre- and post-test counselling are part of the procedure
- Dilute and repeat when a strongly suspected serological test is negative, to exclude the prozone effect
- Rapid tests have transformed field diagnosis in India — malaria, dengue, HIV, hepatitis B, syphilis and visceral leishmaniasis can all be diagnosed without a laboratory, which changes what is possible at primary care level
- The Widal test is over-used and over-interpreted; blood culture remains the definitive test for typhoid, and a single raised Widal titre in an endemic population is weak evidence
- Take paired sera whenever serology is used for diagnosis, and label the dates clearly; a single sample often cannot answer the question
- Store and transport sera correctly; haemolysed, lipaemic or contaminated samples give unreliable results, and repeated freeze-thaw cycles destroy antibody
Principle
The enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) detects and quantifies antigen or antibody using an enzyme-labelled conjugate whose action on a substrate produces a colour change, measured spectrophotometrically.
- Enzymes used — horseradish peroxidase and alkaline phosphatase, with substrates such as TMB or para-nitrophenyl phosphate
- Performed in microtitre plates of 96 wells, allowing many samples to be tested at once; results are read as optical density against a cut-off
- Washing between every step is the critical technical requirement, since unbound conjugate left behind produces colour and a false positive
Types of ELISA
| Type | Method | Detects |
|---|---|---|
| Indirect ELISA | Known antigen coated on the well → patient serum added → enzyme-labelled anti-human immunoglobulin → substrate | Antibody in the patient — the commonest format, used for HIV, hepatitis and dengue serology |
| Sandwich (direct) ELISA | Known antibody coated on the well → patient sample added → a second enzyme-labelled antibody to a different epitope → substrate | Antigen in the patient — HBsAg, dengue NS1, rotavirus, hormones; highly specific because two antibodies must bind |
| Competitive ELISA | Patient antigen competes with labelled antigen for a limited number of antibody sites | Small molecules with a single epitope (hormones, drugs); the colour is inversely proportional to the amount present |
| Elispot | Detects cytokine secreted by individual cells, seen as spots | Counts antigen-specific T cells — the basis of interferon-gamma release assays for tuberculosis |
| Capture (IgM) ELISA | Anti-human IgM coated on the well captures the patient IgM first | Avoids interference by rheumatoid factor and by competing IgG — used for IgM in dengue and Japanese encephalitis |
CLINICAL PEARL
The sandwich format is more specific because the target must be recognised twice. A molecule sticking non-specifically to the plate will not usually also bind the second, differently-directed antibody, so it produces no colour. That is why sandwich assays are preferred for detecting antigen, where a false positive would wrongly diagnose active infection — and it also explains why the method needs an antigen with at least two accessible epitopes, and so fails for small haptens.
Advantages and Limitations
- Advantages — high sensitivity and specificity; objective and quantitative; large numbers of samples processed at once; reagents are stable; no radioactivity; and it can be automated
- Limitations — requires a plate reader, washer and trained staff; batching means individual results may be delayed; cross-reactivity and non-specific binding cause false positives; and it detects antibody, so it is negative during the window period
- Sources of error — inadequate washing, incorrect incubation time or temperature, expired or improperly stored reagents, and prozone at very high antibody concentration
- Controls are essential in every run — positive, negative and blank — and the cut-off is calculated from them rather than fixed
Applications
- HIV — screening by ELISA, with fourth-generation assays detecting p24 antigen together with antibody, which shortens the window period considerably
- Hepatitis B and C — HBsAg, anti-HBs, anti-HBc, anti-HCV
- Dengue — NS1 antigen (positive from day 1, before antibody appears) and IgM and IgG capture assays
- Other infections — toxoplasma, rubella, cytomegalovirus, amoebiasis, cysticercosis, leptospirosis, rotavirus
- Non-infectious uses — hormone assays including pregnancy testing, tumour markers, autoantibodies, allergen-specific IgE, drug levels, and food adulteration testing
Applied Aspects
- A reactive screening ELISA is not a diagnosis — HIV requires confirmation on further assays under the national algorithm, together with counselling; reporting an unconfirmed result has caused serious harm
- Understand the window period; a negative ELISA soon after exposure does not exclude HIV or hepatitis, and antigen or nucleic acid testing is needed
- Combine NS1 with IgM in dengue — NS1 is positive early and IgM appears from about day 5, so the two together cover the whole illness
- Rapid lateral flow tests are ELISA principles in a portable format, and their availability at primary care level in India matters more in practice than the marginally higher sensitivity of a plate assay
- Run and inspect the controls; a plate with a failed control must be repeated rather than interpreted, however inconvenient
- Interpret every result with the clinical picture; a positive test in a low-prevalence population has a poor positive predictive value however good the assay
Definition and Mechanism
Anaphylaxis is a severe, rapidly developing, generalised type I hypersensitivity reaction that is potentially fatal. anaphylactoid (non-allergic) reactions are clinically identical but do not involve IgE.
Prior sensitising exposure produces IgE, which binds mast cells and basophils — the person is sensitised but has NO symptoms → RE-exposure — antigen cross-links adjacent IgE molecules → Mast cell degranulation within seconds → Release of histamine, tryptase, leukotrienes, prostaglandins and platelet-activating factor → vasodilatation and massive capillary leak — up to a third of plasma volume can shift out of the circulation in minutes → bronchospasm, laryngeal oedema, urticaria, gut smooth muscle contraction → distributive shock, airway obstruction and death
- Anaphylactoid reactions result from direct mast cell degranulation or complement anaphylatoxins, without IgE — so they can occur on first exposure. Causes include radiocontrast media, vancomycin, opioids, NSAIDs and neuromuscular blockers. Management is identical
Causes and Clinical Features
| System | Features |
|---|---|
| Skin (about 80–90%) | Urticaria, flushing, angio-oedema, itching — usually the first sign, but absent in up to 20%, and its absence must not exclude the diagnosis |
| Respiratory | Laryngeal oedema with stridor and hoarseness; bronchospasm with wheeze; a sense of throat closing — the commonest cause of death in food-induced anaphylaxis |
| Cardiovascular | Hypotension, tachycardia, collapse — the commonest cause of death in drug- and venom-induced anaphylaxis |
| Gastrointestinal | Cramping abdominal pain, vomiting, diarrhoea |
| Neurological | Anxiety, a sense of impending doom, confusion, loss of consciousness |
- Common causes — drugs (penicillins and other beta-lactams, NSAIDs, anaesthetic agents, radiocontrast); foods (peanut, tree nuts, shellfish, egg, milk); insect stings; latex; heterologous serum (antivenom, antitoxin); vaccines rarely; and exercise-induced and idiopathic forms
- Biphasic reactions occur in up to 20%, recurring 1 to 72 hours after apparent recovery without further exposure — which is why observation after treatment is essential
CLINICAL PEARL
Adrenaline is the only drug that reverses every feature, and delay is what kills. It is an alpha agonist (reversing vasodilatation and mucosal oedema), a beta1 agonist (inotropic and chronotropic) and a beta2 agonist (bronchodilator and mast cell stabiliser). Antihistamines and corticosteroids do none of this and act far too slowly. Deaths continue to occur because an antihistamine was given first while adrenaline was delayed.
Management
- Remove the trigger — stop the infusion, remove the sting
- Adrenaline 0.5 mg (0.5 mL of 1:1000) intramuscularly into the anterolateral thigh, repeated every 5 minutes as needed. The thigh is chosen because absorption is faster than from the deltoid or subcutaneous tissue. Do not wait for intravenous access
- Position — lie the patient flat with the legs raised; sitting or standing a hypotensive patient up has caused sudden death ("empty ventricle syndrome")
- Airway and high-flow oxygen; early intubation if the airway is threatened, since it becomes rapidly impossible
- Rapid intravenous fluids — large volumes of crystalloid, since the problem is distributive with massive capillary leak
- Second-line only — an antihistamine for the cutaneous symptoms, a corticosteroid to reduce the biphasic reaction, and a nebulised bronchodilator; none of these treats the acute event
- Refractory cases — adrenaline infusion; glucagon in patients on beta-blockers, who respond poorly to adrenaline, since it raises cardiac cAMP by a route that bypasses the blocked receptor
- Observe for 6 to 12 hours because of biphasic reactions
Prevention and Applied Aspects
- Take an allergy history before every prescription and injection, and ask what the previous reaction actually was
- Keep adrenaline immediately available wherever injections, antivenom, contrast or vaccines are given, and observe the patient for 20 to 30 minutes afterwards
- Every survivor needs an adrenaline auto-injector, training in its use, a written emergency plan, and referral for allergy assessment to identify the trigger
- Measure serum tryptase at presentation and again later; a rise confirms mast cell degranulation and supports the diagnosis retrospectively
- Never withhold antivenom from an envenomated patient for fear of a reaction — have adrenaline drawn up, treat the reaction if it occurs, and continue, because the alternative is death from envenomation
- Penicillin allergy labels are usually wrong and are carried for life; formal assessment and de-labelling restore access to the safest and cheapest antibiotics
The Major Histocompatibility Complex
The major histocompatibility complex (MHC), called HLA (human leucocyte antigen) in man, is a cluster of genes on the short arm of chromosome 6 encoding cell-surface molecules that present peptide to T lymphocytes.
| Feature | Class I | Class II |
|---|---|---|
| Loci | HLA-A, HLA-B, HLA-C | HLA-DP, HLA-DQ, HLA-DR |
| Distribution | All nucleated cells | Antigen-presenting cells only |
| Presents to | CD8 cytotoxic T cells | CD4 helper T cells |
| Peptide origin | Endogenous (viral, tumour), via the proteasome | Exogenous, via lysosomes |
| Structure | One alpha chain with beta2-microglobulin | Alpha and beta chains |
| Class III region | Encodes complement C2, C4 and factor B, and TNF — not antigen-presenting molecules | — |
- HLA genes are the most polymorphic in the human genome, with thousands of alleles, which is why finding a matched unrelated donor is difficult
- Inherited as a haplotype — a block of closely linked genes inherited together from each parent. Therefore siblings have a 25% chance of being HLA-identical, 50% haploidentical and 25% completely mismatched, which is why siblings are sought first as donors
- Co-dominant expression — both parental haplotypes are expressed
CLINICAL PEARL
The polymorphism that makes transplantation difficult is exactly what protects the species. Each HLA molecule binds only certain peptide shapes, so a population with many different alleles will always contain individuals able to present peptides from any new pathogen. Uniform HLA would mean a single organism could evade everyone at once. Graft rejection is the incidental cost of a system that exists to ensure no epidemic can find the whole population defenceless.
Graft Rejection
| Type | Timing | Mechanism | Prevention |
|---|---|---|---|
| Hyperacute | Minutes to hours | Pre-formed antibody (from previous transfusion, pregnancy or transplant) against donor ABO or HLA antigens; complement activation and vascular thrombosis. Type II hypersensitivity | ABO matching and cross-matching — entirely preventable, and the graft is lost on the table if it occurs |
| Acute | Days to months (commonest in the first 6 months) | Chiefly T-cell mediated (type IV) with a cellular infiltrate; may also be antibody-mediated | Immunosuppression; usually reversible with high-dose steroids or antithymocyte globulin |
| Chronic | Months to years | Progressive fibrosis and obliterative vasculopathy; both immune and non-immune factors | Poorly responsive to treatment — the main cause of late graft loss |
| Graft-versus-host disease | After bone marrow or stem cell transplant | The graft's immunocompetent T cells attack the immunosuppressed host — the reverse of ordinary rejection; affects skin, gut and liver | Matching, immunosuppression, and irradiation of blood products for at-risk patients |
Types of Graft and Investigations
- Types of graft — autograft (self to self) and isograft (identical twin) are accepted; allograft (same species) is rejected without immunosuppression and is the usual clinical situation; xenograft (different species) is vigorously rejected. Pre-transplant investigations — ABO grouping (the first and most important), HLA typing by molecular methods, lymphocytotoxicity cross-match between donor cells and recipient serum (a positive result is an absolute contraindication), panel-reactive antibody screening, and mixed lymphocyte reaction (largely historical)
- Privileged sites — the cornea, brain, testis and anterior chamber; corneal grafts survive without matching or systemic immunosuppression
Hla and Disease Association
| HLA type | Associated disease |
|---|---|
| HLA-B27 | Ankylosing spondylitis (the strongest known association), reactive arthritis, psoriatic arthropathy, acute anterior uveitis |
| HLA-DR3, DR4 | Type 1 diabetes mellitus |
| HLA-DQ2, DQ8 | Coeliac disease |
| HLA-DR2, DR4 | Multiple sclerosis, Goodpasture syndrome, narcolepsy; rheumatoid arthritis |
| HLA-B*57:01 | Abacavir hypersensitivity — testing is mandatory before prescribing |
| HLA-B*15:02 | Carbamazepine-induced Stevens-Johnson syndrome, strongly associated in Indian and South-East Asian populations |
| HLA-B*58:01 | Allopurinol hypersensitivity. Note that association is not causation — most HLA-B27 carriers never develop ankylosing spondylitis |
Applied Aspects
- ABO compatibility and cross-matching prevent hyperacute rejection, and are non-negotiable; HLA matching improves long-term survival but is not absolutely required for all organs
- Test for HLA-B*57:01 before abacavir and HLA-B*15:02 before carbamazepine where available; both predict severe and potentially fatal reactions, and the second is particularly relevant in India
- Corneal grafting requires no HLA matching or systemic immunosuppression in most cases, which makes eye donation and corneal transplantation feasible on a large scale — important in India, where corneal blindness is common
- The limiting factor in transplantation in India is organ availability rather than immunology; the Transplantation of Human Organs Act governs consent and prohibits commercial dealing, and deceased donation rates remain low
- Lifelong immunosuppression carries its own burden — infection, malignancy, nephrotoxicity and diabetes — so the balance between rejection and toxicity is a permanent clinical problem
Definition and Mechanisms
Autoimmunity is an immune response directed against the host’s own tissues, resulting from a breakdown of self-tolerance.
- Molecular mimicry — a microbial antigen resembles a self antigen, so the response cross-reacts. Streptococcal M protein and cardiac myosin in rheumatic fever; Campylobacter jejuni and peripheral nerve gangliosides in Guillain-Barré syndrome
- Release of sequestered antigen — antigens hidden from the immune system during development are seen as foreign when released: sympathetic ophthalmia after penetrating eye injury, and antisperm antibodies after vasectomy
- Failure of regulatory T cells or loss of anergy, and polyclonal activation by superantigens, infections and drugs
- Alteration of self antigen by drugs, as in drug-induced lupus (hydralazine, procainamide, isoniazid) and drug-induced haemolysis (methyldopa)
- Genetic predisposition — strong HLA associations, familial clustering and a marked female preponderance
CLINICAL PEARL
Rheumatic fever is the clearest demonstration that an infection can cause an autoimmune disease, and that preventing the infection prevents it. Antibody to streptococcal M protein cross-reacts with cardiac myosin, and the valve damage is done by the host response rather than by the organism, which has long since gone. This is why secondary penicillin prophylaxis works: it prevents the recurrent infections that would provoke further attacks — a major programme in India, where rheumatic heart disease remains common.
Classification of Autoimmune Disease
| Type | Features | Examples |
|---|---|---|
| Organ-specific | Antigen confined to one organ; damage limited to it; antibodies are organ-specific | Hashimoto thyroiditis and graves disease; type 1 diabetes; pernicious anaemia; myasthenia gravis; Addison disease; autoimmune haemolytic anaemia; goodpasture syndrome; vitiligo; pemphigus |
| Non-organ-specific (systemic) | Antigen widely distributed; multiple organs affected; often immune-complex mediated | SLE, rheumatoid arthritis, systemic sclerosis, Sjögren syndrome, polymyositis, the vasculitides |
| Intermediate | Features of both | Primary biliary cholangitis, autoimmune hepatitis |
Autoantibodies of Diagnostic Value
| Antibody | Disease |
|---|---|
| Antinuclear (ANA) | SLE — highly sensitive (a negative test makes SLE very unlikely) but not specific; positive in many conditions and in some healthy people |
| Anti-double-stranded DNA; anti-Smith | SLE — highly specific; anti-dsDNA titre reflects disease activity and nephritis |
| Rheumatoid factor; anti-CCP | Rheumatoid arthritis. Rheumatoid factor is an IgM against the Fc of IgG and is also positive in chronic infection; anti-CCP is more specific and positive earlier |
| Anti-thyroid peroxidase; TSH-receptor antibody | Hashimoto thyroiditis; and in graves disease a stimulating ("type V") antibody |
| Anti-acetylcholine receptor | Myasthenia gravis |
| Anti-glomerular basement membrane | Goodpasture syndrome (kidney and lung) |
| ANCA — cANCA (PR3), pANCA (MPO) | Granulomatosis with polyangiitis; microscopic polyangiitis |
| Anti-tissue transglutaminase, anti-endomysial | Coeliac disease |
| Anti-mitochondrial; anti-intrinsic factor | Primary biliary cholangitis; pernicious anaemia |
Principles of Treatment
- Replace what has been lost where the organ is destroyed — thyroxine in Hashimoto disease, insulin in type 1 diabetes, vitamin B12 in pernicious anaemia; immunosuppression is pointless once the tissue has gone
- Suppress the immune response where damage is ongoing — corticosteroids, azathioprine, methotrexate, mycophenolate, cyclophosphamide, calcineurin inhibitors
- Biological agents targeting specific pathways — anti-TNF, rituximab (anti-CD20), tocilizumab (anti-IL-6R), belimumab, and JAK inhibitors
- Remove antibody or complexes — plasmapheresis or intravenous immunoglobulin in Goodpasture syndrome, myasthenic crisis and Guillain-Barré syndrome
- Treat the trigger where one exists — penicillin prophylaxis in rheumatic fever, and withdrawal of the offending drug in drug-induced lupus
Applied Aspects
- Order autoantibody tests to answer a question, not to screen — ANA is positive in a proportion of healthy people, and an unexplained positive result generates anxiety and unnecessary investigation
- A negative ANA makes SLE very unlikely, whereas a positive one requires clinical correlation and more specific tests
- Screen for tuberculosis and hepatitis B before immunosuppression, particularly before anti-TNF agents; in India, reactivation is a real and potentially fatal risk
- Autoimmune disease clusters in individuals and families; a patient with one organ-specific disease should be assessed for others, especially thyroid and coeliac disease and pernicious anaemia
- Rheumatic heart disease remains common in India, and identifying and treating streptococcal sore throat, with lifelong benzathine penicillin prophylaxis after an attack, prevents far more disease than any treatment of established valve damage
- Long-term immunosuppression carries cumulative harm, so the aim is the lowest effective burden with steroid-sparing agents introduced early
Classification
Immunodeficiency is a failure of one or more components of the immune system, resulting in increased susceptibility to infection. It is primary (congenital) or secondary (acquired), the latter being far commoner.
| Component affected | Characteristic infections | Examples |
|---|---|---|
| B cell / antibody (about 50% of primary) | Recurrent pyogenic infection with capsulated organisms — pneumococcus, Haemophilus; sinopulmonary infection, giardiasis. Onset after 6 months, when maternal IgG has waned | BRUTON X-linked agammaglobulinaemia (no B cells, no immunoglobulins, absent tonsils); common variable immunodeficiency; selective IgA deficiency (the commonest, often asymptomatic) |
| T cell / cell-mediated | Viral, fungal, mycobacterial and protozoal infection; chronic candidiasis; disseminated BCG after vaccination | DiGEORGE syndrome (thymic aplasia with hypocalcaemia and cardiac anomalies, from 22q11 deletion); chronic mucocutaneous candidiasis |
| Combined | Severe infection of every kind from the first months of life | Severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID) — fatal without stem cell transplant; Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome (eczema, thrombocytopenia, infection); ataxia-telangiectasia |
| Phagocyte | Recurrent abscesses, and infection with catalase-positive organisms (Staphylococcus, Serratia, Aspergillus, Burkholderia) | Chronic granulomatous disease (failure of the NADPH oxidase respiratory burst; diagnosed by the nitroblue tetrazolium or dihydrorhodamine test); Chediak-Higashi syndrome; leucocyte adhesion deficiency (delayed cord separation) |
| Complement | C3 deficiency — pyogenic infection; terminal components (C5–9) — recurrent neisserial infection | C1 inhibitor deficiency causes hereditary angio-oedema rather than infection |
CLINICAL PEARL
The pattern of infection tells you which arm has failed, and this is the most useful clinical reasoning in the whole subject. Recurrent pyogenic infection with capsulated organisms beginning after six months points to antibody; viral, fungal and mycobacterial infection from birth points to T cells; recurrent abscesses point to phagocytes; and recurrent neisserial infection points to terminal complement. The history narrows the investigation before any test is ordered.
Secondary Immunodeficiency
- Far commoner than primary immunodeficiency, and the important causes in Indian practice are largely preventable or treatable
- Infection — HIV above all; also measles, tuberculosis, malaria and chronic viral hepatitis
- Malnutrition — the commonest cause of secondary immunodeficiency worldwide; protein-energy malnutrition impairs cell-mediated immunity particularly, and deficiencies of zinc, iron, vitamin A and vitamin D all contribute
- Iatrogenic — corticosteroids, cytotoxic chemotherapy, immunosuppressants, biologicals, radiotherapy, splenectomy
- Malignancy — lymphoma, leukaemia, myeloma (where antibody production fails despite a high total protein)
- Other — diabetes mellitus, chronic kidney disease, cirrhosis, burns, protein-losing states (nephrotic syndrome, protein-losing enteropathy), extremes of age, and asplenia
Investigation
- Full blood count with differential — lymphopenia, neutropenia, thrombocytopenia; and a blood film
- Serum immunoglobulins and IgG subclasses; specific antibody responses to vaccines (tetanus, pneumococcus) test function rather than quantity
- Lymphocyte subsets by flow cytometry — CD3, CD4, CD8, CD19, CD56
- Complement — CH50 (screens the classical pathway), AH50, and individual components
- Phagocyte function — nitroblue tetrazolium or dihydrorhodamine test for chronic granulomatous disease
- HIV testing in every case; and genetic testing where a primary immunodeficiency is suspected
- Warning signs prompting investigation — recurrent or unusually severe infection, infection with an unusual organism, failure to thrive, need for intravenous antibiotics to clear infections, deep abscesses, persistent thrush after one year, and a family history
Management and Applied Aspects
- Treat and prevent infection — prompt and adequate antibiotics, and prophylaxis (co-trimoxazole for Pneumocystis, antifungals) where indicated
- Immunoglobulin replacement for antibody deficiencies, given regularly and lifelong; it transforms the outlook in Bruton disease and common variable immunodeficiency
- Haematopoietic stem cell transplantation is curative in SCID and some other severe defects; gene therapy has succeeded in selected conditions
- Avoid live vaccines in significant T-cell or combined deficiency — BCG and oral polio vaccine have caused disseminated disease in infants with undiagnosed SCID, which is a real hazard in a programme giving BCG at birth
- Give irradiated, leucodepleted and CMV-negative blood products to severely immunodeficient patients, to prevent transfusion-associated graft-versus-host disease
- Address the treatable secondary causes — nutrition, diabetic control, HIV treatment; in India, correcting undernutrition and treating HIV do more for immune competence than any specific immunological intervention
Morphology and Classification
- Gram-positive cocci arranged in irregular clusters resembling a bunch of grapes, because division occurs in several planes; non-motile, non-sporing, facultative anaerobes
- Catalase positive — the single test that separates staphylococci from streptococci, which are catalase negative
- Grow readily on ordinary media; produce a golden-yellow pigment on nutrient agar and beta-haemolysis on blood agar; tolerate high salt, which is exploited in mannitol salt agar
| Species | Coagulase | Distinguishing features and clinical role |
|---|---|---|
| S. Aureus | Positive | Golden pigment; ferments mannitol; DNase and phosphatase positive; the major pathogen of the genus. Nasal carriage in the anterior nares in about 30% of healthy people, which is the reservoir for both endogenous infection and cross-infection |
| S. Epidermidis | Negative | White colonies; a skin commensal, and therefore the commonest contaminant of blood cultures. Its ability to form a biofilm makes it the leading cause of prosthetic and intravascular line infection, in which the device usually has to be removed |
| S. Saprophyticus | Negative | Novobiocin resistant (S. Epidermidis is sensitive); causes urinary tract infection in sexually active young women |
| S. Lugdunensis | Negative | Behaves aggressively like S. Aureus, causing destructive endocarditis |
Virulence Factors
| Factor | Action |
|---|---|
| Cell wall — protein A | Binds the Fc portion of IgG the wrong way round, so the antibody cannot engage phagocyte Fc receptors — antiphagocytic and antiopsonic. Exploited in the laboratory for co-agglutination tests |
| Capsule and slime (biofilm) | Antiphagocytic; the biofilm protects organisms on catheters, valves and prostheses from both antibiotics and immunity |
| Coagulase | Converts fibrinogen to fibrin, walling off the organism in a fibrin barrier — which is why staphylococcal infection tends to localise as an abscess, whereas streptococcal infection spreads |
| Catalase | Destroys hydrogen peroxide, allowing survival inside the phagocyte |
| Leucocidin (PANTON-valentine) | Kills leucocytes; associated with severe necrotising skin infection and necrotising pneumonia, particularly in community-acquired MRSA |
| Haemolysins (alpha, beta, gamma, delta) | Alpha toxin is a pore-forming cytolysin damaging many cell types |
| Spreading enzymes | Hyaluronidase, staphylokinase (fibrinolysin), lipase, DNase, proteases |
Toxin-mediated Disease
| Toxin | Disease | Key features |
|---|---|---|
| Enterotoxins (A–E) | Staphylococcal food poisoning | Heat-stable (survives boiling for 30 minutes) and preformed in the food, so the incubation period is very short — 2 to 6 hours — with violent vomiting predominating over diarrhoea, and recovery within a day. It is an intoxication, not an infection, so antibiotics are useless |
| TSST-1 | Toxic shock syndrome | A superantigen that binds MHC class II and the T-cell receptor outside the groove, activating up to 20% of T cells and producing a cytokine storm. Fever, hypotension, a diffuse macular rash with later desquamation of palms and soles, and multi-organ involvement. Classically associated with high-absorbency tampons, and also with nasal packing and surgical wounds |
| Exfoliative (epidermolytic) toxin | Staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome (Ritter disease) | Splits the epidermis at the granular layer; widespread erythema and blistering with a positive Nikolsky sign, mainly in neonates and young children. The organism is at a distant focus, not in the skin lesions |
CLINICAL PEARL
Coagulase explains the whole clinical personality of Staphylococcus aureus. By converting fibrinogen to fibrin it builds a wall around itself, so staphylococcal infection localises into an abscess that antibiotics penetrate poorly. Streptococci instead produce streptokinase, which dissolves fibrin and lets them spread as cellulitis. One enzyme, and the difference between a boil and erysipelas — and between an infection that needs drainage and one that does not.
Diseases and Laboratory Diagnosis
- Skin and soft tissue — folliculitis, furuncle (boil), carbuncle, impetigo, cellulitis, wound and burn infection, breast abscess, styes
- Deep and systemic — osteomyelitis (the commonest cause), septic arthritis, pneumonia (often following influenza, and necrotising with Panton-Valentine leucocidin), empyema, acute endocarditis (right-sided tricuspid disease in intravenous drug users), bacteraemia and metastatic abscesses, and device-related infection
- Toxin-mediated — food poisoning, toxic shock syndrome, scalded skin syndrome
- Laboratory diagnosis — Gram stain of pus showing gram-positive cocci in clusters with pus cells; culture on blood agar and mannitol salt agar; catalase to separate from streptococci, then coagulase (slide test detects bound clumping factor and is a screening test; the tube test detects free coagulase and is confirmatory); DNase and mannitol fermentation; and antibiotic susceptibility including a cefoxitin disc for MRSA
- In food poisoning the organism or toxin is sought in the food rather than the patient, since the illness is an intoxication
Differentiation Within the Genus
| Test | S. Aureus | S. Epidermidis | S. Saprophyticus |
|---|---|---|---|
| Coagulase | Positive | Negative | Negative |
| Pigment | Golden | White | White |
| Mannitol fermentation | Positive | Negative | Variable |
| DNase and phosphatase | Positive | Negative | Negative |
| Novobiocin | Sensitive | Sensitive | Resistant — the defining test |
| Haemolysis | Beta | None | None |
| Chief clinical role | Abscess, osteomyelitis, endocarditis, toxin disease | Prosthetic and line infection; commonest blood culture contaminant | Urinary infection in young women |
- A coagulase-negative staphylococcus in one blood culture bottle is usually contamination; growth in several bottles from separate sites, or in a patient with a prosthesis or line, is far more likely to be real
Treatment and Applied Aspects
- Drainage is the treatment for an abscess; antibiotics penetrate pus poorly and source control outranks drug choice
- Antibiotic choice — cloxacillin or flucloxacillin for methicillin-sensitive strains (plain penicillin is useless, since over 90% produce penicillinase); vancomycin, linezolid, daptomycin, clindamycin or co-trimoxazole for MRSA
- Nasal carriage is the reservoir; decolonisation with mupirocin to the anterior nares and chlorhexidine washes reduces surgical site infection in carriers
- Staphylococcal bacteraemia is never trivial — it demands a search for endocarditis and metastatic foci, removal of any line, repeat blood cultures, and a prolonged course; treating it as a simple bacteraemia leads to relapse
- Food poisoning is prevented by food handling — excluding staff with skin lesions, refrigeration, and avoiding prolonged holding of cooked food at room temperature, which is a common practice at Indian social gatherings
- Hand hygiene is what limits spread in hospital; staphylococci survive well on skin, clothing and surfaces, and the hands of staff are the principal vehicle
- Recurrent boils suggest carriage or an underlying problem — check for diabetes, and consider decolonisation of the patient and close contacts, since the reservoir is usually the patient's own nose
- Suspect toxic shock in an unexplained febrile illness with rash and hypotension, and look for a retained tampon, nasal packing or an occult wound; the focus may be trivial while the illness is life-threatening
- Separate scalded skin syndrome from toxic epidermal necrolysis; the split is at the granular layer in the first and at the dermo-epidermal junction in the second, which biopsy resolves and which changes both treatment and prognosis
- Never dismiss S. Aureus in urine; unlike coliforms it rarely ascends, so its presence often indicates haematogenous seeding from an unsuspected bacteraemia
- Osteomyelitis and septic arthritis need prolonged treatment and often surgical washout; short courses guided by clinical improvement alone lead to chronic infection and sequestrum formation
- Echocardiography is indicated in staphylococcal bacteraemia, and a transoesophageal study where the transthoracic view is inadequate or suspicion remains high
- Food poisoning needs no antibiotic — the toxin is already formed and the organism may not even be present; treatment is rehydration and the investigation is of the food
- Exclude food handlers with boils or septic lesions; a staphylococcal skin lesion on the hands of someone preparing food is the classical route to an outbreak
- Coagulase-negative staphylococci are not harmless in a patient with a prosthetic valve, joint or shunt, where they are the leading pathogen and the device usually has to be removed
Classification of Streptococci
- Gram-positive cocci in chains or pairs, non-motile, non-sporing, catalase negative
| Basis | Groups |
|---|---|
| By haemolysis on blood agar | Alpha — partial, greenish (S. Pneumoniae, viridans group); beta — complete, clear (S. Pyogenes, S. Agalactiae); gamma — none (enterococci, S. Bovis) |
| By lancefield grouping | Based on the cell wall C carbohydrate antigen; groups A to H and K to V. Group A = S. Pyogenes; group B = S. Agalactiae (neonatal sepsis and meningitis); group D = enterococci and S. Bovis |
| By biochemical reactions | S. Pyogenes is bacitracin sensitive and PYR positive; S. Agalactiae is bacitracin resistant and camp test positive; pneumococcus is optochin sensitive and bile soluble |
| Non-groupable | Viridans streptococci (S. Mitis, S. Sanguinis, S. Mutans) — oral commensals causing subacute endocarditis and dental caries |
Virulence Factors of Streptococcus Pyogenes
| Factor | Action |
|---|---|
| M protein — the major virulence factor | Antiphagocytic, and the basis of type-specific immunity. Over 100 M types exist, so infection with one gives no protection against the others — which is why repeated attacks occur and why vaccine development is difficult. Certain types are rheumatogenic and others nephritogenic |
| Capsule (hyaluronic acid) | Antiphagocytic, and non-antigenic because it is identical to host hyaluronic acid — molecular disguise |
| Streptolysin O | Oxygen-labile and strongly antigenic — the basis of the antistreptolysin O (ASO) titre. Cardiotoxic |
| Streptolysin S | Oxygen-stable and non-antigenic; responsible for the beta-haemolysis seen on the plate |
| Pyrogenic (erythrogenic) exotoxins | Superantigens, phage-encoded; cause the rash of scarlet fever and streptococcal toxic shock syndrome |
| Spreading enzymes | Streptokinase (fibrinolysin — dissolves the fibrin barrier, so infection spreads rather than localising), hyaluronidase, DNase B, C5a peptidase |
| Lipoteichoic acid and F protein | Adhesion to epithelium |
Diseases
- Suppurative (invasive) — pharyngitis and tonsillitis (the commonest); impetigo and pyoderma; erysipelas (a sharply demarcated superficial cellulitis) and cellulitis; necrotising fasciitis; puerperal sepsis; lymphangitis; otitis media and sinusitis; and bacteraemia
- Toxin-mediated — scarlet fever (a punctate erythematous rash sparing the perioral area, with a strawberry tongue and later desquamation) and streptococcal toxic shock syndrome
- Non-suppurative sequelae — the immunologically mediated complications, which are the reason streptococcal sore throat is treated at all
| Feature | Acute rheumatic fever | Acute post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis |
|---|---|---|
| Preceding infection | Throat only — never skin | Throat or skin (pyoderma) |
| Latent period | 2 to 3 weeks | 1 to 2 weeks after throat; 3 to 6 weeks after skin |
| M types | Rheumatogenic — 1, 3, 5, 6, 18 | Nephritogenic — 12 (throat), 49 (skin) |
| Mechanism | Molecular mimicry — antibody to M protein cross-reacts with cardiac myosin and sarcolemma (type II) | Immune complex deposition in the glomerulus (type III) |
| Features | Carditis, migratory polyarthritis, chorea, erythema marginatum, subcutaneous nodules (Jones criteria) | Haematuria, oedema, hypertension, low C3 |
| Recurrence | Yes — each attack worsens valve damage, hence lifelong prophylaxis | Rare; prophylaxis is not indicated |
| Prognosis | Chronic rheumatic heart disease | Usually complete recovery in children |
CLINICAL PEARL
Treating a streptococcal sore throat does not shorten it much; it prevents rheumatic fever. The pharyngitis settles in a few days with or without penicillin. What antibiotic treatment achieves is eradication of the organism before the immune response that cross-reacts with heart valves develops — and it works if given within about nine days. In India, where rheumatic heart disease remains a major cause of cardiac death in the young, that is the whole justification for treating a self-limiting illness.
Laboratory Diagnosis
- Throat swab — Gram stain is of little value (the throat carries many organisms); culture on blood agar shows small beta-haemolytic colonies
- Identification — catalase negative; bacitracin sensitivity and PYR positive; Lancefield grouping by latex agglutination
- Rapid antigen detection tests are specific but less sensitive, so a negative result in a child is confirmed by culture
- Serology for the non-suppurative sequelae, where the organism has usually gone by the time the illness appears — ASO titre rises after throat infection, but poorly after skin infection because skin lipids inhibit streptolysin O; anti-DNase B is therefore the better test after pyoderma
- Streptozyme detects several antibodies together
Other Medically Important Streptococci
| Organism | Group | Clinical importance |
|---|---|---|
| S. Agalactiae | B | Colonises the vagina in up to 30% of women; the leading cause of neonatal sepsis and meningitis. Bacitracin resistant, camp test positive, hippurate hydrolysis positive. Prevented by antenatal screening and intrapartum penicillin |
| Viridans group (S. Mitis, sanguinis, mutans) | Non-groupable | Alpha-haemolytic oral commensals; the commonest cause of subacute bacterial endocarditis on damaged valves after dental procedures; S. Mutans causes dental caries. Optochin resistant and bile insoluble, which distinguishes them from pneumococcus |
| S. Bovis (S. Gallolyticus) | D | Endocarditis and bacteraemia with a strong association with colonic carcinoma — its isolation mandates colonoscopy |
| S. Anginosus (milleri) group | Variable | A marked tendency to form abscesses — brain, liver and lung |
| Peptostreptococcus | — | Anaerobic; part of polymicrobial abscesses and intra-abdominal sepsis |
Treatment and Applied Aspects
- Penicillin remains the drug of choice — remarkably, S. Pyogenes has never developed penicillin resistance after eighty years of use, which is almost unique among bacteria. Erythromycin or a macrolide in penicillin allergy
- Secondary prophylaxis after rheumatic fever — benzathine penicillin every 3 to 4 weeks, continued for years or for life depending on carditis; this prevents recurrent attacks and progressive valve damage, and is the single most important streptococcal intervention in India
- Add clindamycin in necrotising fasciitis and toxic shock — it inhibits toxin production and is unaffected by the high organism density that renders penicillin less effective
- Necrotising fasciitis is a surgical emergency; pain out of proportion to the visible signs is the early clue, and survival depends on early and radical debridement rather than on antibiotics
- Group B streptococcus screening in pregnancy and intrapartum penicillin prevent neonatal sepsis and meningitis
- Viridans streptococci cause subacute endocarditis after dental procedures; prophylaxis is now restricted to the highest-risk cardiac lesions, and good dental hygiene matters more than antibiotic cover
- Use a clinical score to decide who needs a throat swab; most sore throats are viral, and treating all of them wastes antibiotics while treating none permits rheumatic fever
- Ask specifically about a sore throat weeks earlier in a child with arthritis, chorea or heart failure; the infection is often forgotten by the time the sequel appears
- Isolation of S. Bovis from blood mandates colonoscopy, because of its strong association with colonic carcinoma — a microbiological result that directly triggers a surgical investigation
- Erysipelas and cellulitis differ in their margins; erysipelas is sharply demarcated and raised, involving the upper dermis and lymphatics, whereas cellulitis has an indistinct edge
- Penicillin sensitivity in S. Pyogenes has never been lost, so routine sensitivity testing is unnecessary for penicillin, though macrolide resistance does occur and matters in allergic patients
- Rheumatic fever is diagnosed by the JONES criteria with evidence of preceding streptococcal infection; the microbiology supports a clinical diagnosis rather than making one
- Anti-DNase B is the better serological test after skin infection, since skin lipids inhibit streptolysin O and the ASO titre may not rise at all
Morphology and Cultural Characteristics
- Gram-positive, non-motile, non-sporing, non-capsulated bacilli that are club-shaped (swollen at one end) and markedly pleomorphic
- Arranged at angles in "chinese letter" or cuneiform patterns, because the cells snap after division rather than separating cleanly
- Metachromatic granules (volutin, Babes-Ernst granules) of polymetaphosphate are demonstrated by ALBERT stain, appearing bluish-black against a green bacillus, and by Neisser and Ponder stains
| Medium | Purpose |
|---|---|
| Loeffler serum slope | An enriched medium giving very rapid growth in 6 to 8 hours, well before other organisms — and it best demonstrates the granules and morphology |
| Potassium tellurite blood agar | Selective — tellurite inhibits other throat flora; the organism reduces tellurite and forms characteristic black or grey colonies |
| Blood agar | To exclude streptococcal infection |
| Biotypes on tellurite | Gravis (large grey, "daisy head", most often epidemic and toxigenic), intermedius (small, most virulent), mitis (black, glossy, least virulent) |
Diphtheria Toxin
The tox gene is carried by a bacteriophage, not by the bacterium — lysogenic conversion by beta-phage → Toxin production requires a low iron concentration in the medium and in tissue → The toxin has two fragments — B binds the cell surface receptor and A is the active enzyme → Fragment A catalyses ADP-ribosylation of elongation factor 2 (EF-2) → protein synthesis stops in the affected cell → A single molecule can inactivate all the EF-2 in a cell, so the toxin is extraordinarily potent → Local necrosis produces the pseudomembrane; absorbed toxin damages heart, nerves and kidney
CLINICAL PEARL
Corynebacterium diphtheriae is harmless unless a virus has infected it first. The gene for the toxin is carried by the beta-phage, so a non-lysogenised strain colonises the throat without causing disease. This is why toxigenicity must be tested, not assumed — and it is the reason a non-toxigenic isolate needs no antitoxin. Virulence here is borrowed rather than intrinsic.
Clinical Features
- Faucial diphtheria is commonest — a tough, adherent, greyish-white pseudomembrane over the tonsils and pharynx, which bleeds when removed (unlike a candidal or streptococcal exudate). It consists of fibrin, necrotic epithelium, leucocytes and organisms
- "bull neck" from marked cervical lymphadenopathy and oedema, with severe toxaemia disproportionate to the modest fever
- Laryngeal diphtheria — hoarseness, stridor and respiratory obstruction from membrane extension, which may require tracheostomy; a particular danger in young children
- Other sites — nasal (often mild and a source of carriage), cutaneous (common in tropical countries and an important reservoir), conjunctival, genital
- Complications from absorbed toxin — myocarditis in the second week (arrhythmia, heart block, cardiac failure — the commonest cause of death); palatal palsy with nasal regurgitation and a nasal voice around the third week; and later polyneuritis including ocular and diaphragmatic paralysis; acute tubular necrosis
Laboratory Diagnosis and Tests for Toxigenicity
- Swabs from the edge of and beneath the membrane, and from the nose
- Direct smear — Albert stain for granules and Gram stain; suggestive but not confirmatory, since diphtheroids are normal throat flora
- Culture — Loeffler slope (rapid), tellurite (selective) and blood agar, examined at 6 to 8 hours and again at 24 to 48 hours
- ELEK test — an in-vitro immunoprecipitation test: a filter paper strip soaked in antitoxin is laid on the agar and the strain streaked at right angles; arrowhead lines of precipitation where toxin meets antitoxin indicate toxigenicity
- PCR for the tox gene — rapid, though it detects the gene rather than its expression
- In-vivo tests (guinea-pig inoculation, intradermal test) are of historical interest only
- SCHICK test — a historical intradermal test of susceptibility, measuring circulating antitoxin; now replaced by serology and no longer performed
Other Corynebacteria and Differential Diagnosis
| Consideration | Detail |
|---|---|
| Diphtheroids | Non-pathogenic corynebacteria (C. Xerosis, C. Hofmannii) are normal flora of skin, throat and conjunctiva — so isolating a corynebacterium from a throat swab means nothing until toxigenicity is established |
| C. Ulcerans | May also carry the tox gene and cause a diphtheria-like illness; acquired from cattle and raw milk |
| C. Jeikeium | Multidrug-resistant; causes line and prosthetic infection in the immunocompromised |
| C. Minutissimum | Erythrasma — coral-red fluorescence under Wood light |
| Membranous pharyngitis — differential | Streptococcal tonsillitis (exudate wipes off easily, no bleeding); infectious mononucleosis (with lymphadenopathy and atypical lymphocytes); Vincent angina (fusospirochaetal, foul odour, ulcerative); candidiasis; agranulocytosis |
Treatment, Prevention and Applied Aspects
- Antitoxin is given immediately on clinical suspicion, without waiting for laboratory confirmation, because it neutralises only circulating toxin — once the toxin has bound to tissue the damage cannot be reversed. Delay of even a day increases mortality substantially. A test dose is given, since it is horse serum
- Antibiotics (penicillin or erythromycin) eliminate the organism and stop further toxin production and transmission, but they do not substitute for antitoxin
- Supportive care — strict bed rest for weeks because of myocarditis, cardiac monitoring, airway management with tracheostomy if needed, and isolation until two negative cultures
- Prevention by toxoid — formalin-treated toxin that is immunogenic but non-toxic, given as DPT or pentavalent vaccine in India's Universal Immunisation Programme, with boosters. Immunity wanes, so adult boosters matter — the resurgence of diphtheria in the former Soviet Union followed a fall in adult immunity
- Contacts — culture, antibiotic prophylaxis, and a booster dose
- Diphtheria persists in parts of India in older children and adults with waning immunity and in under-vaccinated pockets, so it must remain in the differential of membranous pharyngitis; the diagnosis is clinical and treatment cannot wait
- Do not attempt to remove the membrane; it bleeds and increases toxin absorption, and may obstruct the airway
- Nurse the patient with strict bed rest for 2 to 3 weeks and monitor the electrocardiogram; myocarditis appears in the second week, when the throat is improving and the patient feels well enough to move about
- Cutaneous diphtheria is an important and neglected reservoir in tropical countries, maintaining transmission silently in communities where faucial disease is rare
- Immunisation does not prevent carriage, only disease — so a vaccinated population can still transmit, which is why outbreak control requires contact tracing and prophylaxis rather than vaccination alone
- Send swabs before starting antibiotics, but never delay antitoxin for the result; the laboratory confirms the diagnosis, it does not make it
- Antitoxin is horse serum, so a test dose is given and adrenaline kept ready; serum sickness may follow a week later, and neither risk justifies withholding it in suspected diphtheria
- Notify the case and investigate the contacts; diphtheria is a notifiable disease and a single case indicates a gap in immunisation coverage in that community
- Check and complete immunisation in every child presenting with any illness; opportunistic vaccination catches those missed by the routine schedule, and diphtheria is a disease of the unimmunised
- Isolate the patient until two consecutive negative cultures taken at least 24 hours apart and after antibiotics have finished
- Give a booster to close contacts as well as prophylaxis, since their immunity is likely to have waned in the same way as the index case's
- Toxoid is one of the oldest and most effective vaccines in use, and the near-disappearance of diphtheria from well-vaccinated populations is among the clearest demonstrations of what immunisation achieves
- Low iron promotes toxin production, which is a curious detail with a practical corollary: the organism is most dangerous in exactly the iron-poor conditions found at a mucosal surface
- Diphtheria antitoxin supply is limited worldwide, and delays in obtaining it contribute to mortality; hospitals in endemic areas should know where their nearest supply is held before they need it
- The Elek test remains the standard toxigenicity test in many laboratories, and its result determines whether contacts need prophylaxis and whether the case is notifiable as diphtheria
- Consider diphtheria in an unimmunised adult with a sore throat and disproportionate toxaemia, particularly with cervical swelling; the low fever is deceptive and delays the diagnosis
- Laryngeal obstruction may develop rapidly in a small child, so the airway must be assessed repeatedly and tracheostomy facilities kept available
Clostridium Tetani — Morphology and Toxin
- Gram-positive, motile, obligate anaerobic bacillus with a terminal, spherical, bulging spore giving the classical drumstick appearance
- Swarms over the surface of blood agar; grows in Robertson cooked meat medium; spores are widespread in soil, dust and animal and human faeces, and survive for years
- Non-invasive — it remains at the site of inoculation, and the entire illness is caused by the toxin
Spores enter a wound and germinate where the oxidation-reduction potential is low — devitalised tissue, foreign body, deep puncture, or co-infection with aerobes → The vegetative organism releases tetanospasmin → The toxin travels by retrograde axonal transport up peripheral motor nerves, and by blood to distant nerve endings → It reaches the spinal cord and brainstem → It cleaves synaptobrevin, blocking release of the inhibitory transmitters glycine and GABA from Renshaw cells → Loss of inhibition — not stimulation → Unopposed motor neuron activity gives sustained rigidity and spasms, with sympathetic overactivity
CLINICAL PEARL
Tetanus is a disease of lost inhibition, which is why the patient stays fully conscious. The toxin does not excite anything; it removes the brakes on motor neurons. The muscles therefore contract maximally and continuously, the strongest groups winning — hence trismus, risus sardonicus and opisthotonus. And because the sensorium is untouched, the patient experiences every spasm, awake and in agony, which is why sedation is a central part of treatment rather than an adjunct.
Clinical Features and Management of Tetanus
- Incubation 4 to 21 days; the shorter the incubation and the shorter the period of onset (the interval between the first symptom and the first spasm), the worse the prognosis
- Features — trismus (lockjaw), often the first sign; risus sardonicus from facial muscle spasm; neck stiffness; dysphagia; opisthotonus; board-like abdominal rigidity; and generalised reflex spasms triggered by light, sound or touch. The patient remains fully conscious throughout
- Autonomic instability — labile blood pressure, tachycardia, arrhythmia and sweating, which is now a leading cause of death in ventilated patients
- Death from respiratory failure, laryngeal spasm, aspiration or autonomic dysfunction
- Forms — generalised, local, cephalic (after head wounds, with cranial nerve palsies), and neonatal tetanus from unclean cord practices
- Management — nurse in a quiet, darkened room; human tetanus immunoglobulin to neutralise unbound toxin; metronidazole (preferred to penicillin, which is a GABA antagonist); surgical debridement of the wound; diazepam or magnesium for spasms; neuromuscular blockade and mechanical ventilation in severe cases; and active immunisation during convalescence, since the disease itself does not confer immunity — the lethal dose of toxin is smaller than the immunising dose
Gas Gangrene — Clostridium Perfringens
- Gram-positive, non-motile, capsulated bacillus with a subterminal spore that is rarely seen in clinical material; an anaerobe found in soil and in the large intestine
- Alpha toxin is a lecithinase (phospholipase C) that splits lecithin in cell membranes, causing haemolysis, tissue necrosis and myocardial toxicity — the principal virulence factor
- NAGLER reaction — on egg yolk agar, lecithinase produces a zone of opalescence which is inhibited on the half of the plate spread with antitoxin; a rapid and specific identification test
- Stormy clot (stormy fermentation) reaction in litmus milk — acid clot torn apart by vigorous gas production
- Grows rapidly with a "target" or double zone of haemolysis on blood agar
- Clinical features — a rapidly progressive myonecrosis with severe pain, tense oedema, crepitus from gas in tissues, a thin foul brownish discharge, discoloured skin and profound toxaemia
- Also causes food poisoning — type A enterotoxin, an incubation of 8 to 24 hours, watery diarrhoea and cramps without much vomiting, from meat dishes cooked and held warm; and necrotising enteritis (pigbel) from type C
- Treatment — urgent and radical surgical debridement is the definitive treatment, sometimes requiring amputation; penicillin with clindamycin (clindamycin suppresses toxin production); and hyperbaric oxygen where available
Prevention of Tetanus and Gas Gangrene
| Measure | Detail |
|---|---|
| Wound toilet | The single most effective measure — thorough cleaning, removal of foreign bodies and excision of devitalised tissue, which removes the anaerobic environment the spores require |
| Active immunisation | Tetanus toxoid in DPT or pentavalent vaccine, with boosters; and maternal immunisation, which protects the newborn through placental IgG |
| Passive immunisation | Human tetanus immunoglobulin for a tetanus-prone wound in an inadequately immunised person, given at a different site from the toxoid |
| Antibiotic prophylaxis | Penicillin or metronidazole for contaminated wounds |
| Clean delivery practices | The "five cleans" — clean hands, surface, blade, cord tie and cord stump — which with maternal immunisation has brought India close to eliminating neonatal tetanus |
Comparison of the Pathogenic Clostridia
| Organism | Spore | Toxin and action | Disease |
|---|---|---|---|
| C. Tetani | Terminal, spherical, bulging — "drumstick" | Tetanospasmin — blocks release of inhibitory glycine and GABA | Tetanus — spastic paralysis |
| C. Perfringens | Subterminal, rarely seen; non-motile and capsulated | Alpha toxin — lecithinase, splitting membrane lecithin | Gas gangrene; food poisoning; necrotising enteritis |
| C. Botulinum | Oval, subterminal, bulging | Botulinum toxin — blocks release of excitatory acetylcholine | Botulism — flaccid paralysis |
| C. Difficile | Oval, subterminal | Toxin A (enterotoxin) and toxin B (cytotoxin) | Antibiotic-associated diarrhoea and pseudomembranous colitis |
- All are gram-positive, spore-forming, obligate anaerobes whose spores persist in soil and dust for years, and all cause disease chiefly through exotoxins rather than by invasion
Applied Aspects
- Tetanus and gas gangrene are clinical diagnoses; treatment must never await laboratory confirmation, which is often negative and always late
- Assess every wound for tetanus risk and immunisation status, and give toxoid, immunoglobulin or both accordingly; this is among the commonest omissions in a busy casualty department
- Do not rely on antibiotics in gas gangrene — they cannot reach ischaemic necrotic muscle, and delay in taking the patient to theatre costs limbs and lives
- Immunise during convalescence from tetanus, since the disease confers no immunity — a point frequently and dangerously assumed the other way
- Neonatal tetanus was a major cause of newborn death in India and has fallen dramatically with maternal immunisation and clean cord care; the residual cases follow home deliveries with traditional cord applications
- Avoid applying dung, ash or oil to the umbilical stump or to wounds, a practice that persists in some communities and directly inoculates spores
- Penicillin is a GABA antagonist and may aggravate spasms, which is why metronidazole is now preferred in tetanus — a small pharmacological point with direct bedside consequence
- Crepitus is a late sign in gas gangrene; severe pain with tense oedema and toxaemia out of proportion to the wound should prompt surgical exploration before gas is palpable
- C. Perfringens food poisoning is a disease of bulk catering — meat cooked in large quantities, cooled slowly and held warm, which describes many institutional and wedding kitchens
- Anaerobic culture is often negative in clostridial disease, and a negative report must never delay surgery or antitoxin; the organisms are fastidious and the diagnosis is clinical
- The period of onset predicts severity in tetanus — the shorter the interval between the first symptom and the first spasm, the worse the outlook, and this guides early transfer to intensive care
- Autonomic instability now kills more ventilated tetanus patients than the spasms do, and magnesium sulphate together with sedation has improved outcomes
- Gas in the tissues is not always gas gangrene; it also occurs with other organisms and after trauma or surgery, so the toxaemia and the appearance of the muscle at operation decide the diagnosis
- Clindamycin is added to penicillin in clostridial myonecrosis because it suppresses toxin synthesis and works even at high organism density, when penicillin's effect falls away
- Ask about the injury and its management; a wound closed primarily over contaminated or devitalised tissue creates exactly the anaerobic conditions these organisms require
- Booster immunity to tetanus wanes over a decade, so adults presenting with wounds frequently need a dose even if they were fully immunised as children
- Neonatal tetanus elimination in India rests on two measures — maternal toxoid and clean cord care — neither of which requires a hospital, which is why it succeeded
- Give tetanus immunoglobulin at a different site from the toxoid and with a separate syringe, or the antibody neutralises the vaccine antigen
- Cephalic tetanus follows head and facial wounds and presents with cranial nerve palsies rather than the classical picture, so it is easily missed until trismus appears
Bacillus Anthracis — Morphology
- Large, gram-positive, aerobic, spore-bearing bacillus with square-cut (truncated) ends, arranged in long chains giving a "bamboo stick" appearance
- Non-motile — which distinguishes it from almost all other Bacillus species, which are motile
- The only bacterium with a polypeptide capsule, made of poly-D-glutamic acid; being D-amino acid it resists proteolysis and is poorly immunogenic. The capsule is formed IN tissue (and in culture with bicarbonate and carbon dioxide), not on ordinary media
- Spores are central, oval and non-bulging, formed only in the presence of oxygen — so they are not formed in the living host, but appear once the carcass is opened. This is why anthrax carcasses must not be opened or skinned, and are burned or buried deeply
| Test or appearance | Finding |
|---|---|
| McFADYEAN reaction | Polychrome methylene blue stain of blood or tissue shows blue bacilli surrounded by a pink (amorphous) capsule — a rapid presumptive diagnosis |
| Colony morphology | "MEDUSA head" or "curled hair lock" colonies with wavy edges on nutrient agar; non-haemolytic on blood agar |
| Gelatin stab | "inverted FIR tree" appearance with slow liquefaction |
| String OF pearls test | On agar with low-dose penicillin the bacilli become large spherical forms in chains — a useful identification test |
| ASCOLI thermoprecipitin test | A ring precipitation test detecting anthrax antigen in decomposed animal material, where culture has failed |
| Bacteriophage | Susceptible to gamma phage — a confirmatory test |
Anthrax Toxin and Pathogenesis
- Three components, each harmless alone — protective antigen (PA), which binds the cell and forms the channel; oedema factor (EF), a calmodulin-dependent adenylate cyclase that raises cAMP and causes massive oedema; and lethal factor (LF), a protease that cleaves map kinase kinases, killing macrophages and releasing cytokines
- PA + EF = oedema toxin; PA + LF = lethal toxin. Protective antigen is essential to both, which is why it is the component used in the vaccine — antibody to it blocks delivery of the other two
- Both toxin and capsule are plasmid-encoded (pXO1 and pXO2); loss of either plasmid attenuates the organism, which is the basis of the Sterne vaccine strain
CLINICAL PEARL
Protective antigen is called protective because vaccinating against it works, not because it protects the bacterium. It is the delivery mechanism: neither oedema factor nor lethal factor can enter a cell without it. Antibody to protective antigen therefore neutralises both toxins at once, which is a far more efficient target than either enzyme — and a good general lesson in choosing a vaccine antigen.
Clinical Forms of Anthrax
| Form | Route | Features and mortality |
|---|---|---|
| Cutaneous (about 95%) | Inoculation through broken skin, in those handling animals, hides, wool or bone meal | A papule becomes a vesicle then a painless, black, necrotic eschar ("malignant pustule") with marked surrounding non-pitting oedema and lymphadenopathy. Painlessness is the characteristic feature. Mortality under 20% untreated, under 1% treated |
| Pulmonary ("woolsorter'S disease") | Inhalation of spores | A biphasic illness — a flu-like prodrome, then abrupt deterioration with severe dyspnoea, shock and haemorrhagic mediastinitis (widened mediastinum on radiograph, without typical pneumonia). Mortality very high even with treatment |
| Intestinal | Ingestion of contaminated meat | Severe gastroenteritis with bloody diarrhoea, ascites and shock; high mortality |
| Injectional | Contaminated heroin | Severe soft tissue infection in drug users |
| Meningeal | Haematogenous spread from any form | Haemorrhagic meningitis ("cardinal's cap"); almost invariably fatal |
- Treatment — ciprofloxacin or doxycycline (penicillin is effective against sensitive strains but resistance has been engineered), with combination therapy and antitoxin (raxibacumab) in systemic disease; the cutaneous lesion is not excised, since surgery may disseminate it
- Anthrax is a recognised bioterrorism agent, because spores are stable, easily disseminated and cause high mortality by inhalation; this is why inhalational anthrax in an unexplained setting is treated as a public health emergency
Other Aerobic Spore-bearers
| Organism | Disease and features |
|---|---|
| Bacillus cereus | Two distinct food poisoning syndromes: an emetic form from a heat-stable preformed toxin with a short incubation of 1 to 5 hours, classically after reheated fried rice; and a diarrhoeal form from a heat-labile enterotoxin with a longer incubation of 8 to 16 hours. Also causes post-traumatic endophthalmitis and line infection |
| Bacillus subtilis | A common laboratory and air contaminant; its spores are used as a biological indicator for hot air oven and ethylene oxide sterilisation |
| Geobacillus stearothermophilus | Highly heat-resistant spores used as the biological indicator for autoclave control |
| Anthracoid bacilli | Non-pathogenic Bacillus species resembling B. Anthracis but motile, haemolytic, non-capsulated and gamma-phage resistant — the differentiation that matters in the laboratory |
Laboratory Diagnosis and Prevention of Anthrax
- Specimens — vesicle fluid or material from the eschar edge, blood, sputum, cerebrospinal fluid, and tissue or animal material
- Handle at BSL-3 where inhalational anthrax is suspected, and warn the laboratory, since anthrax is a recognised cause of laboratory-acquired infection
- Direct examination — Gram stain showing large square-ended bacilli in chains, and the McFADYEAN capsule reaction
- Culture on blood and nutrient agar, with Medusa head colonies, non-motility, non-haemolysis, gamma-phage susceptibility and the string of pearls test
- Serology and PCR for toxin and capsule genes; the ASCOLI test where material is decomposed
- Prevention — animal vaccination (the Sterne live attenuated non-capsulated strain) is the key control measure; safe carcass disposal by burning or deep burial with lime; protective equipment for those handling hides and wool; and human vaccination with protective antigen for high-risk occupational groups and military personnel. Post-exposure prophylaxis with ciprofloxacin for 60 days, because inhaled spores may germinate late
Applied Aspects
- Do not open or skin a carcass suspected of anthrax; spores form only on exposure to oxygen, and opening the animal contaminates the soil for decades. Carcasses are burned or buried deeply with lime
- Anthrax is a notifiable and occupational disease in India, occurring in agricultural and animal-handling communities in several states; control depends on animal vaccination and safe carcass disposal rather than on human treatment
- Suspect anthrax in a painless black eschar with disproportionate oedema in someone with animal contact — the painlessness distinguishes it from staphylococcal and streptococcal lesions
- Reheated rice is the classic vehicle for Bacillus cereus emetic disease; the spores survive boiling, germinate as the rice cools slowly, and the toxin is not destroyed by reheating — so cooked rice must be cooled rapidly and refrigerated
- Bacillus species in a blood culture are usually contaminants, but should not be dismissed automatically in a neutropenic patient or one with an intravascular device
- Spore-formers define sterilisation standards — the biological indicators for every sterilising process are Bacillus spores, because they are the most resistant form of life to that process
- Distinguish B. Anthracis from the anthracoid bacilli carefully; the latter are common contaminants, and the practical differences are motility, haemolysis, capsule and gamma-phage susceptibility
- Cutaneous anthrax is not excised, since surgery risks dissemination; it is treated with antibiotics and the eschar allowed to separate
- Post-exposure prophylaxis after inhalational exposure runs for 60 days, because spores may lie dormant in the mediastinal nodes and germinate long after exposure — a far longer course than intuition suggests
- Occupational health matters more than clinical medicine here; vaccinating livestock, disposing of carcasses safely and protecting hide and wool workers prevents almost all human anthrax
- Warn the laboratory when anthrax is suspected; several documented laboratory-acquired infections have followed routine handling of an unlabelled specimen on an open bench
- Inhalational anthrax presents as a widened mediastinum without pneumonia, which is an unusual radiological combination and should raise the possibility immediately
- An unexplained case of inhalational anthrax is a public health emergency and must be notified at once, since the natural form is now vanishingly rare
- Cook rice in the quantity needed and refrigerate promptly; the Bacillus cereus emetic toxin is not destroyed by reheating, so the prevention lies entirely in rapid cooling rather than in the final heating
- Anthrax spores survive in soil for decades, so land where an infected animal died remains hazardous long after any living memory of the event
- Bacillus cereus also causes severe eye infection after penetrating trauma, progressing to loss of the eye within a day, so a contaminated ocular injury must be treated urgently rather than observed
Morphology and Identification
- Gram-positive, lanceolate (flame-shaped) diplococci with their broad ends apposed, typically surrounded by a clear capsule; may occur in short chains
- Alpha-haemolytic on blood agar, forming small colonies that become draughtsman or carrom-coin shaped as autolysis creates a central depression
- Catalase negative; optochin sensitive and bile soluble — the two tests that distinguish it from the viridans streptococci, which are optochin resistant and bile insoluble
- Quellung reaction — type-specific antiserum causes apparent capsular swelling, allowing rapid identification and serotyping
- Over 90 capsular serotypes, and the polysaccharide capsule is the principal virulence factor, being antiphagocytic. Non-capsulated strains are avirulent
Diseases
- Pneumonia — the commonest cause of community-acquired lobar pneumonia, with rusty sputum and often preceded by a viral illness
- Meningitis — the commonest cause of bacterial meningitis in adults, with a high mortality and a high rate of neurological sequelae
- Otitis media and sinusitis — the commonest bacterial cause in children
- Bacteraemia, empyema, endocarditis, peritonitis, septic arthritis
- Predisposing factors — preceding viral infection, splenectomy or hyposplenism (including sickle cell disease), HIV, myeloma, alcoholism, smoking, chronic lung and heart disease, extremes of age, and complement or antibody deficiency
CLINICAL PEARL
Splenectomised patients die of pneumococcal sepsis because the spleen is what clears capsulated organisms. Antibody-coated pneumococci are removed by splenic macrophages, and without a spleen even a vaccinated person is vulnerable. overwhelming post-splenectomy infection can progress from wellbeing to death within hours, which is why these patients require vaccination, lifelong penicillin prophylaxis, a warning card, and instructions to seek help immediately with any fever.
Laboratory Diagnosis and Treatment
- Specimens — sputum, blood, cerebrospinal fluid, pleural fluid, ear swab
- Gram stain is often diagnostic in cerebrospinal fluid and good-quality sputum; culture on blood agar with 5 to 10% carbon dioxide
- Identification — optochin sensitivity, bile solubility, inulin fermentation, Quellung reaction, and mouse pathogenicity (historical)
- Antigen detection — latex agglutination and urinary pneumococcal antigen, which remains positive after antibiotics have sterilised the cultures
- Treatment — penicillin or amoxicillin where sensitive; third-generation cephalosporins with vancomycin for meningitis where penicillin resistance is prevalent, since even intermediate resistance matters at that site. dexamethasone given with or just before the first antibiotic dose reduces hearing loss and neurological sequelae in pneumococcal meningitis
- Resistance arises from altered penicillin-binding proteins acquired by transformation from related streptococci — so beta-lactamase inhibitors are useless against it
Prevention and Applied Aspects
- Conjugate vaccine (PCV) — polysaccharide linked to a protein carrier, which converts a T-independent response into a T-dependent one with memory, so it works in infants under 2. It also reduces nasopharyngeal carriage, producing herd immunity that protects the unvaccinated. Included in India's Universal Immunisation Programme
- Plain polysaccharide vaccine (PPSV23) — broader serotype coverage but T-independent, so no memory, no herd effect, and ineffective under 2 years; used in adults at risk and in the elderly
- Vaccinate before elective splenectomy, and at least 2 weeks beforehand so that a response develops; also vaccinate against meningococcus and Haemophilus
- Pneumococcal pneumonia and meningitis remain leading causes of childhood death in India, and conjugate vaccination is among the highest-value additions to the national programme
- Serotype replacement occurs after vaccination, as non-vaccine serotypes expand into the vacated niche, so surveillance must continue and vaccine composition may need revision
- Take blood cultures and a urinary antigen before antibiotics in suspected pneumococcal disease; the antigen test rescues the diagnosis when cultures are already sterile
Mechanism of Methicillin Resistance
MRSA is Staphylococcus aureus resistant to methicillin and therefore to all beta-lactam antibiotics, through acquisition of the mecA gene.
The mecA gene, carried on a mobile element (SCCmec), encodes an altered penicillin-binding protein, PBP2a → PBP2a has very low affinity for beta-lactams → Cell wall cross-linking therefore continues even when all the normal penicillin-binding proteins are blocked → Resistance extends to every beta-lactam — penicillins, cephalosporins (except ceftaroline) and carbapenems → Because the mechanism is an altered target rather than an enzyme, beta-lactamase inhibitors such as clavulanic acid are useless
CLINICAL PEARL
The distinction between altered target and enzymatic resistance decides what will work. Ordinary penicillin resistance in staphylococci is caused by penicillinase, an enzyme — defeated by a stable penicillin such as cloxacillin. MRSA has changed the target itself, so no amount of protecting the drug helps; an entirely different class is required. Two resistance mechanisms, two completely different clinical responses.
Types and Laboratory Detection
| Type | Features |
|---|---|
| Hospital-acquired (HA-MRSA) | Affects patients with healthcare contact — surgery, devices, prolonged admission, previous antibiotics. Typically multidrug resistant beyond the beta-lactams |
| Community-acquired (CA-MRSA) | Affects previously healthy people with no healthcare contact; carries PANTON-valentine leucocidin and causes severe necrotising skin infection and necrotising pneumonia. Usually susceptible to non-beta-lactam agents such as clindamycin and co-trimoxazole |
| Livestock-associated | Related to intensive animal farming and antibiotic use in agriculture |
| Detection | Cefoxitin disc diffusion is the recommended screening method (a better inducer of mecA expression than oxacillin); chromogenic agar; and PCR for mecA or latex agglutination for PBP2a as confirmation |
| VISA and VRSA | Vancomycin-intermediate strains have thickened cell walls that trap the drug; fully vancomycin-resistant strains have acquired vanA from enterococci — still rare but of great concern |
Treatment
- Vancomycin — the standard parenteral agent; trough levels are monitored, and under-dosing causes both failure and resistance
- Teicoplanin — similar, with a longer half-life allowing once-daily and intramuscular use
- Linezolid — excellent oral bioavailability, so serious infection can be treated orally; causes reversible myelosuppression beyond two weeks, and optic and peripheral neuropathy
- Daptomycin — effective in bacteraemia and right-sided endocarditis, but inactivated BY pulmonary surfactant, so it must never be used for pneumonia; monitor creatine kinase
- Clindamycin, CO-trimoxazole, doxycycline — useful oral options in community-acquired MRSA skin infection; the D-test must be performed before using clindamycin, to exclude inducible resistance
- Ceftaroline — the only beta-lactam with MRSA activity, since it binds PBP2a; mupirocin topically for nasal decolonisation
- Combination therapy with rifampicin is used in prosthetic device infection, where rifampicin penetrates biofilm, but it must never be given alone because resistance emerges rapidly
Control and Applied Aspects
- Hand hygiene is the single most effective control measure; the hands of staff are the principal vehicle of transmission between patients
- Screening and decolonisation of carriers before elective surgery — nasal mupirocin with chlorhexidine body washes — measurably reduces surgical site infection
- Contact precautions and cohorting of colonised patients, with environmental cleaning
- Antimicrobial stewardship — particularly restricting cephalosporins and fluoroquinolones, which select strongly for MRSA
- Remove infected devices; biofilm on a line, prosthesis or valve cannot be sterilised by any antibiotic, and retention causes relapse
- MRSA rates in Indian hospitals are high, and infection control discipline matters more than the availability of any particular drug; the newer agents are expensive and their unnecessary use will produce resistance in turn
Organism and Toxin
- Clostridium botulinum — a gram-positive, motile, obligate anaerobic bacillus with an oval, subterminal, bulging spore, widely distributed in soil and marine sediment
- Botulinum toxin is the most potent poison known — a few micrograms are lethal for man; there are seven types (A to G), of which A, B and E cause most human disease
- The toxin is heat-labile, destroyed by boiling for 10 minutes, whereas the spores are heat-resistant — a distinction with direct practical consequences for food preservation
Toxin is absorbed from the gut (or produced in a wound or in the infant gut) → It travels in the blood to peripheral cholinergic nerve endings → It cleaves snare proteins (snap-25, syntaxin, synaptobrevin) → Release of acetylcholine at the neuromuscular junction is blocked → flaccid paralysis, descending and symmetrical → Autonomic cholinergic synapses are also blocked — dry mouth, ileus, urinary retention, fixed dilated pupils
CLINICAL PEARL
Botulism and tetanus are produced by structurally similar toxins from related organisms, and cause exactly opposite illnesses. Both cleave snare proteins and block neurotransmitter release. But tetanospasmin blocks the inhibitory transmitters in the spinal cord, giving rigidity and spasm; botulinum toxin blocks excitatory acetylcholine at the neuromuscular junction, giving flaccid paralysis. Same mechanism, opposite site, opposite disease.
Clinical Forms
| Form | Source | Features |
|---|---|---|
| Food-borne botulism | Preformed toxin ingested in improperly preserved food — home-canned and bottled vegetables, fermented fish and meat, honey | Incubation 12 to 36 hours. An intoxication, not an infection. Descending symmetrical flaccid paralysis beginning with the cranial nerves: diplopia, ptosis, dysarthria, dysphagia, then limb weakness and respiratory failure. The patient is afebrile and fully conscious with NO sensory loss |
| Infant botulism | Ingested spores germinate in the immature gut, which lacks a protective flora; honey is the classical vehicle | The commonest form in some countries. Constipation, poor feeding, a weak cry, "floppy baby" with hypotonia and ptosis. Honey must not be given under 1 year |
| Wound botulism | Spores germinate in a wound; associated with injecting drug use | Similar features but with fever and a longer incubation |
| Iatrogenic | Cosmetic or therapeutic toxin injection | Local or rarely generalised weakness |
Diagnosis and Treatment
- Diagnosis is clinical and treatment must not wait for confirmation
- Confirmation — detection of toxin in serum, faeces, gastric contents or the suspect food by the mouse bioassay or ELISA; culture of the organism from faeces or wound
- Differential diagnosis — Guillain-Barré syndrome (ascending and with sensory involvement), myasthenia gravis (fatigable, responds to edrophonium), stroke, and organophosphate poisoning (which causes cholinergic excess rather than deficiency)
- Treatment — trivalent or heptavalent antitoxin given as early as possible, since it neutralises only circulating toxin and cannot reverse binding already achieved; mechanical ventilation, which is the measure that actually saves lives and may be needed for weeks or months; wound debridement and antibiotics in wound botulism; and human botulinum immunoglobulin in infant botulism
- Antibiotics are not given in infant botulism, since lysis of organisms in the gut releases more toxin; and aminoglycosides are avoided as they worsen neuromuscular blockade
Therapeutic Use and Applied Aspects
- Botulinum toxin type A is used therapeutically in blepharospasm, strabismus, cervical dystonia, spasticity, achalasia, anal fissure, hyperhidrosis, chronic migraine and detrusor overactivity — and cosmetically for wrinkles. The effect lasts about 3 months as nerve terminals sprout anew
- Prevention in food — proper pressure canning to destroy spores, adequate acidity and salt, refrigeration, and boiling food for 10 minutes before consumption, which destroys the heat-labile toxin even if spores survived
- Discard bulging or damaged cans without tasting; gas production suggests clostridial growth
- Never give honey to an infant under 1 year
- Botulinum toxin is classed as a bioterrorism agent because of its extreme potency and the possibility of aerosol or food-supply dissemination
- Traditional home preservation carries the greatest risk — bottling, pickling and fermenting at home without adequate acidity or pressure canning, which is where most sporadic cases originate
- Recognising botulism early matters more than any drug, since the decisive intervention is anticipating respiratory failure and securing the airway before it occurs; vital capacity should be monitored rather than waiting for distress
Organism and Pathogenesis
- Clostridioides (formerly Clostridium) difficile — a gram-positive, spore-forming, obligate anaerobic bacillus; part of the normal gut flora in a small proportion of adults and in most neonates
- Named "difficile" because it was difficult to isolate and grow
- Two toxins — toxin A (enterotoxin) causes fluid secretion and mucosal damage, and toxin B (cytotoxin) is far more potent and disrupts the cytoskeleton by glucosylating Rho GTPases. The hypervirulent NAP1/BI/027 strain produces more of both together with binary toxin
An antibiotic disrupts the normal colonic flora → colonisation resistance is lost → C. Difficile — already present, or acquired as spores from the environment — multiplies unopposed → Toxins A and B damage the mucosa and provoke intense inflammation → Yellowish plaques of fibrin, mucus and inflammatory cells form — pseudomembranous colitis → Profuse watery diarrhoea, cramps, fever and leucocytosis → May progress to toxic megacolon, perforation and death
- Risk factors — antibiotics above all (classically clindamycin, but in practice most cases follow cephalosporins, fluoroquinolones and broad-spectrum penicillins because these are used far more often); proton pump inhibitors; advanced age; prolonged hospital stay; and immunosuppression
CLINICAL PEARL
Alcohol hand rub does not kill C. Difficile spores, and that single fact governs outbreak control. Alcohol is faster and more effective than soap for almost every other organism, and has rightly become the default. But spores are unaffected by it and must be physically removed by washing with soap and water. In an outbreak this is the measure that matters, and it is the one most often forgotten in units where alcohol rub has become automatic.
Diagnosis
| Test | Comment |
|---|---|
| Glutamate dehydrogenase (GDH) antigen | Highly sensitive but detects the organism whether or not it is toxigenic; used as a screen |
| Toxin A and B by ELISA | Specific but less sensitive; confirms that the organism present is actually producing toxin |
| Nucleic acid amplification (PCR) for toxin genes | Very sensitive, but detects the gene rather than toxin production, so it may be positive in an asymptomatic carrier |
| Cell cytotoxicity assay | The historical reference standard; slow and now rarely used |
| Anaerobic culture on CCFA | Cycloserine-cefoxitin-fructose agar; needed for typing and outbreak investigation |
| Sigmoidoscopy | Shows the pseudomembranes but is rarely necessary and carries a perforation risk in severe colitis |
- A two-step or three-step algorithm is standard — GDH screen, then toxin detection, with PCR resolving discrepancies
- Test only patients with diarrhoea; testing formed stool detects carriers and leads to unnecessary treatment
Treatment and Prevention
- Stop the precipitating antibiotic wherever the primary infection allows — the single most important step
- Oral vancomycin or fidaxomicin is now first-line; metronidazole has been relegated to second-line as it is less effective
- Oral vancomycin works because it is not absorbed, so it reaches a high concentration in the colonic lumen; intravenous vancomycin does not work for this indication, and confusing the routes is a serious error
- Severe or fulminant disease — oral vancomycin with intravenous metronidazole, and surgical colectomy for toxic megacolon or perforation
- Recurrent disease — occurs in about 20%; treated with a tapered vancomycin regimen, fidaxomicin, bezlotoxumab (an antitoxin B antibody), or faecal microbiota transplantation, which restores the flora and is strikingly effective
- Antimotility drugs such as loperamide are contraindicated — they retain toxin in the colon and precipitate toxic megacolon
- Infection control — isolation with contact precautions, hand-washing with soap and water, and environmental cleaning with a sporicidal agent such as hypochlorite
Applied Aspects
- Consider C. Difficile in any patient with diarrhoea during or within 8 weeks of antibiotic treatment, and isolate promptly rather than after confirmation
- Antimicrobial stewardship is the primary prevention — reducing unnecessary cephalosporin and fluoroquinolone use lowers incidence more than any infection control measure alone
- Review the proton pump inhibitor, which is frequently continued without indication and independently increases risk
- Do not treat asymptomatic carriers; they do not benefit, and treatment selects resistance and disturbs the flora further
- C. Difficile is under-recognised in India, partly because testing is not widely available and partly because antibiotic-associated diarrhoea is attributed to the drug itself; the burden is probably substantially greater than reported
- Faecal microbiota transplantation demonstrates that the flora is itself therapeutic — restoring colonisation resistance succeeds where further antibiotics fail, which is a conceptually important result
Organism and Classification
- Enterococci are gram-positive cocci in pairs or short chains, catalase negative, formerly classified as Lancefield group D streptococci and now a separate genus
- Principal species — E. Faecalis (about 80 to 90% of human isolates) and E. Faecium (fewer but far more resistant)
- Distinguishing features — they grow in 6.5% sodium chloride, in 40% bile, at 10°C and 45°C, and at pH 9.6, and they hydrolyse aesculin in the presence of bile. This remarkable hardiness lets them survive on surfaces and in the gut through antibiotic courses
- Usually non-haemolytic (gamma), sometimes alpha; part of the normal gut flora
Intrinsic Resistance — WHY Enterococci Matter
| Antibiotic class | Enterococcal response |
|---|---|
| Cephalosporins — all of them | Intrinsically resistant. This is why cephalosporin use selects for enterococci, and why "cephalosporin cover" leaves a gap that enterococci fill |
| Penicillins | Only inhibited, not killed — enterococci are tolerant, so penicillin alone is bacteriostatic against them |
| Aminoglycosides alone | Resistant, because the drug cannot cross the cell wall unaided |
| Penicillin plus an aminoglycoside | Synergistic and bactericidal — the penicillin damages the wall and lets the aminoglycoside in. This combination is essential in endocarditis, where killing rather than inhibition is required |
| Co-trimoxazole | Appears active in vitro but fails in vivo, because enterococci take up preformed folate from the environment |
| Clindamycin, macrolides | Intrinsically resistant or unreliable |
| Vancomycin | Active — unless the organism is VRE |
CLINICAL PEARL
The enterococcus is not especially virulent; it is especially unkillable. Its clinical importance comes almost entirely from intrinsic resistance to whole classes of antibiotic, together with a talent for acquiring more. It is a weak pathogen that thrives precisely because everything used against other organisms leaves it untouched — which makes it a marker of heavy antibiotic exposure as much as a pathogen in its own right.
Vancomycin-resistant Enterococci (vre)
- Mechanism — the vanA or vanB gene cluster replaces the terminal D-alanyl-D-alanine of the peptidoglycan precursor with D-alanyl-D-lactate, for which vancomycin has about a thousandfold lower affinity
- Carried on transposons and plasmids, and therefore transferable — vanA has been transferred to Staphylococcus aureus, producing VRSA, which is why VRE is watched so closely
- Commonest in E. Faecium, and associated with prolonged hospital stay, previous vancomycin or cephalosporin use, and intensive care
- Treatment options — linezolid, daptomycin (not for pneumonia), tigecycline, and for urinary infection nitrofurantoin or fosfomycin
Clinical Infections and Applied Aspects
- Urinary tract infection — the commonest, particularly in catheterised patients
- Intra-abdominal and pelvic sepsis, usually as part of a polymicrobial infection following bowel surgery or perforation
- Endocarditis — subacute, classically in older men after genitourinary instrumentation and in women after obstetric procedures; requires prolonged synergistic combination therapy
- Bacteraemia and line infection; wound infection; neonatal sepsis
- Distinguish colonisation from infection — enterococci grown from a wound swab, a catheter urine or a mixed abdominal culture are frequently passengers, and treating them selects resistance without benefit
- Never treat enterococcal endocarditis with a single agent; synergistic combination therapy for several weeks is required, and inadequate treatment leads to relapse
- Cephalosporin restriction reduces enterococcal and VRE pressure, which is a concrete stewardship target
- VRE is emerging in Indian tertiary hospitals, and its containment depends on contact precautions, environmental cleaning and stewardship rather than on new drugs, of which there are few
Organism
- Listeria monocytogenes — a small, gram-positive, non-sporing, non-capsulated bacillus resembling a diphtheroid or a coccobacillus
- Tumbling motility at 25°C but not at 37°C, from peritrichous flagella expressed only at lower temperature — a characteristic identifying feature
- Grows at refrigeration temperature (4°C), which is the key to its epidemiology: it multiplies in stored chilled foods where other pathogens do not. cold enrichment exploits this in the laboratory
- Narrow zone of beta-haemolysis; catalase positive (unlike streptococci); camp test positive
- An intracellular pathogen — it uses listeriolysin O to escape the phagosome and actin polymerisation ("actin comet tails") to move directly from cell to cell, so it never enters the extracellular space where antibody could reach it. cell-mediated immunity is therefore what controls it
CLINICAL PEARL
Listeria affects exactly those with impaired cell-mediated immunity, and that follows from how it moves. By spreading cell to cell through actin tails it is invisible to antibody and to complement. Only T-cell-activated macrophages can eliminate it — so the susceptible groups are pregnant women, neonates, the elderly and the immunosuppressed, and healthy adults are largely unaffected even when exposed.
Clinical Disease
| Group | Presentation |
|---|---|
| Pregnancy | A mild flu-like or febrile illness in the mother, which may seem trivial — but causes chorioamnionitis, abortion, stillbirth or preterm labour. Pregnant women are about 20 times more susceptible |
| Neonate — early onset | Acquired in utero; granulomatosis infantiseptica — disseminated abscesses and granulomas in liver, spleen and skin, with high mortality |
| Neonate — late onset | Acquired during or after birth; meningitis at 1 to 4 weeks |
| Adults — immunosuppressed and elderly | Meningitis and meningoencephalitis (notably rhombencephalitis with brainstem signs), bacteraemia, endocarditis, focal abscess |
| Healthy adults | Self-limiting febrile gastroenteritis after a large inoculum |
- Sources — soft cheeses, unpasteurised milk, deli meats, paté, smoked fish, prepacked salads and chilled ready-to-eat foods; the organism is widespread in soil, water, silage and animals
Diagnosis and Treatment
- Specimens — blood, cerebrospinal fluid, placenta, meconium, neonatal gastric aspirate
- Gram stain of cerebrospinal fluid is often negative because the organism count is low, and the cell response may be lymphocytic, so the picture can be mistaken for tuberculous or viral meningitis
- Culture with cold enrichment if necessary; tumbling motility at 25°C and the camp reaction identify it
- Treatment: ampicillin (or benzylpenicillin) with gentamicin for synergy; CO-trimoxazole in penicillin allergy
- Listeria is intrinsically resistant to all cephalosporins — the single most important practical fact about it, because the standard empirical regimen for bacterial meningitis is a third-generation cephalosporin, which would leave Listeria entirely untreated
Applied Aspects
- Add ampicillin to the empirical regimen for meningitis at the extremes of age — neonates, adults over 50, pregnant women and the immunosuppressed — precisely because cephalosporins do not cover Listeria
- Take a febrile illness in pregnancy seriously; the maternal illness may be mild while the fetal consequences are severe, and blood cultures should be taken
- Counsel pregnant and immunosuppressed patients on food — avoid unpasteurised dairy products, soft cheeses, paté and chilled ready-to-eat foods, and reheat leftovers thoroughly
- Refrigeration does not prevent Listeria growth, which overturns the usual assumption about food safety and is worth stating explicitly when counselling
- Consider Listeria in "aseptic" meningitis with a lymphocytic response in an at-risk patient, particularly where tuberculous meningitis is also in the differential — a relevant problem in India
- Listeriosis is probably under-diagnosed in India, where blood and cerebrospinal fluid culture is not universally available and the organism may be dismissed as a diphtheroid contaminant
Actinomyces
- Gram-positive, branching, filamentous bacteria that resemble fungi but are true bacteria — they have peptidoglycan, no nucleus, and respond to antibiotics
- Anaerobic or microaerophilic; non-acid-fast
- Actinomyces israelii is the principal human pathogen; it is a normal commensal of the mouth, gut and female genital tract, so infection is endogenous and never transmitted between people
- Sulphur granules — yellowish granules in the pus, consisting of colonies of the organism; crushed and stained they show gram-positive branching filaments with radiating clubs. They are the diagnostic finding
- Molar tooth colonies on prolonged anaerobic culture, which requires up to 2 weeks
| Form of actinomycosis | Features |
|---|---|
| Cervicofacial (about 60%) | The commonest; follows dental extraction, caries or trauma. A chronic indurated swelling at the angle of the jaw ("lumpy jaw") with multiple sinuses discharging sulphur granules; it crosses tissue planes and ignores anatomical barriers |
| Thoracic | After aspiration; chronic pneumonia with empyema and chest wall sinuses; may erode ribs, mimicking malignancy or tuberculosis |
| Abdominal | After appendicitis, perforation or surgery; an ileocaecal mass mimicking carcinoma or Crohn disease |
| Pelvic | Strongly associated with prolonged intrauterine contraceptive device use |
| Treatment | Prolonged high-dose penicillin for 6 to 12 months, with surgical drainage of abscesses and excision of sinuses; the long duration is essential because the dense fibrosis prevents drug penetration |
CLINICAL PEARL
Actinomycosis crosses tissue planes, and that single behaviour is what suggests the diagnosis. Most infections respect anatomical boundaries and most tumours follow lymphatic routes. A chronic indurated lesion with multiple discharging sinuses that spreads directly through fascia, muscle and even bone, ignoring the usual barriers, is characteristic — and it is regularly mistaken for malignancy or tuberculosis until sulphur granules are looked for.
Nocardia
| Feature | Actinomyces | Nocardia |
|---|---|---|
| Oxygen requirement | Anaerobic | Aerobic |
| Acid-fastness | Not acid-fast | Partially acid-fast — resists 1% sulphuric acid in the modified Ziehl-Neelsen stain (M. Tuberculosis resists 20%) |
| Source | Endogenous — normal flora of mouth and gut | Exogenous — free-living in soil and dust; acquired by inhalation or inoculation |
| Host | Usually immunocompetent | Usually immunocompromised — steroids, transplant, HIV, malignancy |
| Sulphur granules | Present and characteristic | Usually absent (present in mycetoma) |
| Chief disease | Cervicofacial actinomycosis | Pulmonary nocardiosis with a marked tendency to disseminate to the brain — so cerebral imaging is mandatory |
| Treatment | Penicillin, prolonged | CO-trimoxazole, prolonged (6 to 12 months) |
Mycetoma
- A chronic granulomatous infection of subcutaneous tissue characterised by the triad of painless swelling, multiple sinuses, and discharge containing grains; it destroys underlying bone
- Actinomycetoma is caused by bacteria (Nocardia, Actinomadura, Streptomyces) and responds to antibiotics — co-trimoxazole with amikacin or dapsone
- Eumycetoma is caused by fungi (Madurella) and requires antifungals with surgery, often amputation; the response is far poorer
- The colour of the grains suggests the cause, and distinguishing the two is essential before treatment, since the management differs completely
- "MADURA foot" takes its name from Madurai; the foot is the commonest site, following minor penetrating injury in people walking barefoot, and the condition remains endemic in parts of India and Africa
Applied Aspects
- Look for sulphur granules in any chronic discharging sinus; the pus should be examined macroscopically and the granule crushed and stained, which is a cheap test that settles the diagnosis
- Treat actinomycosis for months, not weeks; premature discontinuation is the commonest cause of relapse, and the fibrosis limits drug penetration
- Image the brain in any patient with pulmonary nocardiosis, since cerebral abscess is common, frequently silent and alters both the drug choice and the duration
- Consider nocardiosis in an immunosuppressed patient with pulmonary infiltrates not responding to standard antibiotics, and ask the laboratory to perform a modified Ziehl-Neelsen stain and to hold cultures longer
- Distinguish actinomycetoma from eumycetoma before treating; a bacterial mycetoma is curable with antibiotics, whereas a fungal one often ends in amputation, so the distinction changes the patient's future
- Footwear prevents mycetoma, and this is a simple and under-emphasised public health measure in the endemic belts of India
General Characters of the Enterobacteriaceae
- Gram-negative, non-sporing bacilli, motile by peritrichous flagella or non-motile; facultative anaerobes growing readily on ordinary media
- All ferment glucose, all reduce nitrate to nitrite, all are oxidase negative and catalase positive
- The oxidase test is the crucial first discrimination — a gram-negative bacillus that is oxidase positive is not an enterobacterium, and is more likely Pseudomonas, Vibrio, Aeromonas or Campylobacter
| Antigen | Nature | Significance |
|---|---|---|
| O (somatic) | The polysaccharide side chain of lipopolysaccharide; heat-stable | Basis of serogrouping; the O antibody is IgM and appears early in infection |
| H (flagellar) | Flagellin protein; heat-labile | Absent in non-motile organisms (Klebsiella, Shigella); H antibody is IgG, persists long, and rises after vaccination |
| K (capsular) | Polysaccharide capsule | Antiphagocytic; may mask the O antigen and prevent O agglutination until the organism is heated. The Vi antigen of S. Typhi is a K antigen, and the K1 capsule of E. Coli causes neonatal meningitis |
| Fimbrial | Protein | Adhesion |
| Group | Lactose on MacConkey | Members |
|---|---|---|
| Lactose fermenters | Pink colonies | Escherichia, klebsiella, Enterobacter, Citrobacter (late) |
| Non-lactose fermenters | Pale, colourless colonies | Salmonella, shigella, proteus, Yersinia, Serratia |
CLINICAL PEARL
The pathogens are, with useful regularity, the non-lactose fermenters. Salmonella, Shigella, Yersinia and Proteus all form pale colonies on MacConkey agar, while the commensal coliforms turn pink. This is why the plate is inspected for colourless colonies in a stool culture — a single cheap medium that is simultaneously selective (bile salts suppress gram-positives) and differential, and which directs the whole subsequent investigation.
Escherichia Coli — General Features
- The predominant facultative anaerobe of the normal large bowel, and therefore an indicator OF faecal contamination of water and food
- IMViC reactions ++–– — indole positive, methyl red positive, Voges-Proskauer negative, citrate negative; this distinguishes it from Klebsiella, which is ––++
- Ferments lactose with acid and gas; on EMB agar produces a characteristic green metallic sheen
- Extra-intestinal disease — the commonest cause of urinary tract infection (uropathogenic strains adhering by P fimbriae); neonatal meningitis (K1 capsule); intra-abdominal sepsis and peritonitis; wound infection; and gram-negative bacteraemia
Diarrhoeagenic Escherichia Coli
| Type | Mechanism | Clinical picture |
|---|---|---|
| ETEC — enterotoxigenic | Heat-labile toxin (LT), which acts like cholera toxin through cAMP, and heat-stable toxin (ST) acting through cGMP; non-invasive | Traveller'S diarrhoea and infantile diarrhoea in developing countries; profuse watery stool without blood or fever |
| EPEC — enteropathogenic | Attaching and effacing lesions destroying microvilli; NO toxin | Outbreaks of infantile diarrhoea in nurseries; may be prolonged |
| EIEC — enteroinvasive | Invades colonic epithelium exactly as Shigella does; positive SERENY test | Dysentery — fever, blood and mucus in the stool |
| EHEC / STEC — enterohaemorrhagic | SHIGA-like (vero) cytotoxin, phage-encoded; the classical serotype is O157:H7, which does not ferment sorbitol — the basis of its selective isolation | Haemorrhagic colitis with bloody stool but characteristically little fever; complicated by haemolytic uraemic syndrome in children. From undercooked beef, unpasteurised milk, contaminated produce |
| EAEC — enteroaggregative | "stacked-brick" adherence to epithelium with biofilm | Persistent diarrhoea in children and in HIV |
- Antibiotics are contraindicated IN EHEC — they increase Shiga toxin release by inducing the prophage, and raise the risk of haemolytic uraemic syndrome. Antimotility drugs are likewise avoided
Laboratory Diagnosis and Treatment
- Urine — clean-catch midstream sample; significant bacteriuria is conventionally 105 colony-forming units per mL, though lower counts matter in a symptomatic young woman or a suprapubic specimen
- Stool — culture on MacConkey and selective media; serotyping and toxin or gene detection are needed to identify a diarrhoeagenic type, since ordinary culture cannot distinguish them from commensal E. Coli
- Blood, pus and cerebrospinal fluid as appropriate; identification by IMViC, urease, and automated systems or MALDI-TOF
- Treatment — guided by sensitivity, since resistance is now extensive; nitrofurantoin or fosfomycin for uncomplicated cystitis; aminoglycosides, carbapenems or beta-lactam with inhibitor combinations for serious infection. ESBL and carbapenemase production are widespread in India
- Most diarrhoea needs only oral rehydration, with zinc in children; antibiotics are reserved for dysentery, severe illness and specific organisms
Biochemical Identification of the Enterobacteriaceae
| Test | What it shows | Discriminating value |
|---|---|---|
| IMViC | Indole, Methyl red, Voges-Proskauer, Citrate | E. Coli is ++––; klebsiella is ––++ — the classical opposition |
| Urease | Splits urea to ammonia | Strongly positive in proteus, Morganella and Providencia; negative in E. Coli, Salmonella and Shigella |
| H2S production | Black colonies on TSI or Wilson-Blair | Positive in Salmonella (except a trace in S. Typhi) and Proteus; negative in Shigella |
| Motility | Hanging drop or semisolid agar | Salmonella is motile, shigella is non-motile — a key distinction between two non-lactose fermenters |
| Gas from glucose | Durham's tube | S. Typhi produces acid but NO gas; other salmonellae produce both |
| Triple sugar iron (TSI) | Glucose, lactose and sucrose fermentation with H2S and gas | A single slope giving several answers at once; the standard screening medium |
| Lysine decarboxylase, ONPG | Further separation | Distinguishes Salmonella from Citrobacter |
Applied Aspects
- E. Coli in water indicates faecal contamination, and coliform counts are the standard of water safety; this remains a central public health measurement in India
- Do not give antibiotics for bloody diarrhoea until EHEC is excluded in a child with an appropriate history, since they worsen the outcome
- Uncomplicated cystitis in a young woman needs no culture in most settings; culture is reserved for treatment failure, pregnancy, men, children and recurrent or complicated infection
- Asymptomatic bacteriuria is treated only in pregnancy and before urological instrumentation; treating it otherwise selects resistance without benefit
- Hand hygiene, safe water and sanitation prevent far more E. Coli disease than any antibiotic, and the burden of childhood diarrhoea in India reflects this directly
- Take a travel and food history in acute diarrhoea; the pattern of illness, incubation and the presence of blood narrow the likely organism before any laboratory result
- Watery diarrhoea points to a toxin acting on the small bowel (ETEC, cholera), whereas blood and pus point to invasion of the colon (Shigella, EIEC, Campylobacter) — a distinction that guides both investigation and whether antibiotics are needed at all
- Suspect haemolytic uraemic syndrome in a child with bloody diarrhoea who becomes pale or oliguric, and check the platelet count, film and creatinine rather than simply treating the diarrhoea
- Serotyping is needed to identify diarrhoeagenic E. Coli, so routine stool culture reporting "E. Coli grown" from a diarrhoeal specimen means nothing — it is normal flora
- Neonatal meningitis caused by E. Coli carries the K1 capsule, and the organism should be sought in blood and cerebrospinal fluid in any septic neonate
- Zinc for 14 days with oral rehydration is standard in childhood diarrhoea in India, reducing both the current episode and further episodes over the following months
- Give ORS by spoon or cup, not by bottle, and continue after every loose stool; the commonest reason oral rehydration "fails" is that too little is given, too slowly
- Do not use antibiotics for watery diarrhoea in the absence of cholera, severe illness or a specific indication; the great majority are self-limiting and antibiotics select resistance and prolong carriage
- Recurrent urinary infection in a child warrants imaging for reflux or structural abnormality, since repeated pyelonephritis causes permanent scarring
The Organism
- Gram-negative bacilli, motile by peritrichous flagella, non-capsulated (except the Vi antigen), non-lactose fermenting
- Nomenclature — almost all human isolates belong to Salmonella enterica subspecies enterica, named by serotype: S. Typhi, S. Paratyphi A, B and C, S. Typhimurium, S. Enteritidis
- Antigenic structure and the kauffmann-white scheme — classifies over 2,500 serotypes by their O (somatic) and H (flagellar) antigens; S. Typhi additionally carries the Vi (capsular) antigen, which is antiphagocytic, masks the O antigen, and is the basis of both a vaccine and carrier detection
- Biochemical features — S. Typhi produces acid but NO gas from glucose (other salmonellae produce both), and produces only a trace of H2S, whereas other salmonellae produce it abundantly
| Type of salmonellosis | Organisms | Features |
|---|---|---|
| Enteric fever | S. Typhi, S. Paratyphi A, B, C | A systemic illness with bacteraemia; man is the only reservoir |
| Gastroenteritis (food poisoning) | S. Typhimurium, S. Enteritidis and many others | Zoonotic — poultry, eggs, meat; a self-limiting diarrhoeal illness in which antibiotics prolong carriage and are avoided unless the patient is severely ill or at the extremes of age |
| Septicaemia with focal lesions | S. Choleraesuis and others | Osteomyelitis (characteristically in sickle cell disease), abscess, endocarditis, mycotic aneurysm |
| Carrier state | S. Typhi | Chronic excretion, usually from the gallbladder |
Pathogenesis of Enteric Fever
Ingestion of a large inoculum in contaminated water or food; gastric acid is a barrier, so achlorhydria and antacids lower the infecting dose → The organism invades the ileal mucosa and PEYER patches → It multiplies within macrophages — an intracellular pathogen, which is why cell-mediated immunity matters and why intracellular antibiotics are needed → Spread to mesenteric lymph nodes and by the thoracic duct to blood — primary bacteraemia, which is asymptomatic → Seeding of liver, spleen, bone marrow and gallbladder, where further multiplication occurs during the incubation period of 7 to 14 days → secondary bacteraemia — and it is now that the illness begins → Organisms excreted in bile re-infect the Peyer patches, which undergo hyperplasia, necrosis and ulceration along the long axis of the ileum → Hence perforation and haemorrhage in the third week
CLINICAL PEARL
The sequence of positive tests follows the sequence of the disease, which is why the right specimen depends on the week. The organism is in the blood in week 1 (culture positive in about 80%), antibody has risen by week 2 (Widal), and it is being excreted in stool and urine from week 2 to 3. Sending a stool culture in the first week, or a Widal on day three, produces a negative result from a patient who certainly has the disease.
Clinical Features and Complications
- Week 1 — step-ladder fever rising over days, headache, malaise, dry cough, constipation more often than diarrhoea in adults; relative bradycardia (Faget sign)
- Week 2 — sustained high fever, toxaemia, rose spots (sparse blanching pink macules on the trunk, difficult to see on pigmented skin), splenomegaly, abdominal distension, and apathy; leucopenia with an absent eosinophil count is characteristic
- Week 3 — the dangerous week: intestinal perforation and haemorrhage from the ulcerated terminal ileum; also myocarditis, encephalopathy ("typhoid state"), and shock
- Other complications — cholecystitis, osteomyelitis, arthritis, meningitis, nephritis, abortion; and relapse in up to 10%, usually milder
- Carriers — convalescent (up to 3 months) and chronic (over 1 year), in whom the organism persists in the gallbladder, particularly with gallstones; commoner in older women. "Typhoid Mary" is the historical example, and food handlers are the public health concern
Laboratory Diagnosis
| Week | Investigation | Notes |
|---|---|---|
| Week 1 | Blood culture — the gold standard | Positive in about 80% in the first week, falling thereafter; 5 to 10 mL into bile broth or a standard bottle. Bone marrow culture is the most sensitive of all and stays positive despite prior antibiotics |
| Week 2 | WIDAL test | Detects O and H agglutinins; a fourfold rise in paired sera is diagnostic. A single titre is difficult to interpret in India, where baseline titres are high from past exposure and vaccination |
| Weeks 2–3 | Stool and urine culture | Positive later in the illness and in carriers; selective media such as DCA and Wilson-Blair (black colonies from H2S) |
| Any time | Enrichment in selenite F broth | Increases the yield from stool by suppressing other flora |
| Carrier detection | Vi antibody | Raised in chronic carriers; with repeated stool and bile culture |
| Newer | Typhidot (IgM/IgG), Tubex, PCR | Rapid but of variable and often disappointing specificity |
- Interpreting the Widal test — O antibody is IgM and indicates recent or active infection; H antibody is IgG, persists for years and rises after vaccination, so a raised H titre alone means little. False positives occur in other infections and in autoimmune disease; false negatives occur early, after antibiotics, and in the immunosuppressed
Differential Diagnosis of Prolonged Fever in India
| Condition | Distinguishing features |
|---|---|
| Enteric fever | Step-ladder fever, relative bradycardia, splenomegaly, leucopenia with absent eosinophils, constipation early; blood culture positive in week 1 |
| Malaria | Paroxysms with rigors, anaemia, thrombocytopenia; parasites on a smear or a positive rapid test |
| Tuberculosis | Weight loss, night sweats, prolonged course; raised ESR, chest radiograph |
| Brucellosis | Undulant fever, sweats, sacroiliitis, animal or raw milk contact; prolonged culture |
| Scrub typhus and rickettsial fever | An eschar, lymphadenopathy, rash; dramatic response to doxycycline |
| Dengue | Abrupt fever, severe myalgia, retro-orbital pain, thrombocytopenia, leucopenia; NS1 antigen early |
| Amoebic liver abscess | Tender hepatomegaly, right shoulder pain; ultrasound |
| Leptospirosis | Conjunctival suffusion, calf tenderness, jaundice with renal failure; rainy season and flood exposure |
- Take blood cultures before antibiotics in any prolonged fever; a single prior dose is the commonest reason enteric fever is never confirmed, and it then becomes an untreatable diagnostic problem for weeks
Treatment, Prevention and Applied Aspects
- Ceftriaxone or azithromycin are now first-line in India; fluoroquinolone resistance is widespread, and nalidixic acid resistance predicts it. Chloramphenicol, ampicillin and co-trimoxazole retain activity against some strains, and multidrug-resistant and XDR strains are an increasing problem
- Fever settles slowly, over 3 to 5 days, and persistent fever is not by itself evidence of treatment failure — changing antibiotics prematurely is a common error
- Dexamethasone reduces mortality in severe typhoid with shock or altered consciousness
- Chronic carriers — prolonged ciprofloxacin or amoxicillin, and cholecystectomy where there are gallstones and treatment fails
- Prevention — safe water, sanitation, food hygiene, exclusion and treatment of carriers among food handlers; and vaccination with Vi polysaccharide, oral live Ty21a, or the newer Vi conjugate vaccine (TCV), which unlike plain polysaccharide works in infants and gives longer protection
- Enteric fever remains common in India and must be considered in any prolonged fever; blood cultures should be taken before antibiotics, which in practice is the commonest reason the diagnosis is never confirmed
- Watch for perforation in the third week — sudden abdominal pain with a falling temperature and rising pulse in a patient who was improving; it is a surgical emergency and easily attributed to the illness itself
- Do not treat non-typhoidal Salmonella gastroenteritis with antibiotics in an otherwise healthy patient; they prolong carriage without shortening the illness
- Screen and treat carriers among food handlers; a single chronic carrier can sustain an outbreak for years, and gallstones make eradication difficult
- The typhoid conjugate vaccine works in infants, unlike the plain Vi polysaccharide, and its introduction is a significant addition to control in endemic areas
- Bone marrow culture remains positive after antibiotics and is the most sensitive test; it is worth doing where the diagnosis matters and blood cultures were taken too late
- Interpret a single Widal titre against local baseline values, which differ between regions; many laboratories in India report against a fixed cut-off that has never been validated locally
- Relapse occurs in up to 10%, typically 1 to 3 weeks after treatment ends and usually milder; it is not necessarily evidence of resistance
- Vaccination does not remove the need for safe water; typhoid is a disease of sanitation, and the durable solution is environmental rather than immunological
- Extensively drug-resistant typhoid has emerged in the subcontinent, resistant to fluoroquinolones and third-generation cephalosporins, leaving azithromycin and carbapenems — a serious narrowing of options for a common disease
- Do not stop treatment when the fever settles; the full course is required to prevent relapse and to clear the organism from the gallbladder
The Organism
- Vibrio cholerae — a gram-negative, comma-shaped (curved) bacillus with a single polar flagellum giving rapid darting or "shooting star" motility, seen in a hanging drop and abolished by specific antiserum
- Oxidase positive — which immediately separates it from the Enterobacteriaceae
- Alkaliphilic — it tolerates pH up to 9.2 but is killed rapidly by acid, which is exploited in both enrichment and epidemiology
- Classification — over 200 O serogroups, but only O1 and O139 cause epidemic cholera. O1 has two biotypes, classical and EL TOR (the current pandemic strain, which is hardier, produces more asymptomatic carriers and survives longer in the environment), and three serotypes: OGAWA, INABA and Hikojima
| Medium | Purpose and appearance |
|---|---|
| Alkaline peptone water (pH 8.6) | Enrichment — the vibrio grows rapidly at alkaline pH while other gut flora are suppressed; subcultured after 6 hours |
| TCBS agar | Selective and differential — thiosulphate citrate bile salt sucrose; V. Cholerae ferments sucrose and forms large yellow colonies (V. Parahaemolyticus is non-sucrose-fermenting and forms green colonies) |
| Monsur or gelatin taurocholate tellurite agar | Selective; small translucent colonies with a black centre |
| CARY-BLAIR | Transport medium — the vibrio dies quickly in ordinary transport systems |
| Identification | Oxidase positive, string test positive, "cholera red" reaction, agglutination with O1 and O139 antisera |
Cholera Toxin
The toxin has one A subunit and five B subunits ("A-5B") → The B subunits bind the GM1 ganglioside receptor on the enterocyte → The A subunit enters the cell → It catalyses ADP-ribosylation of the Gs alpha subunit of the regulatory G protein → This locks Gs in its active state — the GTPase that would switch it off is disabled → adenylate cyclase is permanently ON and intracellular cAMP rises enormously → Active secretion of chloride from crypt cells and blocked absorption of sodium → Water follows osmotically — massive isotonic fluid loss into the lumen
CLINICAL PEARL
The mucosa is not damaged at all, and that is precisely why oral rehydration works. Cholera toxin switches on secretion without invading or destroying anything, so the glucose-coupled sodium co-transporter (SGLT1) remains fully intact. Giving glucose with salt drives sodium absorption through a pathway the toxin never touched, and water follows. A disease that killed half its victims became treatable with sugar, salt and clean water — a direct consequence of understanding the mechanism.
Clinical Features
- Incubation a few hours to 5 days; most infections are asymptomatic or mild, particularly with El Tor, and these people spread it
- Abrupt painless profuse watery diarrhoea with effortless vomiting; the stool becomes "rice-water" — colourless with flecks of mucus, with a characteristic inoffensive fishy odour
- NO fever, NO abdominal pain, NO blood or pus in the stool; the patient remains afebrile and mentally clear until shock supervenes
- Fluid loss may reach 1 litre per hour, giving severe dehydration within hours — sunken eyes, "washerwoman's hands", loss of skin turgor, feeble pulse, hypotension
- Consequences — hypovolaemic shock, metabolic acidosis from bicarbonate loss, hypokalaemia (paralytic ileus, arrhythmia), acute kidney injury, and in children hypoglycaemia
- Death may occur within hours, and untreated mortality reaches 50%; with adequate rehydration it falls below 1%
Treatment and Prevention
- Rehydration IS the treatment — everything else is secondary. Ringer lactate intravenously for severe dehydration, replacing the estimated deficit within 3 to 4 hours and then matching ongoing losses; oral rehydration solution for mild and moderate cases and to continue after resuscitation
- ORS composition depends on glucose-coupled sodium transport; the reduced-osmolarity formulation is now standard and lessens vomiting and stool output
- Monitor and replace potassium, which is lost heavily and is often overlooked while attention is on volume
- Antibiotics are adjunctive — a single dose of doxycycline, or azithromycin in children and pregnancy; they shorten the illness, reduce stool volume by about half and shorten excretion, but they do not save the life — fluid does
- Zinc in children reduces duration and severity
- Prevention — safe water and sanitation above all; food hygiene; chlorination; case isolation and disinfection of excreta; and oral killed vaccines (Shanchol, Dukoral), used for outbreak control and in endemic areas, though they do not replace clean water
Assessment of Dehydration and Fluid Replacement
| Feature | NO dehydration | Some dehydration | Severe dehydration |
|---|---|---|---|
| General condition | Well, alert | Restless, irritable | Lethargic or unconscious |
| Eyes | Normal | Sunken | Deeply sunken |
| Thirst | Drinks normally | Thirsty, drinks eagerly | Drinks poorly or unable to drink |
| Skin pinch | Goes back quickly | Goes back slowly | Goes back very slowly (over 2 seconds) |
| Estimated fluid deficit | Under 5% | 5–10% | Over 10% |
| WHO treatment plan | Plan A — home fluids, ORS after each stool, zinc | Plan B — ORS 75 mL/kg over 4 hours under supervision | Plan C — intravenous Ringer lactate 100 mL/kg, given rapidly (30 mL/kg then 70 mL/kg), with ORS as soon as the patient can drink |
Applied Aspects
- Assess dehydration and start fluid immediately; no investigation should delay resuscitation, and the diagnosis in an outbreak is clinical
- A single case of cholera constitutes an outbreak and must be notified; it indicates faecal contamination of a water supply serving many people
- Cholera remains endemic in parts of India with seasonal outbreaks during and after the monsoon, and in flooded and displaced populations where sanitation has failed
- Oral rehydration therapy was developed largely in the Indian subcontinent and is among the most important therapeutic advances of the twentieth century, having saved tens of millions of lives at negligible cost
- Send stool in Cary-Blair and tell the laboratory cholera is suspected, so that alkaline peptone water and TCBS are set up; ordinary stool culture will miss it
- Treat the water supply, not just the patient; chlorination, safe storage and sanitation end an outbreak, whereas treating cases one by one does not
- Weigh the patient on admission and again after rehydration; the change in weight is the most reliable measure of the deficit replaced, particularly in children
- Do not use plain glucose saline or dextrose alone; the losses are isotonic with bicarbonate and potassium, and Ringer lactate replaces them far better
- Continue feeding and breastfeeding throughout; withholding food prolongs recovery and worsens the nutritional consequences, particularly in children
- Set up a cholera treatment centre with cholera cots in an outbreak, allowing continuous measurement of stool losses and matched replacement — simple organisation that reduces mortality more than any drug
- Give a single dose of doxycycline to household contacts in an outbreak, alongside the measures directed at water and sanitation
- El Tor produces many mild and asymptomatic infections, so the cases presenting to hospital represent a small fraction of those infected and spreading it
- Distinguish cholera from other watery diarrhoeas by its sheer volume and by the absence of fever and abdominal pain; the clinical picture is characteristic once seen
- Vibrio dies rapidly in ordinary transport, so use Cary-Blair or alkaline peptone water and inform the laboratory, or the culture will be falsely negative
- Hypoglycaemia is a cause of death in children with cholera and must be anticipated and treated, since it is easily missed behind the dehydration
- Oral cholera vaccine is a supplement, not a substitute, and is most useful in outbreak control and in displaced populations where sanitation cannot be provided quickly
- Cholera follows the breakdown of infrastructure — floods, displacement, conflict — which is why its appearance is as much a signal about water supply as about microbiology
- Chlorinate the water and disinfect excreta around a case; the organism is killed readily by chlorine, drying and heat, so control measures are simple where they can be applied
- O139 emerged as a genuinely new epidemic strain in 1992 from the Bay of Bengal, infecting people already immune to O1 — a reminder that immunity to cholera is serogroup-specific
General Features of the Neisseriae
- Gram-negative diplococci with adjacent flattened sides, giving a kidney or coffee-bean shape
- Oxidase positive and catalase positive — the oxidase test is the rapid presumptive identification
- Fastidious and delicate — they require enriched media (chocolate agar), a capnophilic atmosphere of 5 to 10% carbon dioxide, and are killed rapidly by drying, cold and sunlight. Specimens must therefore be plated immediately or sent in transport medium; they must never be refrigerated
- THAYER-MARTIN (or modified New York City) medium is chocolate agar made selective with vancomycin, colistin and nystatin, for isolation from sites with normal flora
- Sugar utilisation — meningococcus ferments glucose and maltose; gonococcus ferments glucose only
Neisseria Meningitidis
- Capsulated; serogroups A, B, C, W, X and Y cause nearly all disease. Group A caused the African "meningitis belt" epidemics; B and C predominate in Europe; A, B and C occur in India
- Man is the only reservoir; carriage in the nasopharynx is common (5 to 10%, higher in crowded conditions) and is usually harmless — disease is the exception, not the rule
- Transmission by respiratory droplets, favoured by crowding — hostels, barracks, pilgrimages and mass gatherings
- Clinical forms — meningitis (fever, headache, neck stiffness, photophobia, altered consciousness); meningococcaemia with a petechial and purpuric rash that does not blanch; and fulminant waterhouse-friderichsen syndrome — shock with bilateral adrenal haemorrhage and disseminated intravascular coagulation, which may kill within hours
- Complement deficiency of the terminal components (C5–C9) and asplenia predispose to recurrent meningococcal disease and should be sought after a second episode
- Diagnosis — lumbar puncture with Gram stain (gram-negative diplococci, often intracellular), culture of cerebrospinal fluid and blood, latex antigen detection and PCR (which remains positive after antibiotics)
- Treatment — ceftriaxone or benzylpenicillin, given immediately; in suspected meningococcal sepsis with a rash, the first dose should be given before transfer and before lumbar puncture
- Chemoprophylaxis of close contacts — rifampicin, ciprofloxacin or ceftriaxone, given promptly; and conjugate vaccines (ACWY and protein-based MenB), with vaccination required for Haj pilgrims
CLINICAL PEARL
A non-blanching rash in a febrile patient is a medical emergency, and waiting for confirmation costs lives. Meningococcal sepsis can progress from a well child to death in under twelve hours, and the petechiae represent bleeding into the skin from established disseminated intravascular coagulation. The first dose of antibiotic must be given at once — before transfer, before imaging and before lumbar puncture. A blood culture and PCR taken afterwards will usually still establish the diagnosis.
Neisseria Gonorrhoeae
- Non-capsulated; virulence depends on pili (adhesion, and antigenically highly variable), Opa proteins, IgA protease, and endotoxin. Antigenic variation of the pili is why infection confers NO lasting immunity and reinfection is common
- Transmission is almost exclusively sexual, and vertically at delivery; the organism does not survive outside the body
- In men — acute urethritis 2 to 5 days after exposure with purulent discharge and dysuria; complications are epididymo-orchitis, prostatitis and urethral stricture
- In women — frequently asymptomatic or mild (cervicitis, discharge), which is why it goes untreated and progresses to pelvic inflammatory disease with infertility, ectopic pregnancy and chronic pelvic pain. Perihepatitis (Fitz-Hugh-Curtis syndrome) may occur
- Ophthalmia neonatorum — acquired during passage through an infected birth canal; a purulent conjunctivitis within 2 to 5 days that rapidly causes corneal ulceration and blindness if untreated
- Disseminated gonococcal infection — fever, pustular skin lesions, tenosynovitis and migratory arthritis; associated with terminal complement deficiency
- Diagnosis — a Gram stain of urethral pus showing intracellular gram-negative diplococci within polymorphs is diagnostic in symptomatic men but insufficient in women; culture on Thayer-Martin with immediate plating; and nucleic acid amplification tests, which are now the most sensitive and can be done on urine
- Treatment — ceftriaxone intramuscularly, usually with azithromycin; resistance has developed to sulphonamides, penicillin, tetracyclines and fluoroquinolones in turn, and reduced cephalosporin susceptibility is now reported, so surveillance is essential
Comparison of the Two Pathogenic Neisseriae
| Feature | N. Meningitidis | N. Gonorrhoeae |
|---|---|---|
| Capsule | Present — the basis of serogrouping and of the vaccines | Absent — which is a major reason no effective vaccine exists |
| Sugars fermented | Glucose and maltose | Glucose only |
| Normal habitat | Nasopharynx — carriage in 5–10% of healthy people | Never a commensal — its isolation always means infection |
| Transmission | Respiratory droplets | Sexual contact, and vertically at delivery |
| Chief disease | Meningitis and meningococcaemia | Urethritis, cervicitis, pelvic inflammatory disease, ophthalmia neonatorum |
| Immunity after infection | Group-specific and lasting | None — pilus antigenic variation permits repeated reinfection |
| Vaccine | Conjugate ACWY and protein-based MenB | None available |
| Prophylaxis of contacts | Rifampicin, ciprofloxacin or ceftriaxone | Treat sexual partners |
Prevention and Applied Aspects
- Treat the sexual partners and screen for other sexually transmitted infections, particularly chlamydia, syphilis and HIV; co-infection with chlamydia is common, which is why dual therapy is given
- Syndromic management is used in India where laboratory facilities are limited, treating urethral or vaginal discharge for both gonococcus and chlamydia at the first visit
- Prevent ophthalmia neonatorum with prophylactic eye care at birth and by treating maternal infection antenatally; blindness from this cause is entirely preventable
- Any purulent conjunctivitis in the first week of life is gonococcal until proved otherwise, and requires systemic treatment, not merely drops
- Give the first antibiotic dose in suspected meningococcal disease before transfer; this single practice has measurably reduced mortality
- Investigate recurrent neisserial infection for terminal complement deficiency, and vaccinate such patients — a small group in whom a simple test changes lifelong management
- Plate gonococcal and meningococcal specimens immediately and never refrigerate them; the organisms are delicate, and a negative culture from a properly infected patient is usually a transport failure
- Vaccinate Haj and Umrah pilgrims against meningococcus, which is a requirement for entry and has prevented outbreaks associated with mass gatherings
- Gonorrhoea is often asymptomatic in women, so partner notification and treatment matter more than symptoms; the sequelae are borne almost entirely by women
- Gonococcal resistance has advanced through every drug class in turn, and there is now real concern about untreatable gonorrhoea; culture with sensitivities should be preserved wherever possible rather than relying only on molecular tests
- Do not delay the lumbar puncture beyond the antibiotic in suspected meningococcal disease — but equally, do not delay the antibiotic for the lumbar puncture; PCR and blood culture will usually still yield the diagnosis
- Look for the rash with the patient undressed and in good light, and use the tumbler test; early petechiae are sparse and easily missed on pigmented skin
- Meningococcal carriage is common and usually harmless, so throat swabbing of contacts is not useful; prophylaxis is given on the basis of exposure, not of carriage
- Give prophylaxis to close contacts within 24 hours — household members, those sharing a dormitory, and anyone with direct exposure to respiratory secretions including staff who intubated the patient
- Ceftriaxone is the preferred prophylaxis in pregnancy, since ciprofloxacin and rifampicin are avoided; and rifampicin reduces the effectiveness of oral contraceptives, which must be mentioned
- Screen for other sexually transmitted infections whenever one is found, and offer HIV testing with counselling; single-infection thinking misses the commonest pattern
- Ophthalmia neonatorum requires systemic treatment, not merely topical; and both parents must be examined and treated
- Chlamydial ophthalmia appears later than gonococcal — at 5 to 14 days rather than 2 to 5 — which is a useful clinical discriminator while awaiting laboratory confirmation
- Disseminated gonococcal infection presents as arthritis and skin lesions rather than as urethritis, and the genital infection may be silent, so it is regularly mistaken for a reactive or septic arthritis
- Meningococcal vaccines do not cover group B well in most formulations, because its capsule resembles human neural tissue; protein-based vaccines were developed specifically to solve that problem
Haemophilus Influenzae
- A small, pleomorphic, gram-negative coccobacillus, non-motile, non-sporing; fastidious
- Requires X and V factors — X is haemin and V is NAD. Both are released when blood is heated, which is why it grows on chocolate agar but not on plain blood agar
- Satellitism — on blood agar it grows only as tiny colonies close to a streak of Staphylococcus aureus, which supplies V factor by lysing the red cells; a simple and characteristic identification test
- Capsulated strains are typed a to f; type b (Hib), with a polyribosyl ribitol phosphate capsule, causes almost all invasive disease. Non-capsulated (non-typeable) strains cause mucosal infection
- Diseases — meningitis in unvaccinated children aged 3 months to 3 years; acute epiglottitis, a paediatric emergency in which examination of the throat may precipitate complete obstruction; pneumonia; septic arthritis; cellulitis; and, from non-typeable strains, otitis media, sinusitis and exacerbations of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
- Prevention — the Hib conjugate vaccine, included in the pentavalent vaccine in India, has almost eliminated invasive disease where coverage is good. Rifampicin prophylaxis for household contacts
CLINICAL PEARL
Haemophilus grows beside a staphylococcal streak and nowhere else on the plate, and the reason is nutritional rather than mysterious. It cannot make its own NAD (V factor), and intact red cells keep theirs locked inside. S. Aureus lyses the surrounding red cells and releases it, so a narrow zone of growth appears around the streak — satellitism. The same logic explains chocolate agar: heating the blood does the lysis in advance.
Bordetella Pertussis
- A small gram-negative coccobacillus, strictly aerobic and highly fastidious
- BORDET-GENGOU medium (potato, glycerol and blood, with penicillin to suppress other flora) gives characteristic "mercury drop" colonies; charcoal-cephalexin agar is now preferred
- Virulence factors — pertussis toxin (which ADP-ribosylates the inhibitory Gi protein, so adenylate cyclase is disinhibited and cAMP rises — the mirror image of cholera toxin); filamentous haemagglutinin and pertactin (adhesion); tracheal cytotoxin, which destroys ciliated epithelium and is responsible for the cough; and adenylate cyclase toxin
- Clinical course of whooping cough — a catarrhal stage of 1 to 2 weeks resembling a coryza, which is the most infectious period and the one in which the diagnosis is not made; then the paroxysmal stage of 2 to 6 weeks with bouts of coughing ending in an inspiratory whoop and vomiting, and a marked absolute lymphocytosis; then a convalescent stage over weeks to months (the "hundred-day cough")
- Infants under 6 months may have apnoea and cyanosis without a whoop, and account for nearly all deaths
- Diagnosis — a per-nasal swab (not a throat swab) for culture or PCR, which is now the test of choice; serology late in the illness
- Treatment and prevention — a macrolide (azithromycin), which reduces transmission but alters the illness little once paroxysms have begun; prophylaxis for household contacts; and vaccination with whole-cell (in DPT and pentavalent vaccine in India) or acellular vaccine. Maternal immunisation in pregnancy protects the newborn through transplacental IgG before the infant's own course begins
Brucella
- Small, non-motile, gram-negative coccobacilli; strict aerobes, some requiring extra carbon dioxide; slow-growing, requiring prolonged incubation of up to 4 weeks — so the laboratory must be warned or cultures will be discarded as negative
- An intracellular pathogen surviving within macrophages, which explains the chronicity, the granulomatous response and the need for prolonged intracellular antibiotics
- Species and hosts — B. Melitensis (goats and sheep; the most virulent for man), B. Abortus (cattle), B. Suis (pigs), B. Canis (dogs)
- A zoonosis acquired from unpasteurised milk and milk products, or by direct contact with infected animals, placentas and aborted material — an occupational disease of farmers, veterinarians, abattoir workers and laboratory staff
- Clinical features — undulant fever with drenching sweats having a characteristic odour, malaise, weight loss, arthralgia and back pain; hepatosplenomegaly and lymphadenopathy; sacroiliitis and spondylitis; orchitis; endocarditis (the chief cause of death); and neurobrucellosis
- Diagnosis — blood and bone marrow culture with prolonged incubation; standard agglutination test with a fourfold rise; 2-mercaptoethanol test to detect IgG in chronic infection; and PCR. Brucella is a leading cause of laboratory-acquired infection, so it must be handled at BSL-3
- Treatment — doxycycline with rifampicin for 6 weeks, or doxycycline with streptomycin or gentamicin; combination therapy is essential and monotherapy leads to relapse
Comparison of the Three Genera
| Feature | Haemophilus | Bordetella | Brucella |
|---|---|---|---|
| Growth requirement | X (haemin) and V (NAD) factors — chocolate agar | Bordet-Gengou or charcoal-cephalexin agar | Ordinary media but slow; some need extra CO2 |
| Incubation of culture | 24–48 hours | 3–7 days | Up to 4 weeks — the laboratory must be told |
| Reservoir | Human nasopharynx | Human only | Animals — a zoonosis |
| Transmission | Droplet | Droplet, highly infectious | Unpasteurised milk, animal contact, and by aerosol in the laboratory |
| Key toxin or factor | Type b polysaccharide capsule | Pertussis toxin (ADP-ribosylates inhibitory Gi) and tracheal cytotoxin | Intracellular survival in macrophages |
| Characteristic finding | Satellitism around S. Aureus | Absolute lymphocytosis | Undulant fever with sacroiliitis |
| Vaccine | Hib conjugate (in pentavalent) | Whole-cell or acellular (in DPT) | None for man; animal vaccination is the control |
Applied Aspects
- Do not examine the throat in suspected epiglottitis; a child sitting forward, drooling and unable to swallow needs a controlled airway in theatre, and inspection may precipitate fatal obstruction
- Suspect pertussis in a prolonged cough, including in adolescents and adults whose immunity has waned; they are the reservoir from which unimmunised infants are infected, and the diagnosis is regularly missed
- Immunise pregnant women against pertussis, which protects the infant during the vulnerable weeks before the primary course takes effect
- Ask about unpasteurised milk and animal contact in prolonged fever; brucellosis is under-diagnosed in India, where raw milk consumption is common, and it is frequently treated as tuberculosis or as a fever of unknown origin
- Warn the laboratory when brucellosis is suspected — both to ensure prolonged incubation and to protect staff, since it is among the commonest laboratory-acquired infections
- Treat brucellosis with a combination for at least 6 weeks; incomplete or single-drug treatment produces relapse and chronic disease that is far harder to cure
- Hib disease has become uncommon where vaccination coverage is good, and epiglottitis is now rare in vaccinated populations — but it persists where coverage is patchy, so it must remain in mind
- A per-nasal swab, not a throat swab, is required for pertussis; the wrong specimen is a common reason for a negative result
- Pertussis is most infectious in the catarrhal stage, before anyone suspects it, which is why household prophylaxis is offered as soon as a case is identified
- Brucella endocarditis is the chief cause of death and usually requires valve replacement in addition to prolonged antibiotics
- Pasteurisation of milk prevents brucellosis, tuberculosis and Q fever together, which is why raw milk consumption remains a genuine public health issue in India
- Consider pertussis in an infant with apnoea or cyanosis and no whoop; the classical picture is a feature of older children, and infants under 6 months account for nearly all the deaths
- Ask about occupation in unexplained fever — abattoir work, veterinary practice, dairy farming and laboratory work each point toward specific organisms that routine investigation will not find
- Haemophilus grows only on chocolate agar, so a request for cerebrospinal fluid or respiratory culture should say what is suspected if the organism is to be isolated at all
- Brucellosis is frequently mistaken for tuberculosis in India, since both cause prolonged fever, weight loss and spinal disease; the treatments differ entirely, and the milk and animal contact history is what separates them
- Haemophilus ducreyi causes chancroid, a painful genital ulcer with suppurating inguinal nodes, distinguishing it from the painless chancre of syphilis
- Whole-cell pertussis vaccine is more reactogenic but gives longer protection than the acellular form; India uses the whole-cell vaccine, and the resurgence of pertussis in countries using acellular vaccine is relevant to that choice
- Consider Brucella in culture-negative endocarditis, along with Coxiella, Bartonella and the HACEK organisms; all require the laboratory to be told and to incubate for longer
- Vaccinate before splenectomy against Haemophilus, pneumococcus and meningococcus, all three being capsulated organisms cleared by the spleen
- Brucella agglutinin titres remain raised long after cure, so a single positive result does not prove active disease and follow-up is judged clinically rather than serologically
- Bordetella parapertussis causes a milder similar illness not prevented by the pertussis vaccine, which explains some apparent vaccine failures
- Immunity to pertussis wanes after about a decade from both vaccination and natural infection, so adolescents and adults sustain transmission and boosters are increasingly recommended
The Organism and Classification
- Gram-negative bacilli that are non-motile, non-capsulated and non-lactose fermenting (except S. Sonnei, a late fermenter); non-H2S-producing and anaerogenic (no gas)
- Non-motility is the useful contrast with Salmonella, which is motile
- Man is the only natural host, and there is no animal reservoir
- The infecting dose is remarkably small — as few as 10 to 100 organisms, because Shigella resists gastric acid. This is why it spreads readily by person-to-person contact and causes institutional outbreaks, unlike cholera or typhoid which need a large inoculum
| Species | Group | Features |
|---|---|---|
| S. Dysenteriae | A | The most severe; produces SHIGA toxin; type 1 causes epidemics with high mortality and haemolytic uraemic syndrome |
| S. Flexneri | B | The commonest cause of endemic shigellosis in INDIA and other developing countries |
| S. BOYDII | C | Uncommon; largely confined to the Indian subcontinent |
| S. Sonnei | D | The mildest; the predominant species in industrialised countries; a late lactose fermenter |
Pathogenesis
A small inoculum survives gastric acid and reaches the colon → Organisms invade the M cells overlying lymphoid follicles → They are taken up by macrophages, induce apoptosis and escape into the cytoplasm → They spread laterally from cell to cell using actin polymerisation, without entering the lumen → Intense acute inflammation, mucosal ulceration and microabscesses in the colon → The infection remains superficial and localised to the mucosa — bacteraemia is rare → SHIGA toxin (chiefly S. Dysenteriae type 1) inhibits protein synthesis by cleaving 28S ribosomal RNA, damaging endothelium and causing haemolytic uraemic syndrome
CLINICAL PEARL
Shigella causes a severe illness while barely leaving the mucosa, which is why blood cultures are negative and stool cultures are essential. The organism spreads cell to cell through the epithelium and does not invade the bloodstream, so all the damage is local. The blood and mucus in the stool come from ulcerated colonic mucosa, not from systemic spread — and the volume lost is small, which is why dehydration is less prominent than in cholera despite the patient looking far more unwell.
Clinical Features and Diagnosis
- Incubation 1 to 4 days; begins with watery diarrhoea and fever, then evolves into dysentery — frequent small-volume stools containing blood, mucus and pus, with cramping abdominal pain and painful ineffectual straining (tenesmus)
- Complications — dehydration and electrolyte loss; haemolytic uraemic syndrome; febrile convulsions in children; toxic megacolon and perforation; rectal prolapse; protein-losing enteropathy and malnutrition; and reactive arthritis
- Specimen — fresh stool, ideally with blood or mucus, or a rectal swab, sent in buffered glycerol saline or Cary-Blair; the organism dies quickly, so prompt plating is essential
- Microscopy shows abundant pus cells, red cells and macrophages
- Culture on MacConkey and DCA or XLD agar, with colourless colonies; identified biochemically and by slide agglutination with group-specific antisera
Treatment, Prevention and Applied Aspects
- Rehydration — oral rehydration solution usually suffices, since fluid loss is less than in cholera
- Antibiotics are indicated in shigellosis, unlike most other bacterial diarrhoeas — they shorten the illness, reduce complications and limit transmission. ciprofloxacin, ceftriaxone or azithromycin, guided by local resistance, which is now extensive in India
- Avoid antimotility drugs such as loperamide; they prolong fever, delay clearance and may precipitate toxic megacolon
- Zinc and continued feeding in children, which reduce duration and prevent the nutritional deterioration that follows
- Prevention — handwashing is the key measure, because the infecting dose is so small that person-to-person spread dominates; also safe water, sanitation, food hygiene, exclusion of infected food handlers, and fly control
- Distinguish bacillary from amoebic dysentery — bacillary is acute with fever and numerous pus cells; amoebic is more insidious, with fewer pus cells, charcot-Leyden crystals and motile trophozoites containing red cells. The treatments differ entirely, and both are common in India
Klebsiella
- Gram-negative bacilli that are non-motile and prominently capsulated, producing large, dome-shaped, mucoid colonies that string out when touched with a loop
- Lactose fermenter — pink colonies on MacConkey; IMViC ––++ (indole and methyl red negative, Voges-Proskauer and citrate positive), the mirror image of E. Coli
- K. Pneumoniae — causes friedlander pneumonia, a severe necrotising upper-lobe pneumonia with thick "redcurrant jelly" sputum, abscess formation and a bulging fissure, classically in alcoholics and diabetics; also urinary infection, wound infection, bacteraemia and, importantly, hospital-acquired infection including ventilator-associated pneumonia
- Hypervirulent (hypermucoviscous) strains cause pyogenic liver abscess with metastatic spread to eye and brain, including in previously healthy people
- K. Pneumoniae is a leading producer of ESBL and carbapenemases (including NDM-1, first described from an Indian isolate), and is among the most important multidrug-resistant hospital pathogens in India
- Other species — K. Rhinoscleromatis causes rhinoscleroma, a chronic granulomatous nasal disease seen in India; K. Ozaenae causes atrophic rhinitis with a foul odour
Proteus
- Gram-negative bacilli, actively motile, non-lactose fermenting
- Swarming — spreads in successive concentric waves over the whole surface of a blood agar plate, overgrowing other organisms; prevented by adding increased agar concentration, chloral hydrate, or by using MacConkey agar, on which bile salts inhibit swarming
- Characteristic fishy or "burnt chocolate" odour
- Strongly urease positive — the crucial property
- Phenylalanine deaminase positive; H2S producing
- WEIL-FELIX reaction — certain non-motile Proteus strains (OX-19, OX-2, OX-K) share antigens with rickettsiae, so patient serum agglutinates them; a cheap but non-specific test for rickettsial infection including scrub typhus, still used in resource-limited settings in India
- Diseases — urinary tract infection (especially catheter-related and complicated), wound and burn infection, bacteraemia
CLINICAL PEARL
Urease is why Proteus makes stones, and the stones are why the infection cannot be cured with antibiotics alone. Urease splits urea into ammonia, making the urine alkaline, which precipitates magnesium ammonium phosphate to form staghorn (struvite) calculi. Organisms then live within the stone where no drug reaches them, so the infection relapses indefinitely until the stone is removed. The same enzyme explains why an alkaline urine with recurrent infection should prompt imaging.
Other Enterobacteriaceae
| Organism | Features |
|---|---|
| Enterobacter | Motile lactose fermenter; important in hospital infection; carries inducible AmpC beta-lactamase, so it may appear sensitive to cephalosporins in vitro and then fail in vivo as resistance is induced during treatment |
| Serratia marcescens | Produces a red pigment (prodigiosin); causes hospital-acquired infection, and is notably resistant |
| Citrobacter | Late lactose fermenter; neonatal meningitis with brain abscess |
| Morganella, Providencia | Urease positive; urinary and hospital infection |
| Yersinia enterocolitica | Grows at 4°C (cold enrichment); causes mesenteric adenitis mimicking appendicitis ("pseudo-appendicitis"), and terminal ileitis |
Applied Aspects
- Suspect Klebsiella in a severe necrotising pneumonia in a diabetic or alcoholic, particularly with an upper-lobe cavity and thick blood-stained sputum
- Image the urinary tract in Proteus infection, and look for stones; eradication requires their removal, and antibiotics alone will not succeed
- Suspect a struvite stone when the urine is persistently alkaline with recurrent infection by a urease-producing organism
- Remove or change the catheter in catheter-associated infection; biofilm on the device sustains the organism regardless of the antibiotic
- Do not report a swarming Proteus as a pure growth without care; it overgrows and may conceal a second, more significant pathogen on the plate
- Multidrug-resistant Klebsiella is a major problem in Indian intensive care units, and its control depends on hand hygiene, device care and stewardship rather than on newer antibiotics, of which there are few
The Organism
- A gram-negative bacillus, actively motile by a single polar flagellum, non-sporing, strictly aerobic
- Oxidase positive and a non-fermenter — it oxidises rather than ferments sugars, which separates it at once from the Enterobacteriaceae
- Pigments — pyocyanin (blue-green, and unique to this species), pyoverdin/fluorescein (yellow-green, fluorescent), pyorubin (red) and pyomelanin (brown); the combination gives infected dressings a characteristic blue-green discolouration
- A sweet, fruity, "grape-like" odour from aminoacetophenone
- Grows at 42°C, which distinguishes it from other pseudomonads; produces a metallic sheen and beta-haemolysis
- Minimal nutritional requirements — it survives and multiplies in distilled water, disinfectant solutions, sinks, ventilator tubing, humidifiers, nebulisers, eye drops and flower vases, which is the basis of its role in hospital infection
Virulence and Resistance
- Adhesins — pili and a mucoid alginate slime, which forms a biofilm; the mucoid phenotype is characteristic of chronic infection in cystic fibrosis and is essentially impossible to eradicate
- Exotoxin A — inhibits protein synthesis by ADP-ribosylating elongation factor 2, exactly as diphtheria toxin does
- Elastase, proteases, phospholipase C and pyocyanin — tissue destruction and oxidative damage; exoenzymes S and U delivered by a type III secretion system
- Endotoxin — gram-negative sepsis
- Intrinsic resistance is its defining clinical feature — a relatively impermeable outer membrane with restrictive porins, constitutive and inducible efflux pumps, an inducible AmpC beta-lactamase, and a great capacity to acquire further resistance during treatment
CLINICAL PEARL
Pseudomonas is a hospital pathogen because it needs almost nothing to live. It multiplies in distilled water, in disinfectant solutions, in sink traps and in ventilator humidifiers — environments that would starve most bacteria. Combined with intrinsic resistance to most antibiotics, this means it occupies precisely the niche that antibiotic use and intensive care create: it colonises the sickest patients on the broadest therapy, in the wettest parts of the ward.
Clinical Infections
| Site | Setting |
|---|---|
| Burns and wounds | The classic infection — blue-green pus, and a leading cause of death in extensive burns |
| Respiratory | Ventilator-associated pneumonia; chronic infection in cystic fibrosis and bronchiectasis, where the mucoid strain persists lifelong |
| Urinary tract | Catheter-associated and after instrumentation |
| Eye | Rapidly destructive keratitis in contact lens wearers and after corneal injury — it can perforate the cornea within 48 hours |
| Ear | "Swimmer's ear" (otitis externa); malignant otitis externa in elderly diabetics, invading the skull base |
| Bloodstream | Bacteraemia in neutropenic patients, with the characteristic necrotic skin lesion ecthyma gangrenosum |
| Other | Endocarditis and osteomyelitis in injecting drug users; hot-tub folliculitis; osteomyelitis after a nail puncture through a shoe |
Treatment and Applied Aspects
- Antipseudomonal agents — piperacillin-tazobactam, ceftazidime, cefepime, carbapenems (not ertapenem, which has no antipseudomonal activity), aztreonam, ciprofloxacin, aminoglycosides, colistin, and newer agents such as ceftazidime-avibactam and ceftolozane-tazobactam
- Combination therapy is often used empirically in severe infection to ensure at least one active drug, and is then narrowed once sensitivities are known
- Remember that ordinary cephalosporins, ampicillin, co-amoxiclav and ertapenem have NO activity; assuming "broad-spectrum" cover includes Pseudomonas is a frequent and serious error
- Prevention is environmental — hand hygiene, care of ventilator circuits and humidifiers, avoiding standing water, sterile technique with catheters, and removing devices as soon as possible
- Warn contact lens wearers not to use tap water or homemade saline and not to sleep in lenses; pseudomonal keratitis can destroy an eye within days and is entirely preventable
- Suspect malignant otitis externa in a diabetic with severe ear pain and granulation tissue; it requires prolonged systemic treatment and imaging, not ear drops
The Organism
- A gram-negative, curved or S-shaped (spiral) bacillus with multiple sheathed polar flagella giving rapid corkscrew motility through mucus
- Microaerophilic; slow-growing and fastidious
- Strongly urease positive — the central property, and the basis of both its survival and almost every test used to detect it
- Also oxidase and catalase positive
- Colonises the gastric antrum, living in the mucus layer adjacent to the epithelium rather than invading it
- Prevalence exceeds 70% in India, acquired in childhood by the faecal-oral or oral-oral route, and associated with crowding and poor sanitation
- Urease splits urea into ammonia and carbon dioxide → Ammonia neutralises gastric acid in the immediate surroundings → The organism survives the most hostile environment in the body and burrows through mucus using its flagella → It adheres to gastric epithelium
- CagA and VacA are injected or secreted, causing cell injury → Chronic active gastritis → Depending on the pattern — antral gastritis raises acid and causes duodenal ulcer
- body-predominant gastritis causes atrophy, reduces acid and predisposes to gastric ulcer and carcinoma
CLINICAL PEARL
The enzyme that lets it survive is the enzyme that betrays it. urease is what allows H. Pylori to neutralise acid and colonise the stomach — and it is also the basis of the rapid urease test, the urea breath test and the histological stains. A single adaptation is simultaneously the organism's survival mechanism and the most convenient diagnostic handle available.
Associated Diseases
- Chronic gastritis — in essentially all colonised individuals, though most remain asymptomatic
- Peptic ulcer — associated with over 90% of duodenal ulcers and about 70% of gastric ulcers; eradication cures the ulcer disease and prevents recurrence, which transformed a chronic relapsing surgical condition into a curable infection
- Gastric adenocarcinoma — classified by the WHO as a group 1 carcinogen; the sequence runs chronic gastritis, atrophy, intestinal metaplasia, dysplasia, carcinoma
- Gastric malt lymphoma — remarkably, low-grade disease frequently regresses with eradication alone, without chemotherapy; a unique example of an antibiotic curing a malignancy
- Other associations — unexplained iron deficiency anaemia and immune thrombocytopenia, in which eradication is recommended
Diagnosis
| Test | Type | Comment |
|---|---|---|
| Rapid urease test (CLO test) | Invasive — on biopsy | Biopsy placed in urea with an indicator; a colour change within minutes to hours. Rapid and cheap |
| Histology | Invasive | Giemsa, Warthin-Starry or immunostain; also shows gastritis, atrophy, metaplasia and malignancy |
| Culture | Invasive | Difficult and slow, but the only way to obtain antibiotic sensitivities |
| Urea breath test | Non-invasive — the test of choice | Labelled urea is swallowed; urease releases labelled CO2 in the breath. Detects active infection and is the preferred test of eradication |
| Stool antigen | Non-invasive | Detects active infection; useful in children and for confirming cure |
| Serology (IgG) | Non-invasive | Cannot distinguish current from past infection and remains positive after successful treatment, so it must not be used to confirm eradication |
- Proton pump inhibitors, antibiotics and bismuth cause false negatives and must be stopped — antibiotics and bismuth for 4 weeks, and proton pump inhibitors for 2 weeks — before breath, stool, urease or histological testing
Treatment and Applied Aspects
- Standard triple therapy — a proton pump inhibitor with clarithromycin and amoxicillin (or metronidazole) for 14 days
- Quadruple therapy — proton pump inhibitor, bismuth, tetracycline and metronidazole, used where clarithromycin resistance is high, which now includes much of India
- Acid suppression is part of the treatment, not merely symptomatic: the antibiotics work far better at a higher gastric pH
- Confirm eradication at least 4 weeks after treatment by urea breath test or stool antigen — never by serology
- Resistance is rising rapidly in India, particularly to clarithromycin and metronidazole, largely from their widespread use for other indications; this is shifting practice towards quadruple and sequential regimens
- Do not test and treat indiscriminately; test those with peptic ulcer, malt lymphoma, a family history of gastric cancer, unexplained iron deficiency, or requiring long-term NSAIDs — eradicating in every dyspeptic patient drives resistance without proportionate benefit
The Problem
ESBLs (extended-spectrum beta-lactamases) and carbapenemases are enzymes produced by gram-negative bacilli that hydrolyse successively broader ranges of beta-lactam antibiotics, and are the principal cause of untreatable gram-negative infection.
| Ambler class | Enzymes | Substrates and inhibition |
|---|---|---|
| Class A | TEM, SHV, CTX-M (the commonest ESBL worldwide and in India); KPC (a carbapenemase) | ESBLs hydrolyse penicillins, and third- and fourth-generation cephalosporins and aztreonam — but not carbapenems or cephamycins. Inhibited by clavulanate and tazobactam, which is the basis of their detection |
| Class B — metallo-beta-lactamases | NDM-1 (New Delhi metallo-beta-lactamase), VIM, IMP | Hydrolyse carbapenems and almost all other beta-lactams; require zinc, so they are inhibited by EDTA but not by clavulanate or avibactam. Aztreonam is stable to them, which is therapeutically useful |
| Class C — AmpC | Chromosomal (Enterobacter, Citrobacter, Serratia, Pseudomonas) or plasmid-mediated | Hydrolyse cephalosporins including cephamycins; not inhibited by clavulanate. Often inducible, so the organism appears sensitive in vitro and resistance emerges during treatment |
| Class D | OXA-48 and relatives | Carbapenemases, common in Acinetobacter; variable inhibition |
CLINICAL PEARL
An ESBL-producing organism may test sensitive to a cephalosporin in the laboratory and still fail the patient. The enzyme hydrolyses the drug slowly enough that a disc test can look acceptable, but at the higher organism density of a real infection the drug is destroyed. This is why laboratories report ESBL producers as resistant to all cephalosporins regardless of the measured zone — the in-vitro result is a poor predictor of what happens in a patient.
Detection
- ESBL screening — reduced susceptibility to ceftazidime, cefotaxime or ceftriaxone on routine testing
- ESBL confirmation — the double-disc synergy test or combined disc test, in which the zone around a cephalosporin is enlarged by 5 mm or more when clavulanate is added, demonstrating inhibition of the enzyme
- AmpC detection — cefoxitin resistance with no clavulanate synergy
- Carbapenemase detection — the modified carbapenem inactivation method (mCIM); the EDTA combined disc test identifies metallo-enzymes; and molecular detection of blaNDM, blaKPC, blaOXA-48
- Report ESBL producers as resistant to all penicillins, cephalosporins and aztreonam, whatever the individual zone sizes suggest
Treatment Options
- ESBL producers — carbapenems are the drugs of choice in serious infection; piperacillin-tazobactam may suffice in uncomplicated urinary infection; and for cystitis, nitrofurantoin or fosfomycin are useful oral options that spare carbapenems
- Carbapenemase producers — options are few: colistin (polymyxin E), which is nephrotoxic and neurotoxic and had been abandoned before its revival; tigecycline (but not for bacteraemia or urinary infection, since serum and urinary levels are low); fosfomycin; aminoglycosides where sensitive; and newer agents such as ceftazidime-avibactam (effective against KPC and OXA-48 but not against metallo-enzymes such as NDM), ceftazidime-avibactam with aztreonam for NDM producers, meropenem-vaborbactam and cefiderocol
- Combination therapy is often used, and treatment should be guided by the specific enzyme where it can be identified
Control and Applied Aspects
- India has among the highest rates of carbapenem resistance in the world, driven by over-the-counter antibiotic sale, unregulated use, incomplete courses, and environmental and agricultural contamination; NDM-1 was first characterised from an isolate acquired in India
- Antimicrobial stewardship — restricting carbapenems, de-escalating once sensitivities are known, shortening courses, and using narrow agents wherever possible
- Infection control — hand hygiene, contact precautions, screening and cohorting of colonised patients, and environmental cleaning; these organisms spread clonally within units
- Distinguish colonisation from infection; a resistant organism in a catheter urine or a wound swab from a well patient usually needs no treatment, and treating it exhausts the few remaining drugs
- Use local antibiograms for empirical therapy rather than textbook spectra, since resistance patterns differ sharply between hospitals and even between wards
- Schedule H1 and the National Action Plan on AMR are the regulatory response in India, restricting over-the-counter sale of key antibiotics; their effectiveness depends on enforcement and on prescriber behaviour
- Colistin was abandoned for toxicity and revived out of necessity, which is a clear signal of how far options have narrowed; its use in animal feed has since been banned in India for precisely this reason
Campylobacter
- Campylobacter jejuni — a gram-negative, curved, S-shaped or "seagull wing" bacillus with a single polar flagellum and rapid darting motility
- Microaerophilic (requiring 5% oxygen and 10% carbon dioxide) and thermophilic, growing optimally at 42°C — which is exploited for selective isolation on skirrow or Campy-BAP medium incubated at that temperature
- Oxidase positive
- A zoonosis — the reservoir is poultry above all, and also cattle, unpasteurised milk and contaminated water; it is one of the commonest causes of bacterial diarrhoea worldwide
- Clinical features — a prodrome of fever and malaise, then severe cramping abdominal pain which may mimic appendicitis, followed by diarrhoea that is often bloody. Usually self-limiting over a week
- The important complication is guillain-BARRÉ syndrome, arising through molecular mimicry between campylobacter lipo-oligosaccharide and peripheral nerve gangliosides; C. Jejuni is the commonest identified antecedent infection. Reactive arthritis may also follow
- Treatment — rehydration; azithromycin if severe or prolonged, since fluoroquinolone resistance is now widespread from their use in poultry farming
CLINICAL PEARL
Campylobacter is a leading cause of Guillain-Barré syndrome, and the link is a chance resemblance. Its surface lipo-oligosaccharide happens to mimic human nerve gangliosides, so antibody raised against a diarrhoeal infection attacks peripheral nerve. The gut illness may be trivial or already forgotten when the weakness begins — which is why an ascending paralysis warrants asking specifically about diarrhoea in the preceding weeks.
Yersinia
| Species | Disease and features |
|---|---|
| Y. Pestis — plague | Non-motile, showing bipolar ("safety pin") staining with Giemsa or Wayson stain. A zoonosis of rodents transmitted by the rat flea (Xenopsylla cheopis), in which a blocked proventriculus makes the flea regurgitate and feed repeatedly. bubonic plague gives a painful suppurating lymph node (the bubo) with fever; septicaemic plague gives shock and gangrene ("black death"); pneumonic plague is transmitted person TO person by droplets, is rapidly fatal, and is the form of greatest public health concern. Treated with streptomycin, gentamicin or doxycycline; notifiable internationally, and a category A bioterrorism agent |
| Y. Enterocolitica | Grows at 4°C, so cold enrichment is used and it multiplies in refrigerated food. Causes enterocolitis, and mesenteric adenitis with terminal ileitis producing "pseudo-appendicitis" — a well-recognised cause of a normal appendix at operation. Also reactive arthritis and erythema nodosum. Iron overload (as in thalassaemia on desferrioxamine) markedly increases susceptibility |
| Y. Pseudotuberculosis | Mesenteric adenitis; a scarlatiniform rash |
Other Curved and Related Organisms
- Vibrio parahaemolyticus — a halophilic vibrio requiring salt; causes food poisoning from raw or undercooked seafood, with an explosive watery diarrhoea; forms green colonies on TCBS as it does not ferment sucrose
- Vibrio vulnificus — causes fulminant septicaemia with bullous skin lesions after eating raw shellfish or through a wound in seawater, particularly in those with liver disease or iron overload; mortality is high
- Aeromonas and Plesiomonas — oxidase-positive water-associated organisms causing diarrhoea and wound infection
- Helicobacter pylori — also a curved microaerophilic organism, but colonising the stomach rather than the intestine
Applied Aspects
- Ask about diarrhoea in the preceding weeks in Guillain-Barré syndrome; campylobacter-associated cases tend to be more severe and to have a predominantly axonal pattern
- Suspect Campylobacter or Yersinia in "appendicitis" that settles, and in a patient taken to theatre with a normal appendix and inflamed mesenteric nodes
- Tell the laboratory to incubate at 42°C microaerophilically when Campylobacter is suspected; routine stool culture will not grow it
- Plague persists in rodent reservoirs in parts of India, with outbreaks having occurred in recent decades; a cluster of severe pneumonia with haemoptysis in an endemic area demands immediate notification and isolation
- Yersinia enterocolitica thrives in the refrigerator, which overturns the usual assumption about food safety, as does Listeria
- Fluoroquinolone resistance in Campylobacter is a direct consequence of use in poultry, and is among the clearest illustrations that agricultural antibiotic use produces human clinical consequences
Legionella Pneumophila
- A thin, faintly staining gram-negative bacillus that is poorly seen on Gram stain of sputum — a characteristic and diagnostically important negative
- Requires L-cysteine and iron, and grows only on buffered charcoal yeast extract (BCYE) agar, not on ordinary media; growth takes 3 to 5 days
- An intracellular pathogen of amoebae in the environment, which is how it survives in water systems and why it also survives inside human macrophages — the amoeba is effectively a training ground
- Habitat — warm water systems: cooling towers, air conditioning, hot water tanks, showers, spa pools, humidifiers and decorative fountains; it is favoured by temperatures of 25 to 45°C, stagnation and biofilm
- Transmission is by inhalation of aerosol; there is NO person-to-person spread, which is why outbreaks are traced to a source rather than to contacts
| Form | Features |
|---|---|
| Legionnaires disease | A severe atypical pneumonia with high fever, relative bradycardia, confusion, diarrhoea, hyponatraemia and deranged liver enzymes — the extrapulmonary features are what suggest it. Radiographic changes exceed the auscultatory findings. Mortality is appreciable, particularly in the elderly, smokers and the immunosuppressed |
| Pontiac fever | A self-limiting flu-like illness without pneumonia, with a high attack rate and full recovery |
CLINICAL PEARL
Hyponatraemia, diarrhoea and confusion in a patient with pneumonia should suggest Legionella. No single feature is specific, but the combination of extrapulmonary findings with a severe pneumonia is characteristic, and it matters because beta-lactams do not work — the organism is intracellular. A patient deteriorating on ceftriaxone with these features needs a macrolide or fluoroquinolone and a urinary antigen test, not a broader beta-lactam.
Diagnosis and Treatment
- Urinary antigen test — the mainstay: rapid, unaffected by prior antibiotics, and positive for weeks. Its limitation is that it detects only serogroup 1, which nonetheless causes most disease
- Culture on BCYE agar — the reference method, needed for outbreak typing and to detect other serogroups
- Direct fluorescent antibody, PCR on respiratory samples; serology with a fourfold rise, which is retrospective
- Treatment — an agent that penetrates cells: a macrolide (azithromycin) or a fluoroquinolone (levofloxacin). beta-lactams are ineffective because the organism is intracellular and also produces beta-lactamase
Other Atypical and Miscellaneous Organisms
| Organism | Key features |
|---|---|
| Mycoplasma pneumoniae | The smallest free-living organism; NO cell wall, so it is pleomorphic, unaffected by beta-lactams, and its membrane contains sterols. "Fried egg" colonies on Hayflick medium. Causes atypical pneumonia in young people ("walking pneumonia"), with cold agglutinins, erythema multiforme and haemolysis. Treated with macrolides or doxycycline |
| Chlamydia trachomatis | An obligate intracellular bacterium with a unique biphasic cycle — the infectious elementary body and the replicating reticulate body. Serovars A–C cause trachoma (a leading preventable blindness, targeted by the safe strategy); D–K cause non-gonococcal urethritis, cervicitis, pelvic inflammatory disease and inclusion conjunctivitis of the newborn; L1–L3 cause lymphogranuloma venereum. Treated with doxycycline or azithromycin |
| Rickettsiae | Obligate intracellular; arthropod-borne. Scrub typhus (Orientia tsutsugamushi, from mite larvae, with an eschar) is common and important in India; also typhus and spotted fevers. The WEIL-FELIX test uses Proteus antigens. Treated with doxycycline |
| Coxiella burnetii | Causes Q fever by inhalation rather than by a vector; from parturient animals; causes pneumonia, hepatitis and culture-negative endocarditis |
| Bartonella | Cat scratch disease; bacillary angiomatosis in HIV |
Applied Aspects
- Cover atypical organisms in severe community-acquired pneumonia with a macrolide or fluoroquinolone alongside a beta-lactam; a beta-lactam alone will miss Legionella, Mycoplasma and Chlamydia entirely
- Investigate the water system, not the contacts, in a Legionella cluster; control means chlorination, raising hot water temperature above 60°C, avoiding stagnation and maintaining cooling towers
- Consider scrub typhus in any acute undifferentiated fever in India, particularly after rural or agricultural exposure; search carefully for an eschar in the axilla, groin and skin folds, and treat empirically with doxycycline, which is dramatically effective and cheap
- Chlamydial infection is often asymptomatic in women and is a leading preventable cause of tubal infertility, which is the argument for screening and for partner treatment
- Trachoma is prevented by facial cleanliness and environmental improvement as much as by azithromycin, and India was validated as having eliminated it as a public health problem — a substantial achievement
- Remember that organisms without a cell wall or living inside cells will not respond to beta-lactams; this single principle covers Mycoplasma, Chlamydia, Rickettsia, Legionella and Coxiella together
Morphology and the Cell Wall
- Slender, slightly curved, beaded bacilli, non-motile, non-sporing and non-capsulated, often occurring in parallel bundles
- Acid-fast — they resist decolourisation by 20% sulphuric acid and 3% alcohol, and are demonstrated by the ZIEHL-neelsen stain as bright red bacilli against a blue background
- The cell wall is up to 60% lipid, which is the source of nearly every distinctive property of the genus
| Cell wall component | Consequence |
|---|---|
| Mycolic acids — long-chain fatty acids | Acid-fastness; impermeability, hence resistance to drying, acids, alkalis and many disinfectants and antibiotics; and the need for heat to drive stain in |
| Cord factor (trehalose 6,6′-dimycolate) | Serpentine "cord" growth in culture; correlates with virulence; inhibits neutrophil migration and damages mitochondria |
| Wax D | Adjuvant activity, provoking the delayed hypersensitivity response |
| Sulpholipids | Inhibit phagosome-lysosome fusion, allowing survival inside the macrophage |
| Lipoarabinomannan (LAM) | Inhibits macrophage activation; a target for urinary antigen testing in HIV |
| Overall lipid content | Slow growth, hydrophobic surface causing clumping, and resistance to complement and to antibody — immunity must be cell-mediated |
CLINICAL PEARL
Almost every clinical fact about tuberculosis follows from the waxy cell wall. It makes the organism acid-fast (so it needs a special stain), impermeable (so few antibiotics work and treatment lasts months), slow-growing (so cultures take weeks and the illness is chronic), and able to survive inside macrophages (so immunity is cell-mediated and HIV is catastrophic). One structural feature explains the stain, the regimen, the delay and the epidemiology together.
Cultural Characteristics
- An obligate aerobe — which is why disease favours the lung apices, where the oxygen tension is highest, and why cavities teem with organisms while closed caseous lesions do not
- Extremely slow growth — a generation time of 15 to 20 hours (compared with 20 minutes for E. Coli); visible colonies take 2 to 8 weeks
- Lowenstein-JENSEN medium — the standard solid medium: coagulated egg with malachite green (which inhibits other organisms) and glycerol (which favours M. Tuberculosis); colonies are rough, tough and BUFF-coloured
- Middlebrook 7H10 and 7H11 (agar-based) and liquid MGIT systems, which detect growth automatically in about 2 weeks and are now preferred
- Resistance — survives in dried sputum for weeks, and resists acids and alkalis (used for decontamination of sputum before culture) and many disinfectants; but is killed by direct sunlight, ultraviolet light, heat and pasteurisation. Ventilation and daylight are therefore genuine control measures
| Test | M. Tuberculosis | M. Bovis |
|---|---|---|
| Growth on glycerol | Enhanced (eugonic) | Inhibited (dysgonic) |
| Niacin production | Positive | Negative |
| Nitrate reduction | Positive | Negative |
| Pyrazinamide | Sensitive | Resistant — which matters, since the standard regimen must be altered |
| Source | Human, by droplet | Cattle; unpasteurised milk, causing intestinal and cervical lymph node disease |
Pathogenesis — Primary Tuberculosis
Inhalation of droplet nuclei containing very few bacilli — the infecting dose is small → Bacilli reach the alveoli and are ingested by alveolar macrophages → They inhibit phagosome-lysosome fusion and multiply inside the macrophage, unchecked for the first weeks → A subpleural lesion forms in the lower part of the upper lobe or upper part of the lower lobe — the GHON focus → Spread to draining hilar lymph nodes; the focus with the nodes is the primary (GHON) complex → At 4 to 6 weeks cell-mediated immunity develops — the tuberculin test converts to positive → Activated macrophages contain the infection; a caseating granuloma forms and the lesion usually heals with fibrosis and calcification → A few bacilli survive in a dormant state — latent infection
- The granuloma consists of central caseous necrosis surrounded by epithelioid cells, langhans giant cells (with peripherally arranged nuclei), lymphocytes and fibroblasts — the histological signature of the disease
- Most primary infections heal; about 5% progress directly, and a further 5% reactivate later — a lifetime risk of about 10%. In HIV this becomes about 10% per year
Post-primary Tuberculosis
| Feature | Primary | Post-primary (secondary) |
|---|---|---|
| Occurs in | Previously unexposed (usually a child) | Previously sensitised person — by reactivation or reinfection |
| Site | Any part of the lung, often mid or lower zone | Lung apices — the most oxygenated region |
| Lymph nodes | Prominently involved | Usually not involved |
| Tissue response | Little tissue destruction; heals with calcification | Marked hypersensitivity with caseation and cavitation |
| Bacillary load | Low — paucibacillary | High in cavities — hence sputum-positive and infectious |
| Tuberculin test | Converts during the illness | Already positive |
| Spread | Lymphohaematogenous — miliary disease and meningitis, especially in young children | Bronchogenic within the lung; and to larynx and gut by swallowing |
- Dissemination — miliary tuberculosis from haematogenous spread, with innumerable small lesions in lung, liver, spleen and marrow; and metastatic foci that may reactivate years later, including the SIMON focus in the lung apex
Classification of the Mycobacteria
| Group | Members | Clinical relevance |
|---|---|---|
| M. Tuberculosis complex | M. Tuberculosis, M. Bovis, M. Africanum, M. Microti, M. Canettii | Cause tuberculosis; transmitted person to person (except M. Bovis, from cattle and milk); notifiable |
| M. Leprae | — | Leprosy; cannot be cultured in vitro at all |
| Non-tuberculous (atypical) mycobacteria | M. Avium complex, M. Kansasii, M. Marinum, M. Fortuitum, M. Ulcerans and many others; classified by the RUNYON groups on pigment production and growth rate | Environmental organisms from soil and water; not transmitted between people; frequently resistant to standard antitubercular drugs |
| Saprophytic | M. Smegmatis, M. Phlei | Non-pathogenic, but M. Smegmatis in smegma may be mistaken for M. Tuberculosis in a urine smear — hence the need for a clean specimen |
Applied Aspects
- Tuberculosis is an airborne infection, so ventilation, natural light and respiratory hygiene reduce transmission; India's burden makes these measures important in every waiting room and ward
- Sputum-positive cavitary disease is what spreads the infection; identifying and treating these patients promptly does more for control than any other measure, and is the basis of the national programme
- The apical distribution follows the oxygen tension, which is why the upper zones are examined first on a chest radiograph and why apical cavitation is so characteristic
- HIV transforms the natural history — reactivation risk rises from 10% lifetime to about 10% yearly, the presentation is often atypical and sputum-negative, and every tuberculosis patient should be offered HIV testing
- Pasteurisation and control of bovine tuberculosis prevent M. Bovis disease, which still occurs where raw milk is consumed
- Cell-mediated immunity is what contains the organism, so anything impairing it — HIV, corticosteroids, anti-TNF agents, diabetes, malnutrition, chronic kidney disease — predisposes to reactivation and should prompt screening before immunosuppression
- Diabetes roughly triples the risk of tuberculosis and worsens treatment outcomes; the two diseases are both common in India and each should prompt testing for the other
- Smoking and indoor air pollution increase both infection and mortality, and biomass cooking fuel is a substantial and under-recognised contributor in rural India
- Nutritional support is part of treatment, not a luxury; undernutrition is the largest single attributable risk factor for tuberculosis in India, which is why the national programme provides it
- Suspect tuberculosis in any chronic illness with weight loss and fever in an Indian setting; it remains the great mimic, and delayed diagnosis both harms the patient and sustains transmission
- Ventilation and daylight are genuine control measures, since the bacillus is killed by ultraviolet light and diluted by air exchange; this matters in crowded outpatient departments and wards
Specimen Collection
- Pulmonary — two sputum samples, ideally one spot and one early-morning specimen, which has the highest yield; gastric lavage in young children who swallow sputum; induced sputum or bronchoalveolar lavage where the patient cannot expectorate
- Extrapulmonary — cerebrospinal fluid, pleural, ascitic, pericardial or synovial fluid, lymph node aspirate or biopsy, pus, urine (three early-morning samples), menstrual blood, endometrial curettings
- Collect in a well-ventilated area or a safety cabinet; sputum collection generates aerosols and is a recognised route of transmission to staff
- Specimens from non-sterile sites are decontaminated with sodium hydroxide or the modified Petroff method before culture, exploiting the organism's resistance to alkali while other bacteria are killed
Microscopy
| Method | Detail | Value |
|---|---|---|
| ZIEHL-neelsen | Heated strong carbol fuchsin, decolourised with 20% sulphuric acid and 3% alcohol, counterstained with methylene blue; bacilli appear bright red against blue | Cheap, rapid and available at peripheral level — the mainstay in India. But requires about 10,000 bacilli per mL, so sensitivity is only 50–70% |
| Fluorescence (auramine-rhodamine) | Bacilli fluoresce yellow-green; examined at lower magnification | More sensitive and much faster to read; led microscopes have made it affordable and it is now widely used in the national programme |
| Grading | Reported by grade (1+, 2+, 3+ or actual counts) | Correlates with infectivity and with response to treatment |
CLINICAL PEARL
A negative sputum smear does not exclude tuberculosis, and the reason is arithmetic. About 10,000 bacilli per millilitre are needed before one appears reliably in a field, so paucibacillary disease — children, extrapulmonary sites, HIV co-infection, early disease — is regularly smear-negative. Roughly half of all pulmonary tuberculosis is missed by microscopy alone, which is precisely the gap that molecular testing was introduced to close.
Culture and Molecular Methods
| Method | Time | Comment |
|---|---|---|
| Lowenstein-JENSEN solid culture | 2 to 8 weeks | Detects as few as 10 to 100 bacilli/mL — far more sensitive than smear; permits identification and full drug sensitivity testing. Slow |
| Liquid culture (MGIT) | About 2 weeks | Automated detection of growth; now the reference standard where available |
| CBNAAT / GeneXpert MTB/RIF | About 2 hours | Cartridge-based automated PCR detecting M. Tuberculosis and rifampicin resistance simultaneously. Requires no special laboratory skill, and has transformed tuberculosis diagnosis in India — it is now the recommended initial test for many groups. More sensitive than smear but less than culture |
| Line probe assay (LPA) | 1 to 2 days | Detects mutations conferring resistance to rifampicin and isoniazid (first-line LPA) and to fluoroquinolones and injectables (second-line) |
| TrueNat | About 1 hour | A chip-based portable PCR developed in INDIA, battery-operated and usable at primary health centre level |
| Urinary LAM antigen | Rapid | Useful specifically in advanced HIV with low CD4 counts, where sputum is often unobtainable and smear-negative |
- Molecular tests detect nucleic acid, not viability, so they may remain positive after successful treatment and cannot be used to monitor response
- Culture remains essential for full sensitivity testing, for confirming cure, and for identifying species
Immunological and Other Tests
- Tuberculin (mantoux) test — 0.1 mL of 5 tuberculin units of PPD injected intradermally, read at 48 to 72 hours as the diameter of induration, not erythema. It indicates infection, not disease, is confounded by BCG and by non-tuberculous mycobacteria, and is falsely negative in miliary tuberculosis, HIV, malnutrition, measles and steroid therapy
- Interferon-gamma release assays (IGRA) — measure interferon-gamma released by sensitised T cells in response to ESAT-6 and CFP-10, antigens absent from BCG and from most environmental mycobacteria; therefore not confounded by vaccination. Like the tuberculin test, they cannot distinguish latent infection from active disease
- Histopathology — caseating granulomas with epithelioid cells and Langhans giant cells on biopsy or fine needle aspirate; acid-fast bacilli may be demonstrable
- Adenosine deaminase (ADA) — raised in tuberculous pleural, ascitic and cerebrospinal fluid; a useful and cheap supportive test in paucibacillary extrapulmonary disease
- Chest radiography — sensitive but not specific; useful for screening and for assessing extent
Choosing the Right Test
| Clinical situation | Preferred initial test | Reason |
|---|---|---|
| Adult with cough over 2 weeks | Sputum smear or CBNAAT | CBNAAT is now preferred where available, since it also reports rifampicin resistance |
| Child with suspected tuberculosis | CBNAAT on gastric aspirate or induced sputum | Paucibacillary disease; children swallow sputum, so smear is usually negative |
| Person living with HIV | CBNAAT, plus urinary LAM if advanced | Frequently smear-negative and often extrapulmonary or disseminated |
| Previously treated, or a contact of a resistant case | CBNAAT then line probe assay and culture | Resistance must be established before a regimen is chosen |
| Suspected extrapulmonary disease | CBNAAT on the tissue or fluid, with histopathology, culture and ADA | Paucibacillary; tissue must be obtained and sent for microbiology as well as histology |
| Latent infection before immunosuppression | IGRA or tuberculin test | No organism to find; the question is whether the person has been infected |
| Monitoring response to treatment | Follow-up smear and culture | Molecular tests detect dead organisms and cannot assess response |
Applied Aspects
- Send two sputum samples including an early-morning one; a single spot specimen substantially reduces the yield and is a common practical shortcoming
- CBNAAT should be used as the initial test in children, in people living with HIV, in extrapulmonary specimens, in smear-negative patients with suggestive radiology, and in anyone at risk of drug resistance
- Rifampicin resistance detected by CBNAAT is a proxy for multidrug resistance and must prompt immediate referral for a full drug-resistant regimen and second-line testing
- Never diagnose tuberculosis on a tuberculin test alone; in India, where BCG is universal and background infection is high, a positive result is of very limited value
- Ask the laboratory for a mycobacterial culture explicitly; it will not be set up on a routine request, and the specimen will be reported as sterile
- Test every tuberculosis patient for HIV and for diabetes, both of which alter presentation, treatment and outcome, and both of which are common in India
- A positive smear does not distinguish M. Tuberculosis from other mycobacteria, which matters where atypical infection is possible; CBNAAT or culture is needed to identify the species
- Follow-up smears at the end of the intensive phase and at completion assess response; molecular tests cannot be used for this because they detect dead organisms
- Collect sputum safely — outdoors or in a ventilated area, never in a crowded waiting room or a closed cubicle, since the procedure generates infectious aerosols
- Transport specimens promptly and protect them from heat and sunlight, which reduce viability and lower the culture yield
- Decontamination kills some mycobacteria as well as the contaminants, so it lowers the culture yield slightly — a necessary trade-off for specimens from non-sterile sites, but unnecessary and harmful for cerebrospinal fluid or pus from a closed lesion
- Report the smear grade, not merely "positive"; the bacillary load guides infection control and predicts the speed of sputum conversion
- A normal chest radiograph does not exclude tuberculosis in HIV, where disease is frequently disseminated or extrapulmonary with little pulmonary change
- Nikshay, the national notification system, requires every case to be notified, including from the private sector, and this now carries statutory force in India
- Serological tests for tuberculosis are banned in India, having been shown to be inaccurate and misleading; anyone offering one is not following national guidance
- Do not treat on radiology alone where bacteriological confirmation is possible; old fibrotic change is frequently mistaken for active disease and leads to repeated unnecessary courses
- TrueNat allows molecular diagnosis at primary health centre level, being battery-operated and portable, which addresses the geography that has always limited tuberculosis diagnosis in rural India
- Culture remains necessary despite molecular advances — for full sensitivity testing, for species identification, and to confirm cure
- Two negative smears do not exclude the diagnosis in a patient with suggestive symptoms and radiology; proceed to CBNAAT and culture rather than treating with a broad-spectrum antibiotic and reviewing later
The Organism
- Mycobacterium leprae — an acid-fast bacillus, straight or slightly curved, occurring in parallel bundles ("cigar bundles") and in rounded masses called globi within foamy macrophages (virchow or lepra cells)
- Acid-fast to only 5% sulphuric acid (M. Tuberculosis resists 20%), so a modified Ziehl-Neelsen stain is used
- It has never been cultivated in artificial media — a defining practical fact. It is grown in the mouse footpad and in the nine-banded armadillo, which has a low body temperature and permits heavy multiplication
- The slowest-growing bacterium known — a generation time of 12 to 14 days, which explains the very long incubation period of 2 to 5 years or more, and the prolonged treatment
- Prefers cooler parts of the body (about 30°C) — skin, superficial nerves, nose, testis, eye and the extremities; it spares the warm axilla, groin and scalp, which is why the distribution of lesions is characteristic
- An obligate intracellular parasite of macrophages and schwann cells; invasion of Schwann cells is what makes it uniquely neurotropic among bacteria
Transmission and Immunology
- Transmission is chiefly by nasal droplets from untreated multibacillary patients, who may shed millions of bacilli daily; prolonged close contact is usually required
- Most exposed people never develop disease — the outcome depends almost entirely on the host's cell-mediated immunity
- A strong Th1 response gives tuberculoid disease — few organisms, few lesions, and much nerve damage from the vigorous granulomatous reaction
- A weak or Th2-dominated response gives lepromatous disease — abundant organisms, widespread lesions, and less intense but more extensive damage
CLINICAL PEARL
The two poles of leprosy are produced by the host, not by the organism. The same bacillus causes a lesion teeming with bacteria and little inflammation at one pole, and a lesion with almost no bacteria and destructive granulomas at the other. Disease expression is a readout of cell-mediated immunity — which is why the lepromin test is prognostic rather than diagnostic, and why the classification predicts complications and treatment length.
Classification
| Feature | Tuberculoid (TT) | Lepromatous (LL) |
|---|---|---|
| Skin lesions | Few (1 to 3), large, well-defined, dry, hairless, anaesthetic, hypopigmented | Many, symmetrical, ill-defined, shiny; sensation preserved early; leonine facies, madarosis (loss of eyebrows), nasal collapse |
| Bacilli in smear | Absent or very scanty | Abundant — globi and cigar bundles |
| Nerve involvement | Early, asymmetrical, few nerves, markedly thickened | Late, symmetrical, many nerves; glove-and-stocking anaesthesia |
| Lepromin test | Positive | Negative |
| Cell-mediated immunity | Strong (Th1) | Absent to M. Leprae (Th2) |
| Histology | Epithelioid granuloma with lymphocytes; nerve destroyed | Sheets of foamy macrophages (Virchow cells) packed with bacilli; a clear subepidermal GRENZ zone |
| Infectivity | Not infectious | Highly infectious before treatment |
| Reaction type | Type 1 (reversal) | Type 2 (erythema nodosum leprosum) |
- The RIDLEY-jopling spectrum places disease as TT – BT – BB – BL – LL, with the borderline forms being immunologically unstable and liable to shift, which is what produces reactions
- The WHO operational classification, used for treatment, is simpler: paucibacillary (up to 5 skin lesions, no bacilli on smear) and multibacillary (more than 5 lesions, or any positive smear)
- Indeterminate leprosy — the earliest form, a single ill-defined hypopigmented macule which may heal spontaneously or progress
Diagnosis and Treatment
- The WHO cardinal signs — any one establishes the diagnosis: (1) a hypopigmented or reddish skin lesion with definite loss OF sensation; (2) a thickened or tender peripheral nerve with loss of sensation or weakness in its distribution; (3) demonstration of acid-fast bacilli in a slit-skin smear
- Slit-skin smear — taken from the ear lobe and active lesions; reported as the bacteriological index (density of bacilli, on a logarithmic 0 to 6+ scale) and the morphological index (percentage of solidly staining, and therefore viable, bacilli), which falls rapidly with effective treatment
- Nerves to examine — ulnar at the elbow, median, radial cutaneous, common peroneal at the neck of the fibula, posterior tibial, great auricular and supraorbital
- Lepromin test — an intradermal injection of killed bacilli; the Fernandez reaction is read at 48 hours and the mitsuda reaction at 3 to 4 weeks. It is not a diagnostic test — it assesses cell-mediated immunity and is therefore of prognostic and classificatory value
- Multidrug therapy (MDT) — supplied free through the national programme: paucibacillary, rifampicin monthly with daily dapsone for 6 months; multibacillary, rifampicin and clofazimine monthly with daily dapsone and clofazimine for 12 months
- Patients become non-infectious within days of starting rifampicin, so isolation is unnecessary and stigma is unjustified
Deformities and Complications
| Nerve involved | Resulting deformity or loss |
|---|---|
| Ulnar (at the elbow) | Claw hand of the ring and little fingers; loss of sensation over the medial hand — the commonest deformity in leprosy |
| Median | Ape thumb deformity; loss of opposition and of sensation over the lateral palm |
| Radial | Wrist drop |
| Common peroneal (at the fibular neck) | Foot drop with a high-stepping gait; loss of sensation over the dorsum |
| Posterior tibial | Clawing of the toes and, crucially, anaesthesia OF the sole — which leads to unnoticed injury and the trophic (plantar) ulcer |
| Facial | Lagophthalmos (inability to close the eye), leading to exposure keratitis, corneal ulceration and blindness |
| Other | Nasal collapse (saddle nose), loss of eyebrows, gynaecomastia and sterility from testicular involvement, and absorption of digits — which results from repeated unnoticed trauma and infection, not from the bacillus eating the tissue |
Applied Aspects
- Test sensation in every hypopigmented patch; this single bedside step distinguishes leprosy from the far commoner pityriasis alba, vitiligo and tinea versicolor, and costs nothing
- Palpate the peripheral nerves routinely, particularly the ulnar and common peroneal; a thickened nerve in a patient with a skin lesion is diagnostic
- Disability is caused by nerve damage, not by the bacillus, and most of it is preventable by early diagnosis and prompt treatment of reactions; deformity appearing during treatment usually means an unrecognised reaction
- Teach self-care of anaesthetic hands and feet — daily inspection, protective footwear, soaking and oiling; ulcers and their consequences arise from unnoticed injury, not from continuing infection
- India accounts for a large share of new cases worldwide despite elimination as a public health problem having been declared; case detection, contact tracing and single-dose rifampicin prophylaxis for contacts remain important
- Stigma remains the greatest obstacle; explaining that treated patients are not infectious, and that the disease is curable and free to treat, changes presentation times more than any laboratory advance
- Examine the eyes at every visit; lagophthalmos and corneal anaesthesia cause blindness silently, and simple measures such as spectacles, lubricants and lid exercises prevent it
- Deformity is not a sign of active infection, and a patient who has completed treatment needs rehabilitation and reconstructive surgery rather than more antibiotics
- Absorption of digits results from repeated unnoticed trauma, not from the organism destroying bone; explaining this makes self-care instructions comprehensible rather than arbitrary
- Single-dose rifampicin prophylaxis for contacts reduces the risk of developing leprosy and is now part of national policy in several countries including India
- Examine all household contacts at diagnosis and annually; early detection in a contact prevents both disability and further transmission
- Clofazimine causes reversible skin darkening, which is distressing and a common reason for stopping treatment; warning patients in advance markedly improves completion
- Leprosy is curable and treatment is free, and saying so plainly at the first consultation does more for adherence and for early presentation of contacts than any other single intervention
The Organism
- Treponema pallidum — a slender spirochaete with 6 to 14 regular, sharp, spiral coils, motile by axial filaments (endoflagella) lying within the periplasm, giving a characteristic rotating, flexing and to-and-fro movement
- Too slender to be seen by ordinary light microscopy or Gram stain; demonstrated by dark-ground (dark-field) microscopy of fresh exudate, by silver impregnation (Fontana), or by immunofluorescence
- It has never been cultivated in artificial media; it is maintained by rabbit testicular inoculation
- Extremely fragile — killed rapidly by drying, heat, soap, antiseptics and oxygen, which is why transmission requires direct, usually sexual, contact and why fomite spread does not occur
- Transmission — sexual contact (the great majority), transplacental passage causing congenital syphilis, blood transfusion, and rarely direct inoculation
Stages of Acquired Syphilis
| Stage | Timing | Features |
|---|---|---|
| Primary | 9 to 90 days (average 21) after exposure | The chancre — a solitary, painless, indurated ulcer with a clean base and rolled edge, at the site of inoculation, with painless rubbery regional lymphadenopathy. It heals spontaneously in 3 to 8 weeks, which is why patients do not present. Teeming with spirochaetes and highly infectious |
| Secondary | 6 to 8 weeks after the chancre | A generalised illness — fever, malaise, generalised lymphadenopathy, and a symmetrical non-itchy maculopapular rash characteristically involving the palms and soles; mucous patches and snail-track ulcers in the mouth; condylomata lata (moist, highly infectious warty lesions in the anogenital area); patchy alopecia. The most infectious stage; also resolves spontaneously |
| Latent | Early latent (within 1 year) and late latent (beyond 1 year) | No clinical features; diagnosed only by serology. Early latent syphilis is still infectious and may relapse into secondary features; late latent is not sexually infectious but can still cross the placenta |
| Tertiary | 3 to 30 years later, in about a third of untreated patients | Gumma — a granulomatous destructive lesion of skin, bone or viscera; cardiovascular syphilis — aortitis of the ascending aorta with aneurysm and aortic regurgitation, from endarteritis of the vasa vasorum; neurosyphilis — meningovascular disease, tabes dorsalis (posterior column degeneration with lightning pains, ataxia, ARGYLL robertson pupils) and general paresis |
- Congenital syphilis — early features include "snuffles" (a highly infectious nasal discharge), a bullous rash on palms and soles, hepatosplenomegaly, osteochondritis and pseudoparalysis; late features include hutchinson teeth (notched incisors), interstitial keratitis and eighth nerve deafness (together the Hutchinson triad), saddle nose, sabre tibia and frontal bossing
Serological Diagnosis
| Feature | Non-treponemal (VDRL, RPR) | Treponemal (TPHA, TPPA, FTA-ABS, EIA) |
|---|---|---|
| Antigen used | Cardiolipin, cholesterol and lecithin — not treponemal; detects "reagin" antibody produced against host lipid released by tissue damage | Treponemal antigen — detects specific antibody |
| Specificity | Low — biological false positives in pregnancy, autoimmune disease (especially SLE and antiphospholipid syndrome), malaria, leprosy, tuberculosis, viral infections, injecting drug use and old age | High |
| Quantitative | Yes — titres fall with successful treatment | No |
| After treatment | Becomes negative or falls fourfold — so it is used to monitor treatment and to detect reinfection | Remains positive for life — therefore useless for monitoring and cannot distinguish current from past treated infection |
| Chief use | Screening, monitoring, and cerebrospinal fluid testing in neurosyphilis | Confirmation |
| Pitfall | Prozone phenomenon — a false negative from excess antibody in secondary syphilis; the serum must be diluted and retested | May be negative very early in primary syphilis |
CLINICAL PEARL
The two kinds of test answer two different questions, and using the wrong one produces the wrong answer confidently. The treponemal test asks "has this person ever had syphilis?" — and stays positive for life, so it cannot tell you whether treatment worked. The non-treponemal test asks "is there active disease now?" — its titre falls with cure and rises again with reinfection. A patient treated years ago will be TPHA positive and VDRL negative, and calling that active syphilis is a common and consequential error.
Treatment
- Penicillin remains the drug of choice — T. Pallidum has never developed penicillin resistance. Benzathine penicillin as a single intramuscular dose for early syphilis, and weekly for three weeks in late disease
- Neurosyphilis requires intravenous aqueous benzylpenicillin, since benzathine penicillin does not achieve adequate concentrations in cerebrospinal fluid — a distinction that matters
- Doxycycline in penicillin allergy, though penicillin desensitisation is preferred in pregnancy and neurosyphilis, since nothing else is reliably effective
- Jarisch-herxheimer reaction — fever, chills, myalgia and worsening of the rash within hours of the first dose, from the sudden release of treponemal antigen as organisms are killed. It is not an allergic reaction and does not contraindicate further treatment; patients must be warned, and it may precipitate preterm labour in pregnancy
- Follow up with quantitative VDRL or RPR at 3, 6 and 12 months; a fourfold fall in titre indicates successful treatment
- Treat all sexual partners and screen for other sexually transmitted infections, particularly HIV
Interpretation of Serological Patterns
| VDRL / RPR | TPHA / treponemal | Interpretation |
|---|---|---|
| Negative | Negative | No syphilis — OR very early primary infection before antibody has appeared. Repeat in 2 to 4 weeks if exposure is recent |
| Positive | Positive | Syphilis — active, or recently treated with a titre yet to fall. The stage is decided clinically and by the titre |
| Negative | Positive | Past, adequately treated infection (the commonest reason); or late latent or tertiary disease; or a non-venereal treponematosis such as yaws |
| Positive | Negative | Biological false positive — pregnancy, autoimmune disease, malaria, leprosy, tuberculosis, viral infection, injecting drug use, old age. Requires a second treponemal test to confirm |
| Rising fourfold titre after treatment | Positive | Reinfection or treatment failure — retreat and investigate |
| Reactive CSF VDRL | — | Neurosyphilis — specific but insensitive, so a negative CSF VDRL does not exclude it |
Applied Aspects
- Screen every pregnant woman for syphilis — a single dose of penicillin prevents congenital syphilis entirely, and this is among the highest-value antenatal interventions; it is part of the national programme in India
- A painless genital ulcer is syphilis until proved otherwise; the painless indurated chancre distinguishes it from the painful chancroid and from herpes
- Dilute and repeat a negative VDRL where secondary syphilis is strongly suspected, to exclude the prozone effect
- Syphilis greatly increases HIV transmission in both directions, since genital ulceration breaches the mucosal barrier; every patient with one should be tested for the other
- Warn about the Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction before the first dose, or the patient will believe they are allergic and abandon a treatment that works
- The stages resolve spontaneously, which is what makes syphilis dangerous; the patient believes they have recovered while the infection progresses silently toward cardiovascular and neurological disease decades later
- Examine the palms and soles in any generalised rash; few conditions involve them, and secondary syphilis is one that must not be missed
- Use benzathine penicillin, not procaine or benzylpenicillin, for early syphilis, and never substitute an oral agent without good reason; treatment failure here has consequences decades later
- Late latent syphilis can still infect the fetus even though it is no longer sexually transmissible, which is why antenatal screening applies regardless of the presumed stage
- Examine the cerebrospinal fluid where there are neurological or ophthalmic signs, or where treatment has failed; neurosyphilis requires a different regimen and cannot be assumed absent
- A single dose of benzathine penicillin cures early syphilis, which makes screening extraordinarily cost-effective — the treatment is cheaper than the test
- Congenital syphilis is entirely preventable and its occurrence represents a failure of antenatal care rather than of medicine
- Dark-ground microscopy requires a fresh specimen and an experienced observer, and is not available in most centres; serology is therefore the practical route to diagnosis nearly everywhere
- Repeat serology after 3 months in a high-risk exposure with an initially negative result, since antibody takes weeks to appear and early primary syphilis is regularly missed
- Do not rely on a treponemal test to judge cure; it stays positive for life, and using it for follow-up leads either to unnecessary retreatment or to false reassurance
- Syndromic management of genital ulcer disease in India treats for both syphilis and chancroid at the first visit, which is appropriate where laboratory confirmation would delay treatment or be unavailable
- Notify and trace contacts; syphilis is a sexually transmitted infection in which partner treatment is essential to prevent reinfection and further spread
- Syphilis has been called the great imitator, and it belongs in the differential of almost any rash, ulcer, neurological syndrome or aortic lesion of uncertain cause — the test is cheap and the consequences of missing it are measured in decades
Classification of the Spirochaetes
Spirochaetes are slender, flexible, helically coiled bacteria motile by axial filaments (endoflagella) located within the periplasmic space between the cell membrane and the outer sheath.
| Genus | Size and coils | Species and disease |
|---|---|---|
| Treponema | Slender, 6 to 14 regular, sharp, closely set coils | T. Pallidum — syphilis; T. Pertenue — yaws; T. Carateum — PINTA; T. Endemicum — bejel; T. Vincentii — Vincent angina |
| Borrelia | Larger, thicker, with 3 to 10 irregular, open coils; stains readily with GIEMSA and is visible on an ordinary blood film | B. Recurrentis and B. Duttonii — relapsing fever; B. Burgdorferi — LYME disease |
| Leptospira | Very fine, tightly coiled, with characteristic hooked ends giving a "shepherd crook" or question-mark appearance | L. Interrogans — leptospirosis (Weil disease) |
Borrelia — Relapsing Fever
- Louse-borne (epidemic) relapsing fever — B.
- Recurrentis, spread by the body louse
- the organism is released only when the louse is crushed, so infection follows scratching rather than a bite → Tick-borne (endemic) relapsing fever — B.
- Duttonii and others, from soft ticks, with a rodent reservoir → After an incubation of about a week, abrupt high fever with rigors, headache, myalgia and hepatosplenomegaly → The fever ends by crisis after 3 to 6 days, as antibody clears the circulating organisms → Surviving organisms undergo antigenic variation of their surface lipoproteins → The new antigenic variant multiplies unrecognised — a relapse → The cycle repeats, with each relapse milder
- louse-borne disease has fewer relapses but higher mortality
- Diagnosis — demonstration of the spirochaete in a peripheral blood film (Giemsa or dark ground) during the fever; it disappears between attacks, so the timing of the sample is decisive
- Treatment — tetracycline or erythromycin; a severe jarisch-herxheimer reaction is common and may be fatal in louse-borne disease, so the first dose is given under observation
- LYME disease — B. Burgdorferi transmitted by Ixodes ticks; stage 1 gives erythema chronicum migrans, an expanding annular "bull's-eye" rash; stage 2 gives carditis with heart block, and neurological disease including facial palsy; stage 3 gives a chronic arthritis. Treated with doxycycline or ceftriaxone. It is a temperate-zone disease and rare in India
CLINICAL PEARL
Relapsing fever relapses because the organism changes its coat, not because treatment failed. Each febrile episode ends when antibody clears the circulating population — but a minority have already switched to a new surface antigen, and multiply unrecognised until they reach a threshold, producing the next fever. It is the same strategy as trypanosomes and gonococcal pili, and it explains both the clinical pattern and why no vaccine exists.
Non-venereal Treponematoses
| Disease | Organism and spread | Features |
|---|---|---|
| Yaws | T. Pertenue; direct skin contact in children, in humid tropical areas | A primary papilloma ("mother yaw"), then widespread raspberry-like lesions, and later destructive bone and cartilage lesions (gangosa). Treated with a single dose of azithromycin, which underpins the eradication campaign. INDIA was certified free OF yaws IN 2016 |
| PINTA | T. Carateum; skin contact, Latin America | Confined to the skin — depigmented and hyperpigmented patches, without systemic disease |
| Bejel (endemic syphilis) | T. Endemicum; mouth-to-mouth and shared utensils, in dry regions | Oral and skin lesions, then bone involvement |
| Vincent angina | T. Vincentii with the fusiform bacillus Fusobacterium — a fusospirochaetal synergy | An ulcerative membranous gingivostomatitis with a foul odour, in poor oral hygiene and malnutrition; part of the differential of membranous pharyngitis. Treated with penicillin and metronidazole |
- The non-venereal treponematoses are serologically indistinguishable from syphilis — VDRL and TPHA are positive in all of them. In a person from an endemic area a positive test must therefore be interpreted with the clinical picture and the geography, not taken as proof of sexually acquired infection
Laboratory Diagnosis of the Spirochaetes
- They are too slender for the Gram stain (except Borrelia, which is thicker and stains readily) and most cannot be cultured, so diagnosis depends on dark-ground microscopy, special stains, serology and molecular methods
- Dark-ground microscopy — of chancre exudate for T. Pallidum, and of blood or urine for leptospires; requires a fresh specimen and experience
- Giemsa-stained blood film — for Borrelia during a febrile episode
- Silver impregnation (Fontana, Warthin-Starry, Levaditi) for tissue sections
- Serology — VDRL, RPR, TPHA and FTA-ABS for treponemes; ELISA and microscopic agglutination for leptospires; ELISA and immunoblot for Lyme disease
- Culture — possible only for Leptospira (in Ellinghausen-McCullough-Johnson-Harris or Korthof medium) and, with difficulty, Borrelia; T. Pallidum and M. Leprae cannot be cultured at all
Comparison of the Three Genera
| Feature | Treponema | Borrelia | Leptospira |
|---|---|---|---|
| Coils | 6–14, regular and closely set | 3–10, irregular and open | Numerous, very tight, with hooked ends |
| Visible on Gram or ordinary stain | NO — too slender | Yes — stains with GIEMSA on a blood film | No |
| Culture in vitro | Not possible | Difficult | Possible — EMJH or Korthof medium |
| Transmission | Sexual and transplacental (syphilis); direct contact (yaws) | Arthropod — body louse or tick | Animal urine contaminating water and soil |
| Key diagnostic method | Dark ground and serology (VDRL, TPHA) | Blood film during fever | PCR early, then IgM ELISA and mat |
| Treatment | Penicillin | Tetracycline or erythromycin | Doxycycline; penicillin or ceftriaxone if severe |
| Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction | Common | Common and may be severe | May occur |
Applied Aspects
- Take the blood film during the fever in relapsing fever; between episodes the organism is absent from the circulation and the film is negative
- Give the first dose of antibiotic under observation in relapsing fever and in syphilis, because of the Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction
- Delousing and improved hygiene control epidemic relapsing fever, which is a disease of crowding, war, famine and displacement
- Interpret positive treponemal serology in the light of geography; in someone from a yaws-endemic region, past childhood infection is a real alternative explanation to sexually acquired syphilis
- Consider Vincent angina in a foul-smelling ulcerative sore throat with poor oral hygiene, and confirm it with a simple Gram-stained smear showing fusiform bacilli and spirochaetes together
- The eradication of yaws from India demonstrates what a single-dose oral antibiotic combined with active case finding can achieve against a treponemal disease, and is a useful comparison when considering syphilis control
- Spirochaetes cannot be seen on a Gram stain except Borrelia, so a request for "Gram stain and culture" will never find them; the laboratory must be told what is suspected
- Antigenic variation defeats vaccine development in relapsing fever, as it does in trypanosomiasis and gonorrhoea; where an organism can change its surface at will, immunity is always one step behind
- Consider relapsing fever in a returning traveller or displaced person with recurrent fevers, and examine a blood film taken during the febrile episode rather than between them
- Vincent angina is diagnosed on a simple smear showing fusiform bacilli and spirochaetes together, which is a cheap and decisive test in a foul-smelling ulcerative sore throat
- Lyme disease is rare in India and should not be diagnosed on serology alone in someone without exposure in an endemic temperate region; false positives are common and lead to prolonged inappropriate treatment
- Erythema chronicum migrans is a clinical diagnosis and warrants treatment without waiting for serology, which is often negative at that stage
- Treponemal serology cannot distinguish syphilis from yaws or bejel, so the geography and the childhood history matter as much as the test result
- Spirochaetal diseases share a tendency to relapse and to affect many systems, which is why they are classically described as great imitators and why they are so often diagnosed late
- Penicillin remains effective against every pathogenic treponeme, none of which has developed resistance — a striking exception among bacteria and one that has held for eighty years
- Ask about occupation, travel and animal or arthropod exposure in any unexplained relapsing or multisystem febrile illness; the spirochaetoses are diagnosed far more often by history than by routine investigation
- The axial filament is unique to this group and gives the corkscrew motility that lets them burrow through mucus, tissue and even intact skin — which is how leptospires enter through an abrasion and treponemes cross the placenta
- Most spirochaetal disease is treatable with cheap, old antibiotics, so the whole clinical problem is one of thinking of the diagnosis in time
- Yaws and syphilis are caused by organisms that cannot be told apart by any routine test, differing in transmission and geography rather than in structure or serology — which is why the clinical and social history carries so much weight
- Send the right specimen at the right moment; a blood film between fevers, a dark-ground preparation from a healed chancre, or leptospiral serology in the first week will all be negative in a patient who has the disease
Definition and Classification
Non-tuberculous (atypical) mycobacteria (NTM), also called mycobacteria other than tuberculosis (MOTT), are environmental mycobacteria found in soil and water which are not transmitted from person to person.
| Runyon group | Basis | Examples and disease |
|---|---|---|
| I — photochromogens | Pigment produced only after exposure to light | M. Kansasii (pulmonary disease resembling tuberculosis); M. Marinum (swimming pool or fish tank granuloma) |
| II — scotochromogens | Pigment produced in the dark as well as in light | M. Scrofulaceum (cervical lymphadenitis in children); M. Szulgai |
| III — non-chromogens | No pigment | M. Avium-intracellulare complex (MAC) — disseminated disease in advanced HIV, and pulmonary disease in the elderly; M. Ulcerans (BURULI ulcer) |
| IV — rapid growers | Visible growth within 7 days | M. Fortuitum, M. Chelonae, M. Abscessus — post-surgical and post-injection wound infection, catheter and implant infection |
CLINICAL PEARL
Non-tuberculous mycobacteria are acquired from the environment and not from people, which changes everything about management. There is no contact tracing, no notification, no isolation and no public health investigation — and because they are ubiquitous in soil and water, isolating one does not prove it is causing disease. Diagnosis therefore requires repeated isolation with compatible clinical and radiological findings, not a single positive culture.
Clinical Syndromes
- Pulmonary disease — resembling tuberculosis, usually in those with pre-existing lung disease (bronchiectasis, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, old tuberculosis, cystic fibrosis); commonly M. Avium complex or M. Kansasii
- Lymphadenitis — chronic cervical lymph node enlargement in young children, typically M. Avium complex or M. Scrofulaceum; treated by excision rather than by prolonged chemotherapy
- Disseminated MAC — in advanced HIV with a CD4 count below 50; fever, weight loss, anaemia, diarrhoea and hepatosplenomegaly
- Skin and soft tissue — M. Marinum causing a nodular lymphangitis after aquarium or fish exposure; M. Ulcerans causing the painless, deeply undermined BURULI ulcer
- Post-procedural infection — rapid growers following surgery, injections, laparoscopy, cosmetic procedures and contaminated instruments or solutions; outbreaks have followed inadequate disinfection of instruments with glutaraldehyde in India
Distinguishing Features and Treatment
| Feature | M. Tuberculosis | Non-tuberculous mycobacteria |
|---|---|---|
| Source | Another person | Environment — soil, water, aerosols |
| Person-to-person spread | Yes | NO |
| Niacin and nitrate | Positive | Usually negative |
| Growth rate | Slow (2 to 8 weeks) | Variable — group IV grows within 7 days |
| Pigment | Buff, non-pigmented | Often pigmented (groups I and II) |
| Growth at 25°C | No | Many grow |
| Sensitivity | Predictable to standard first-line drugs | Frequently resistant to standard antitubercular drugs; requires species-specific regimens including macrolides, ethambutol, rifamycins and amikacin |
| Public health action | Notifiable; contact tracing | None required |
Applied Aspects
- Suspect a non-tuberculous mycobacterium when "tuberculosis" fails to respond to standard treatment, particularly in a patient with structural lung disease; species identification then changes the entire regimen
- Do not treat a single isolate without clinical correlation; environmental contamination of specimens is common, and repeated isolation with compatible disease is required
- Species identification is essential, since treatment differs sharply between species and standard antitubercular therapy usually fails
- Post-procedural outbreaks of rapid growers indicate a breach in disinfection; they are traced to contaminated water, instruments or solutions and require investigation of the process, not treatment of individual patients alone
- Excise a tuberculous-looking cervical node in a young child rather than aspirating repeatedly where atypical infection is likely; incision and drainage produces a chronic sinus
- Give MAC prophylaxis and start antiretroviral therapy in advanced HIV; restoring the CD4 count is what prevents disseminated disease, though immune reconstitution may unmask it initially
Principle and Technique
The tuberculin (mantoux) test is a type IV delayed hypersensitivity reaction demonstrating previous sensitisation to mycobacterial antigen — that is, infection, not disease.
0.1 mL of PPD (purified protein derivative) containing 5 tuberculin units is injected intradermally into the flexor surface of the forearm → A correct injection raises a pale wheal of 6 to 10 mm; if no wheal forms the injection was subcutaneous and must be repeated elsewhere → Sensitised T lymphocytes recognise the antigen and release cytokines → Macrophages and lymphocytes accumulate over the following hours → Read at 48 to 72 hours → Measure the transverse diameter of induration, not of erythema, by palpation or the ballpoint pen method
| Induration | Interpreted as positive in |
|---|---|
| ≥ 5 mm | HIV infection; close contacts of a sputum-positive case; those on immunosuppressive therapy or steroids; organ transplant recipients; fibrotic changes on chest radiograph |
| ≥ 10 mm | Children under 4; recent immigrants from high-prevalence countries; injecting drug users; healthcare workers; diabetes, chronic kidney disease, malignancy, malnutrition; residents of congregate settings |
| ≥ 15 mm | Persons with NO risk factors at all |
CLINICAL PEARL
The test measures whether the immune system has met the organism, which is not the same as whether the patient has the disease. A positive result in India, where BCG is universal and background infection is high, is expected in a large part of the healthy population. And a negative result carries little reassurance in exactly the patients most at risk, because severe disease itself suppresses the response. The test is therefore weak in both directions, and cannot stand alone.
Causes of False Results
- False positive — previous BCG vaccination (though the effect wanes over years); infection with non-tuberculous mycobacteria; incorrect reading of erythema instead of induration; and the booster phenomenon, in which a first test restimulates waning immunity so that a second test weeks later appears larger and is misread as recent conversion
- False negative (anergy) — overwhelming tuberculosis itself, particularly miliary disease and tuberculous meningitis; HIV and other immunosuppression; corticosteroids and cytotoxic drugs; malnutrition; measles, chickenpox and other viral infections and live viral vaccination within 6 weeks; sarcoidosis, lymphoma; extremes of age; and the window period of 4 to 6 weeks after infection before hypersensitivity develops
- Technical errors — subcutaneous injection, deteriorated or improperly stored PPD, and reading at the wrong time
Uses and Limitations
- Uses — supporting a diagnosis of tuberculosis in children (where it carries more weight than in adults); detecting latent infection before immunosuppressive or anti-TNF therapy, before transplantation and in contacts; epidemiological surveys of infection prevalence; and assessing cell-mediated immunity
- Limitations — it cannot distinguish latent infection from active disease, nor recent from remote infection; it is confounded by BCG and environmental mycobacteria; it requires two visits; and reading is subjective
- Interferon-gamma release assays use ESAT-6 and CFP-10, antigens absent from BCG, so they are not confounded by vaccination, require only one visit and are objective — but they are expensive and equally unable to separate latent from active disease
- A strongly positive test in a young child is more meaningful, since it suggests recent infection and a real risk of progression, which is why contact tracing in children is worthwhile
Applied Aspects
- Never diagnose or exclude tuberculosis on this test alone — it supports a clinical diagnosis and nothing more
- Measure induration by palpation, not erythema; reading redness is the commonest technical error and consistently overcalls the result
- A negative test in a very ill patient may indicate anergy rather than absence of infection, and this is exactly the situation in which the disease is most dangerous
- Its value is limited in India by universal BCG and a high prevalence of infection, which is why the national programme relies on bacteriological confirmation rather than on tuberculin testing
- Use it to screen for latent infection before anti-TNF therapy, transplantation or prolonged steroids, where identifying and treating latent tuberculosis prevents a potentially fatal reactivation
- Store PPD correctly and use it promptly; it is light-sensitive and adsorbs to glass and plastic, and deteriorated antigen gives false negatives
- A single test result cannot be compared with one done elsewhere unless the same antigen strength and reading method were used; conversion should be judged on tests performed under comparable conditions
- Treat latent infection where it is identified before immunosuppression, usually with isoniazid or a rifamycin-based regimen; identifying it and doing nothing wastes the test
Nature and Preparation
- BCG (bacille calmette-GUÉrin) is a live attenuated vaccine derived from Mycobacterium bovis
- Attenuated by Calmette and Guérin over 13 years and 231 subcultures on glycerine-potato-bile medium, during which it irreversibly lost its virulence
- Supplied freeze-dried with normal saline as diluent, because it is highly sensitive to light and heat; the vial must be protected from sunlight and discarded within 4 to 6 hours of reconstitution
- Dose and route — 0.1 mL intradermally (0.05 mL in newborns) over the left deltoid at the insertion, using a separate sterile syringe
- In India it is given AT birth or as early as possible, under the Universal Immunisation Programme
Normal Course and Adverse Effects
- Expected course — a papule appears at 2 to 3 weeks, becomes a small ulcer at 5 to 6 weeks, and heals over 6 to 12 weeks leaving a permanent scar of 4 to 8 mm. This is a normal reaction, not a complication, and parents must be told so or they will present alarmed and the lesion may be treated as an abscess
- Tuberculin conversion follows in 6 to 8 weeks
- Adverse effects — a persistent ulcer or abscess (usually from injection that was too deep or too large a dose); regional lymphadenitis, occasionally suppurative; keloid at the site; and rarely osteitis
- Disseminated BCG infection ("BCGosis") — rare but often fatal, occurring in infants with undiagnosed severe combined immunodeficiency or symptomatic HIV. This is the principal hazard of vaccinating at birth, before such conditions can be recognised
CLINICAL PEARL
BCG protects children against the forms of tuberculosis that kill them, and adults against very little. Its efficacy against miliary tuberculosis and tuberculous meningitis in young children is high and consistent, whereas protection against adult pulmonary disease has ranged from 0 to 80% across trials. That is why it is given at birth in high-burden countries and not used at all in many low-burden ones — the same vaccine, a different calculation.
Efficacy, Contraindications and Other Uses
- Variable protection against adult pulmonary tuberculosis, attributed to differences in BCG strain, prior exposure to environmental mycobacteria (which may already confer or mask immunity), nutrition, genetics and latitude
- It does not prevent infection and does not prevent reactivation of existing latent infection; it limits haematogenous dissemination after infection
- Protection wanes over 10 to 20 years, and revaccination is not recommended, having shown no benefit
- Contraindications — symptomatic HIV and other cellular immunodeficiency, generalised eczema or infected dermatoses at the site, and pregnancy; it is a live vaccine
- Other uses — intravesical BCG for superficial bladder carcinoma, where it provokes a local immune response and is highly effective; and historically in leprosy prophylaxis
- The absence of a scar does not reliably indicate absence of vaccination, and a scar does not guarantee protection
Applied Aspects
- Explain the expected local reaction to parents before they leave; the ulcer at 6 weeks is normal and needs only to be kept clean and dry, with no dressing, antibiotic or incision
- Do not incise or drain a BCG lymphadenitis routinely; most resolve spontaneously, and incision produces a chronic discharging sinus
- Withhold BCG in a symptomatic HIV-positive infant, and consider a family history of unexplained infant deaths or severe infection, which may indicate undiagnosed combined immunodeficiency
- Give BCG intradermally, not subcutaneously; deep injection causes abscess and adenitis and is the commonest technical error
- BCG remains justified in India because the burden of childhood miliary disease and tuberculous meningitis is high, and it is against precisely these that protection is best
- BCG interferes with the tuberculin test but not with interferon-gamma release assays, which is a practical argument for the latter when screening a vaccinated population for latent infection
Definitions
| Term | Definition |
|---|---|
| Mono-resistance | Resistance to a single first-line drug |
| Rifampicin-resistant (RR-TB) | Resistance to rifampicin, with or without resistance to other drugs; detected by CBNAAT and treated as multidrug-resistant disease |
| Multidrug-resistant (MDR-TB) | Resistance to at least isoniazid and rifampicin — the two most important drugs |
| Pre-XDR | MDR plus resistance to any fluoroquinolone |
| Extensively drug-resistant (XDR-TB) | MDR plus resistance to a fluoroquinolone and to at least one of bedaquiline or linezolid |
| Primary resistance | In a patient never treated — acquired by transmission from a resistant case, and therefore a measure of failure of control |
| Acquired (secondary) resistance | Developing during treatment — a measure of failure of management |
How Resistance Arises
Spontaneous mutations arise randomly at about 1 in 106 for isoniazid and 1 in 108 for rifampicin, independent of the drug → A cavity contains up to 108 to 109 bacilli, so resistant mutants to any single drug are already present before treatment starts → Giving one effective drug kills the sensitive majority → The resistant mutants multiply without competition — the drug selects rather than creates resistance → Because resistance to two drugs requires both mutations, its probability is the product — about 1 in 1014, which exceeds the number of bacilli in any lesion → Hence multidrug therapy prevents resistance, and adding a single drug to a failing regimen creates it
- Key mutations — rpoB for rifampicin (which is why molecular detection is straightforward and why rifampicin resistance is a useful proxy for MDR); katG and inhA for isoniazid; gyrA for fluoroquinolones; pncA for pyrazinamide; rrs for aminoglycosides
- Causes in practice — incomplete or interrupted treatment, inadequate regimens, monotherapy (including the addition of a single drug to a failing regimen), poor drug quality, malabsorption, and unsupervised treatment
CLINICAL PEARL
Adding one drug to a failing regimen is the single most reliable way to create extensive resistance. If the patient is failing, the population is already resistant to what they are taking — so the new drug is effectively monotherapy against a large bacillary load, and resistance to it follows within weeks. This is why a failing regimen must be replaced with at least two, preferably three or four, new effective drugs, guided by sensitivity testing.
Diagnosis and Treatment
- CBNAAT (GeneXpert MTB/RIF) detects rifampicin resistance in about 2 hours and is the entry point; line probe assay extends this to isoniazid, fluoroquinolones and injectables within days; liquid culture with phenotypic sensitivity testing remains the reference
- Universal drug susceptibility testing is now policy in India — every diagnosed patient should have at least rifampicin resistance tested before treatment begins
- Modern regimens are oral, the injectable agents having been largely abandoned because of irreversible deafness and renal damage
- Bedaquiline (an ATP synthase inhibitor, which prolongs the QT interval), linezolid (causing myelosuppression and optic and peripheral neuropathy), pretomanid, fluoroquinolones (levofloxacin, moxifloxacin), clofazimine and cycloserine form the core of current regimens
- Shorter all-oral regimens of 6 to 9 months have replaced the former 18 to 24 month courses for eligible patients, which has greatly improved completion and cure rates
- Treatment is free through the national programme, with nutritional support under the Nikshay Poshan Yojana, and outcomes are followed through the Nikshay system
Applied Aspects
- Never add a single drug to a failing regimen — the single most important rule in tuberculosis management
- Test for rifampicin resistance in every patient before starting, and particularly in previously treated patients, contacts of resistant cases, those failing treatment, and people living with HIV
- Ensure treatment is completed; supervision, patient support, addressing cost and distance, and treating adverse effects promptly do more to prevent resistance than any drug
- India has among the largest burdens of drug-resistant tuberculosis in the world, driven by a large private sector with variable regimens, over-the-counter sale of antitubercular drugs, and incomplete treatment
- Screen contacts of drug-resistant cases, since primary transmission of resistant strains is now a major contributor and such patients have never taken a drug
- Monitor for toxicity actively — electrocardiogram for bedaquiline and moxifloxacin, blood counts and visual acuity for linezolid; the regimens are long and the adverse effects are what cause patients to stop
Definition
Lepra reactions are acute episodes of inflammation occurring during the chronic course of leprosy, caused by a sudden change in the immunological balance between host and bacillus. They are the principal cause of nerve damage and permanent disability.
| Feature | Type 1 — reversal reaction | Type 2 — erythema nodosum leprosum |
|---|---|---|
| Immunology | Type IV cell-mediated (delayed) hypersensitivity — a sudden increase in cell-mediated immunity | Type III immune complex hypersensitivity, with complement activation and neutrophil infiltration |
| Occurs in | Borderline forms — BT, BB, BL (the immunologically unstable part of the spectrum) | Lepromatous and borderline lepromatous (LL, BL) — where the antigen load is high |
| Skin | Existing lesions become red, swollen, warm and tender; no new lesions | Crops of new, tender, red subcutaneous nodules appearing anywhere, including on previously normal skin |
| Systemic features | Usually absent or mild | Prominent — fever, malaise, arthralgia, iritis, orchitis, neuritis, lymphadenitis, nephritis |
| Nerve involvement | Sudden, severe and the dominant feature — pain, tenderness and rapid loss of function; a medical emergency | Neuritis occurs but is usually less abrupt |
| Timing | Often in the first 6 months of treatment, or in pregnancy and the puerperium | Usually after some months of treatment; tends to recur over years |
| Treatment | Corticosteroids — prednisolone, tapered over months | Thalidomide (highly effective but teratogenic); corticosteroids; clofazimine in high dose |
CLINICAL PEARL
A reaction is not treatment failure, and stopping the antileprosy drugs is the wrong response. Reactions commonly begin after treatment starts, precisely because killed bacilli release antigen and the immune balance shifts — which patients and inexperienced clinicians read as the drugs "not working" or "causing harm". Multidrug therapy must be continued and the reaction treated alongside it, because it is the reaction, not the infection, that is destroying the nerve.
Recognition and Management
- Assess nerve function at every visit — voluntary muscle testing and sensory testing of the hands, feet and eyes; deterioration is the indication for urgent treatment
- Type 1 reaction with neuritis is an emergency — prednisolone started at once, typically 40 to 60 mg daily and tapered over 12 to 24 weeks; delay of even days may cause irreversible nerve damage and permanent deformity
- Rest the affected limb and splint it; analgesia for pain
- Type 2 (ENL) — mild episodes respond to analgesics and clofazimine; severe or recurrent episodes require thalidomide, which is dramatically effective. It must never be given to a woman of childbearing potential without a strict pregnancy prevention programme, given its history
- Treat the eye — iritis requires urgent topical steroids and mydriatics; untreated it causes blindness
- Continue multidrug therapy throughout the reaction
The Lucio Phenomenon and Differential Diagnosis
- LUCIO phenomenon — a rare severe necrotising vasculitis occurring in diffuse non-nodular lepromatous leprosy, with painful irregular purpuric lesions that ulcerate; it carries a high mortality and requires steroids and full multidrug therapy
- Differential diagnosis of type 2 reaction — erythema nodosum from other causes (tuberculosis, streptococcal infection, sarcoidosis, drugs, inflammatory bowel disease), other panniculitides, and vasculitis
- Distinguish a reaction from relapse — a reaction is acute with inflammation and pain, whereas relapse is insidious, painless, with new lesions appearing slowly and a rising bacteriological index. Relapse requires retreatment; a reaction requires anti-inflammatory treatment
Applied Aspects
- Warn every patient about reactions before starting treatment, and tell them to return immediately if a lesion becomes red or painful, or if there is numbness or weakness; this single instruction prevents much permanent disability
- Do not stop multidrug therapy for a reaction, and do not interpret the reaction as drug allergy
- Nerve function assessment must be routine, not occasional; silent neuropathy occurs and is detected only by testing
- Steroids are given for months, not days, and premature tapering causes rebound; the patient needs monitoring for steroid adverse effects, including hyperglycaemia and infection
- Thalidomide is available in India under restricted conditions, and its use demands documented contraception and counselling; the drug that caused the greatest disaster in the history of pharmacology is also the best treatment for this condition
- Disability from leprosy is almost entirely preventable, and is a marker of delayed diagnosis or untreated reactions rather than of the infection itself
The Organism and Epidemiology
- Leptospira interrogans — a very fine, tightly coiled spirochaete with characteristic hooked ends, giving a "shepherd's crook" or question-mark appearance; actively motile
- Too slender for the Gram stain; demonstrated by dark-ground microscopy and silver impregnation
- The only pathogenic spirochaete that can be cultured — in EMJH or Korthof medium, but growth takes weeks
- Over 250 serovars; important ones include icterohaemorrhagiae, canicola, pomona, hardjo and autumnalis
- A zoonosis — the reservoir is rodents above all, and also dogs, cattle and pigs, which excrete leptospires in urine without themselves being ill, often for life
- Transmission — contact of abraded skin or mucous membranes with water, soil or mud contaminated by animal urine; the organism survives for weeks in warm, neutral or slightly alkaline fresh water but dies in salt water, acid and on drying
- Occupational and recreational exposure — rice-field and sugarcane workers, sewer workers, miners, veterinarians, abattoir staff, and those wading in floodwater or swimming in fresh water
CLINICAL PEARL
Leptospirosis follows the monsoon, and this is the single most useful epidemiological fact about it in India. Flooding washes rodent urine into standing water through which people wade barefoot with cuts and abrasions, so outbreaks reliably follow heavy rain and flooding in Kerala, Tamil Nadu, Maharashtra, Gujarat and the Andamans. A febrile illness after flood exposure should raise it immediately, because early doxycycline is effective and late presentation is not.
Clinical Features
Incubation 5 to 14 days → leptospiraemic (septicaemic) phase, 4 to 7 days — abrupt high fever, severe headache, intense myalgia especially of the calves and lumbar region, and conjunctival suffusion (redness without discharge or purulent exudate), which is characteristic → Organisms are present in blood and CSF during this phase → A brief afebrile interval of 1 to 3 days → immune phase — antibody appears, organisms disappear from blood and are excreted in urine; aseptic meningitis, uveitis and rash may occur → In severe disease the phases merge into WEIL disease
- WEIL disease (icteric leptospirosis), in about 5 to 10% — the triad of jaundice, acute kidney injury and bleeding. The jaundice is characteristically deep and orange with relatively preserved liver enzymes, which is a useful discriminator from viral hepatitis. Renal failure is typically non-oliguric with hypokalaemia
- Pulmonary haemorrhage — increasingly recognised and now a leading cause of death, with haemoptysis and rapidly progressive respiratory failure
- Other features — aseptic meningitis, myocarditis and arrhythmia, uveitis (which may appear months later), rhabdomyolysis with a raised creatine kinase, and thrombocytopenia
Diagnosis and Treatment
| Phase | Investigation |
|---|---|
| First week (leptospiraemic) | Blood culture in EMJH medium; dark-ground microscopy of blood (insensitive and easily confused with fibrin threads); PCR, which is the most useful early test |
| Second week onward (immune) | Urine culture and PCR; serology — IgM ELISA (the practical mainstay) and the microscopic agglutination test (mat), which is the reference standard, serovar-specific, and requires paired sera showing a fourfold rise |
| Supportive | Raised creatinine with hypokalaemia; thrombocytopenia; raised bilirubin with only modestly raised transaminases; raised creatine kinase |
- Treatment — doxycycline for mild disease; intravenous benzylpenicillin or ceftriaxone for severe disease. Antibiotics are most effective when started early, ideally within the first 4 days, before organ damage is established
- A jarisch-herxheimer reaction may follow the first dose
- Supportive care determines survival in severe disease — dialysis for renal failure, ventilation for pulmonary haemorrhage, correction of electrolytes and platelets
- Prophylaxis — doxycycline 200 mg weekly for those with heavy short-term occupational or flood exposure, which is used in Indian outbreaks
Applied Aspects
- Ask about flood, field and water exposure in any acute febrile illness during and after the monsoon; the history is what makes the diagnosis, since serology is negative in the first week
- Look for conjunctival suffusion and calf tenderness; together with the exposure history they are more useful than any early laboratory test
- Start doxycycline on suspicion rather than waiting for confirmation; it is cheap, safe and effective early, and the alternative is a preventable death
- Jaundice with renal failure and near-normal transaminases should suggest leptospirosis rather than viral hepatitis — a pattern worth remembering in monsoon-season practice
- Consider it alongside dengue, malaria, scrub typhus and enteric fever in the acute undifferentiated fever of monsoon India; these five account for most such presentations and several respond to specific treatment
- Prevention is environmental — rodent control, protective footwear in fields, covering wounds, avoiding wading in floodwater, and doxycycline prophylaxis for those who cannot avoid exposure
Overview
- Extrapulmonary tuberculosis accounts for 15 to 20% of cases in immunocompetent patients, and a considerably higher proportion in HIV infection and in children
- It is usually paucibacillary, which governs everything about its diagnosis — smears are usually negative, cultures are frequently negative, and the diagnosis often rests on histology, imaging, adenosine deaminase and a response to treatment
- It is not infectious (except laryngeal disease and open sinuses), so isolation and contact tracing are generally unnecessary
| Site | Features and diagnosis |
|---|---|
| Lymph node (the commonest) | Cervical nodes especially ("scrofula"); matted, may form a cold abscess and a discharging sinus. Diagnosis by fine needle aspiration for cytology, AFB and CBNAAT, or excision biopsy showing caseating granuloma |
| Pleural | An exudative effusion, lymphocyte-predominant, with a high adenosine deaminase and low glucose; pleural biopsy raises the yield considerably over fluid alone |
| Meningeal | The most lethal form. Insidious onset with fever, headache, vomiting and cranial nerve palsies (especially the sixth). CSF shows raised protein, low glucose, lymphocytosis and a cobweb clot; basal exudates and hydrocephalus on imaging. Treat ON suspicion — delay causes death and permanent disability |
| Spinal (POTT disease) | Usually thoracolumbar; destroys the vertebral bodies and intervertebral disc, producing a gibbus, cold (psoas) abscess and paraplegia. MRI is the investigation of choice |
| Abdominal | Ileocaecal disease mimicking CROHN disease and carcinoma; ascites with a high protein and high adenosine deaminase; "doughy" abdomen; adhesions and obstruction |
| Genitourinary | Sterile pyuria with acid urine is the classical clue; renal scarring, ureteric stricture and a contracted bladder. In women, tubal disease causing infertility — an important cause in India |
| Pericardial | Effusion progressing to constrictive pericarditis; steroids are given in addition to antitubercular treatment |
| Miliary | Haematogenous dissemination; "millet seed" mottling on chest radiograph, choroid tubercles on fundoscopy, and a frequently negative tuberculin test from anergy |
CLINICAL PEARL
Tuberculous meningitis must be treated on suspicion, because waiting for proof costs the patient their neurological future. Cerebrospinal fluid microscopy is positive in only a small minority, culture takes weeks, and even CBNAAT is insensitive on this specimen. Outcome depends almost entirely on the stage at which treatment begins — patients treated while still fully conscious do well, and those treated after coma frequently die or survive disabled. The threshold for starting must therefore be low.
Diagnostic Approach
- Obtain tissue or fluid wherever possible, and send it for histopathology, AFB smear, mycobacterial culture and CBNAAT — not for histology alone
- CBNAAT is recommended as the initial test on extrapulmonary specimens, including cerebrospinal fluid, lymph node aspirate and pleural fluid, since it also reports rifampicin resistance
- Adenosine deaminase is a cheap and useful supportive test in pleural, peritoneal and pericardial fluid and in cerebrospinal fluid, though it is not specific
- Imaging — MRI for spinal and central nervous system disease, ultrasound and computed tomography for abdominal and nodal disease, and a chest radiograph in every case, which may show coexisting pulmonary disease
- Search for concurrent pulmonary disease, which if present is easier to confirm bacteriologically and settles the diagnosis
Treatment and Applied Aspects
- The same first-line drugs are used, with the intensive and continuation phases as in pulmonary disease; duration is extended to 9 to 12 months for meningeal, spinal and disseminated disease
- Corticosteroids are indicated in tuberculous meningitis (where they reduce mortality) and in pericarditis; they reduce the inflammatory damage that is itself a large part of the pathology
- Surgery for spinal instability or cord compression, hydrocephalus (shunting), intestinal obstruction, and constrictive pericarditis
- Response is assessed clinically and radiologically, since there is no sputum to follow; paradoxical enlargement of nodes or lesions during treatment is common and does not by itself indicate failure
- Test for HIV in every case, and particularly in disseminated or multi-site disease
- Extrapulmonary tuberculosis is frequently diagnosed late in India because it is not suspected and because tissue is not obtained; the practical lesson is to biopsy early and to send the specimen for microbiology as well as histology
Definition and General Properties
A virus is an obligate intracellular infectious agent containing only one type of nucleic acid, DNA or RNA but never both, enclosed in a protein coat, which replicates only inside a living host cell using that cell's synthetic machinery.
| Property | Virus | Bacterium |
|---|---|---|
| Nucleic acid | DNA OR RNA — never both | Both DNA and RNA |
| Ribosomes | Absent | Present (70S) |
| Cell wall | Absent | Peptidoglycan present |
| Growth on inanimate media | Never — obligate intracellular | Most can be cultured |
| Multiplication | By assembly of separately synthesised components — not by binary fission | Binary fission |
| Size | 20 to 300 nm — passes bacterial filters | 0.2 to 10 micrometres |
| Antibiotic sensitivity | Not sensitive | Sensitive |
| Interferon | Sensitive | Not sensitive |
Structure
- The complete infectious particle is the virion
- Nucleic acid (the genome) — DNA or RNA, single- or double-stranded, linear or circular, segmented or unsegmented
- Capsid — the protein coat, built of repeating subunits called capsomeres. It protects the genome, provides the attachment sites, and carries the main antigens. Nucleic acid + capsid = the nucleocapsid
- Envelope (in some viruses) — a lipid bilayer derived from the host cell membrane during budding, studded with virus-coded glycoprotein peplomers or SPIKES
- Symmetry — icosahedral (cubical), with 20 triangular faces; helical, with capsomeres arranged in a spiral around the nucleic acid; or complex, as in the poxviruses and bacteriophages
- Some viruses carry enzymes within the virion where the host cannot supply them — reverse transcriptase in retroviruses and hepatitis B, and RNA polymerase in negative-sense RNA viruses
| Feature | Enveloped viruses | Naked (non-enveloped) viruses |
|---|---|---|
| Lipid solvents (ether, alcohol, bile, detergents) | Destroyed — the envelope is lipid | Resistant |
| Survival in the environment | Poor — labile to drying, heat and acid | Good — survive for long periods |
| Usual transmission | Direct contact, droplet, blood, sexual — "wet" routes | Faecal-oral, fomites — they survive the stomach and the environment |
| Release from the cell | Budding, often without killing the cell | Cell lysis |
| Examples | Herpes, influenza, HIV, hepatitis B and C, rabies, measles, dengue | Polio, hepatitis A and E, rota, adeno, papilloma, parvo, norovirus |
CLINICAL PEARL
Whether a virus has an envelope predicts how it spreads and how it is destroyed. An envelope is lipid, so soap, alcohol and bile dissolve it — which is why enveloped viruses cannot survive the gut or the environment and must be passed by direct contact, and why hand hygiene with soap works so well against them. Naked viruses survive the stomach and persist on surfaces, so they spread by the faecal-oral route and need a sporicidal-grade disinfectant such as hypochlorite rather than alcohol.
Classification
- Classified by the type of nucleic acid, symmetry, presence of an envelope, size, and site of replication
- The baltimore classification groups viruses I to VII by how they generate messenger RNA, which is the step every virus must accomplish
- Three rules for the DNA viruses, each with one exception worth remembering — all are double-stranded except parvovirus (single-stranded); all replicate in the nucleus except poxvirus (cytoplasm, since it carries its own polymerase); and all have icosahedral symmetry except poxvirus (complex)
- Most RNA viruses are single-stranded (except reovirus and rotavirus) and replicate in the cytoplasm (except influenza and retroviruses)
| DNA virus family | Features and members |
|---|---|
| Herpesviridae | Enveloped, icosahedral; establish latency. HSV-1 and 2, VZV, CMV, EBV, HHV-6, 7, 8 |
| Adenoviridae | Naked, icosahedral with fibres at the vertices; respiratory, ocular and gut infection |
| Papillomaviridae | Naked, circular DNA; warts and cervical carcinoma |
| Hepadnaviridae | Enveloped, partially double-stranded circular DNA, with reverse transcriptase. Hepatitis B |
| Parvoviridae | The smallest; naked, single-stranded DNA. Parvovirus B19 |
| Poxviridae | The largest; complex symmetry, cytoplasmic replication. Smallpox (eradicated), molluscum contagiosum |
Viral Replication
Adsorption (attachment) — a virion protein binds a specific receptor on the cell surface, which determines the host range and tissue tropism — CD4 and CCR5 for HIV, sialic acid for influenza → penetration — by receptor-mediated endocytosis, or by fusion of the envelope with the cell membrane → uncoating — the capsid is removed and the genome released. From this moment no complete infectious virus can be recovered from the cell — the eclipse phase → biosynthesis — early proteins (enzymes and regulators) are made first, the genome is replicated, then late proteins (structural capsid proteins) → assembly (maturation) — genome and capsid proteins are packaged into new virions → release — by lysis (naked viruses) or by budding through the membrane, acquiring the envelope (enveloped viruses) → The whole cycle takes hours and yields hundreds to thousands of progeny per cell — the one-step growth curve
- The eclipse phase is the fundamental difference from bacterial multiplication — the virus temporarily ceases to exist as a particle and is present only as its disassembled components, which is why viruses cannot be said to divide
Outcomes of Viral Infection at the Cellular Level
| Outcome | Mechanism | Examples |
|---|---|---|
| Cytolytic (cytocidal) | The cell is killed and lysed, releasing progeny; host protein synthesis is shut off | Poliovirus, rhinovirus, influenza |
| Persistent (chronic) | Virus is produced continuously by budding without killing the cell | Hepatitis B, HIV, LCM virus |
| Latent | The genome persists but no infectious virus is made until reactivation | All herpesviruses — HSV in sensory ganglia, VZV in dorsal root ganglia, EBV in B cells |
| Transforming | The cell is immortalised and loses growth control rather than dying | HPV, EBV, hepatitis B, HTLV-1 |
| Abortive | The virus enters but cannot complete replication in that cell type | Non-permissive cells |
| No visible change | Replication without cytopathic effect | Rubella — detected only by interference with a challenge virus |
Applied Aspects
- Antibiotics have no effect on viruses, because viruses have no cell wall, no ribosomes and no metabolism of their own; prescribing them for viral illness is the single largest source of antibiotic waste and resistance
- Antiviral drugs are few and narrow precisely because the virus uses host machinery, so there are very few targets that are not also host targets; the successful ones exploit virus-specific enzymes such as polymerases and proteases
- Receptor specificity explains tropism and therefore the clinical picture — poliovirus for anterior horn cells, rabies for neurons, HIV for CD4 lymphocytes
- Alcohol hand rub works well against enveloped viruses but poorly against naked ones, which is why hypochlorite is used for norovirus and rotavirus outbreaks and why soap and water remains important
- Vaccination is the principal weapon against viral disease, since treatment options are limited; smallpox has been eradicated and polio nearly so
- Antigenic change is what defeats immunity — the segmented genome of influenza permits reassortment and pandemic shift, and the error-prone reverse transcriptase of HIV generates constant variation
- Latency is why herpesvirus infection is lifelong, and why immunosuppression of any cause reactivates a virus acquired decades earlier
Approaches to Diagnosis
| Approach | What is detected | Comment |
|---|---|---|
| Direct demonstration | The virus particle or its inclusions | Electron microscopy; light microscopy for inclusion bodies and giant cells |
| Antigen detection | Viral protein in the specimen | Immunofluorescence, ELISA, rapid lateral-flow tests — fast and positive early, before antibody appears |
| Nucleic acid detection | Viral genome | PCR and real-time PCR — the most sensitive method, and now the mainstay; also quantifies viral load |
| Isolation in culture | Live replicating virus | The historical reference standard; slow, demanding and now largely confined to reference laboratories |
| Serology | The host antibody response | IgM indicates recent infection; a fourfold rise in IgG between paired sera is diagnostic. Retrospective, and useless in the immunosuppressed |
Specimens
- Collect early — virus shedding is usually greatest in the first few days of illness and falls rapidly, so a late specimen is often negative
- Respiratory — nasopharyngeal swab or aspirate, throat swab, bronchoalveolar lavage; Enteric — stool and rectal swab; Vesicular rash — vesicle fluid and the scraped base of the lesion; Neurological — cerebrospinal fluid, and brain tissue post mortem; Blood — for serology, antigen and nucleic acid
- Viral transport medium is required for swabs — a buffered balanced salt solution with protein (albumin or gelatin) to stabilise the virus and antibiotics to suppress bacterial and fungal overgrowth
- Transport on ice at 4°C for prompt processing, or at −70°C for prolonged storage; never at −20°C, which damages viruses more than either
- Paired sera — acute and convalescent samples 10 to 14 days apart, stored and tested together in the same run
CLINICAL PEARL
Ordinary freezing at −20°C is worse for a virus than refrigeration at 4°C. The slow formation of ice crystals at domestic freezer temperatures disrupts the envelope and destroys infectivity, while a short period at 4°C does not. The rule is therefore 4°C for prompt processing, or −70°C for storage — and never the freezer in between, which is exactly where specimens tend to be put by someone acting sensibly.
Microscopy and Inclusion Bodies
- Electron microscopy — can visualise the virion directly and identify it by morphology; useful in vesicular rashes and in diarrhoea (rotavirus, norovirus). It requires about 106 particles per mL and is available in few centres
- Immunoelectron microscopy uses antibody to clump the particles, raising sensitivity
- Inclusion bodies — aggregates of virus or of altered cell material, seen by light microscopy and characteristic enough in some infections to be diagnostic
| Inclusion body | Site | Virus |
|---|---|---|
| NEGRI body | Cytoplasmic, in hippocampal and Purkinje neurons | Rabies — pathognomonic |
| COWDRY type A | Intranuclear | Herpes simplex, varicella-zoster |
| "owl eye" inclusion | Large intranuclear with a surrounding halo | Cytomegalovirus |
| Guarnieri body | Cytoplasmic | Smallpox (variola) |
| Molluscum (Henderson-Paterson) body | Cytoplasmic, large | Molluscum contagiosum |
| Multinucleate giant cells | TZANCK smear from a vesicle base | Herpes simplex and varicella-zoster — a rapid bedside test, though it cannot distinguish between them |
| Warthin-Finkeldey giant cells | Lymphoid tissue | Measles |
Cultivation, Serology and Molecular Methods
- Cell culture — growth is recognised by cytopathic effect (CPE) (rounding, giant cell formation, inclusion bodies, detachment), by haemadsorption (red cells adhering to infected cells expressing haemagglutinin), by interference, or by immunofluorescence
- Serological tests — ELISA is the workhorse; also haemagglutination inhibition, complement fixation, neutralisation (the most specific) and immunofluorescence
- Interpreting serology — IgM means recent infection; a fourfold rise in IgG titre between paired sera is diagnostic; IgG avidity distinguishes recent from past infection, which is particularly useful in toxoplasma and rubella in pregnancy
- Molecular methods — PCR, reverse-transcriptase PCR for RNA viruses, real-time PCR for viral load (essential in HIV, hepatitis B and C monitoring), multiplex panels, and sequencing for genotyping and resistance
- Limitations of molecular tests — they detect nucleic acid, not viable virus, so they may stay positive after recovery; and they are exquisitely vulnerable to contamination, requiring separated work areas and controls
Matching the Test to the Illness
| Suspected infection | Specimen and test of choice |
|---|---|
| Herpes encephalitis | CSF PCR — and start acyclovir before the result |
| Dengue | NS1 antigen from day 1 to 5; IgM from day 5 onward — the two together cover the whole illness |
| HIV | Fourth-generation ELISA (p24 antigen with antibody) for screening, confirmed on further assays; viral load by PCR for monitoring |
| Hepatitis B | HBsAg for current infection; the full panel to stage it; HBV DNA to guide treatment |
| Rabies (ante-mortem) | Saliva PCR, nuchal skin biopsy, corneal impression; post-mortem brain for NEGRI bodies and immunofluorescence |
| Vesicular rash | Vesicle fluid for PCR; TZANCK smear as a rapid bedside test |
| Congenital infection | Infant IgM (which does not cross the placenta), and virus detection in urine or saliva within 3 weeks for CMV |
| Diarrhoea in a child | Stool ELISA or PCR for rotavirus; electron microscopy in outbreaks |
Applied Aspects
- Choose the test to match the stage of illness — antigen and nucleic acid early, antibody later; testing for IgM on day two of a dengue illness or requesting a culture in convalescence both waste the specimen
- Tell the laboratory which virus is suspected; virology is not a single test, and the specimen, medium and assay differ completely between viruses
- A single positive IgG means past exposure, not current disease, which is a persistent source of misdiagnosis and of unnecessary treatment
- Serology is unreliable in the immunosuppressed, who may not mount an antibody response; antigen or nucleic acid detection is required
- Rapid point-of-care tests have transformed practice in India — dengue NS1 and IgM, HIV, hepatitis B surface antigen and influenza can all be tested without a virology laboratory
- Handle specimens as infectious and observe biosafety; hepatitis B and HIV are transmitted to laboratory and clinical staff by needlestick, and some viral agents require BSL-3 or BSL-4 containment
- Collect the specimen in the first few days; viral shedding falls rapidly, and a swab taken in the second week of illness is frequently negative in a patient who certainly has the infection
- Use viral transport medium and never plain saline for swabs; the protein stabiliser and antibiotics in the medium are what allow the virus to survive transport
- A rising titre requires paired sera tested together in the same run, since inter-assay variation can otherwise create or conceal a fourfold change
- PCR positivity does not prove infectivity; nucleic acid persists after viable virus has gone, which matters when deciding how long to isolate a patient
- Avidity testing distinguishes primary from past infection in pregnancy, which is the distinction that determines fetal risk in toxoplasma, rubella and cytomegalovirus
- Rapid tests have brought virology to the bedside in India, and their availability at district level changes management far more than the marginally higher sensitivity of a reference laboratory assay
- Electron microscopy needs about a million particles per mL, so it is useful in diarrhoeal stool and vesicle fluid where virus is abundant, and useless in blood or cerebrospinal fluid
The Herpesvirus Group
- Large enveloped viruses with double-stranded DNA and icosahedral symmetry, replicating in the nucleus and producing COWDRY type A intranuclear inclusions
- The defining property of the whole family is latency — after primary infection the virus persists for life in a particular cell type and reactivates when immunity falls
| Virus | Site of latency | Principal diseases |
|---|---|---|
| HSV-1 | Trigeminal ganglion | Gingivostomatitis, herpes labialis, keratitis, encephalitis |
| HSV-2 | Sacral ganglia | Genital herpes, neonatal herpes, meningitis |
| VZV (HHV-3) | Dorsal root and cranial ganglia | Chickenpox (primary); herpes zoster (reactivation) |
| EBV (HHV-4) | B lymphocytes | Infectious mononucleosis; Burkitt lymphoma; nasopharyngeal carcinoma |
| CMV (HHV-5) | Monocytes and lymphocytes | Congenital infection; disease in transplant recipients and AIDS |
| HHV-6 and 7 | T lymphocytes | Roseola infantum (exanthem subitum) |
| HHV-8 | B lymphocytes | KAPOSI sarcoma |
Herpes Simplex Virus
- Transmission — by direct contact with lesions or with saliva or genital secretions, including from asymptomatic shedders, which is why most transmission occurs from people who do not know they are infected
- Primary infection — often subclinical. When symptomatic: acute gingivostomatitis in young children (painful vesicles and ulcers in the mouth with fever and refusal to feed), or primary genital herpes, which is more severe and prolonged than recurrences
- Recurrent infection — herpes labialis ("cold sore") preceded by tingling, triggered by fever, sunlight, stress, menstruation or immunosuppression
- Serious forms — herpetic keratitis with a dendritic corneal ulcer, a leading infectious cause of corneal blindness, in which topical corticosteroids are contraindicated as they cause corneal perforation; herpes simplex encephalitis, the commonest sporadic fatal encephalitis, caused by HSV-1 and characteristically affecting the temporal lobes, with fever, confusion, seizures and personality change; neonatal herpes acquired at delivery, which may be localised or disseminated and carries a high mortality; eczema herpeticum; and herpetic whitlow
- Diagnosis — PCR of cerebrospinal fluid is the test of choice in encephalitis and has replaced brain biopsy; TZANCK smear from a vesicle base shows multinucleate giant cells; immunofluorescence, culture and serology
- Treatment — acyclovir, given intravenously and immediately on suspicion in encephalitis, since delay converts a treatable illness into a fatal or disabling one; valacyclovir and famciclovir orally; suppressive therapy for frequent recurrences
CLINICAL PEARL
Suspected herpes encephalitis is treated before it is proved. Untreated mortality exceeds 70%, and among survivors severe neurological damage is usual; with prompt acyclovir both fall dramatically. Since the drug is safe and the disease is not, the correct action on suspicion — fever with confusion, seizures or temporal lobe signs — is to start intravenous acyclovir at once and stop it later if the PCR is negative.
Varicella-zoster Virus
- Primary infection is chickenpox (varicella) — highly infectious, spread by respiratory droplets and by vesicle fluid; the patient is infectious from about 2 days before the rash until all lesions have crusted
- The rash is centripetal (denser on the trunk than the limbs) and appears in crops, so lesions at different stages — macule, papule, vesicle, pustule and crust — are present simultaneously. This pleomorphism is the classical distinction from smallpox, in which all lesions were at the same stage and the rash was centrifugal
- Complications — secondary bacterial infection of the skin (the commonest); varicella pneumonia, which is far more serious in adults, in pregnancy and in the immunosuppressed; cerebellar ataxia; encephalitis; and REYE syndrome if aspirin is given
- Congenital varicella syndrome — from maternal infection in the first 20 weeks: limb hypoplasia, cicatricial skin scarring, eye and neurological defects. Perinatal varicella, when the mother develops the rash from 5 days before to 2 days after delivery, is severe and requires immunoglobulin
- Herpes zoster (shingles) — reactivation from a dorsal root or cranial ganglion, producing a painful vesicular rash in a dermatomal distribution that does not cross the midline, often preceded by pain for days
- Important forms and complications of zoster — herpes zoster ophthalmicus (ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve; involvement of the nasociliary branch gives hutchinson sign, a lesion on the tip of the nose, which predicts ocular involvement); RAMSAY hunt syndrome (geniculate ganglion, with facial palsy and vesicles in the external auditory meatus); post-herpetic neuralgia, which is common in the elderly and may be intractable; and disseminated zoster in the immunosuppressed
- Treatment and prevention — acyclovir or valacyclovir, most effective within 72 hours; analgesia including amitriptyline, gabapentin or pregabalin for neuralgia; varicella vaccine (live attenuated) and the recombinant zoster vaccine for older adults; and varicella-zoster immunoglobulin for exposed susceptible neonates, pregnant women and immunosuppressed contacts
Comparison of Chickenpox and Smallpox
| Feature | Chickenpox (varicella) | Smallpox (variola) — eradicated |
|---|---|---|
| Prodrome | Mild or absent; rash appears early | Severe for 3–4 days with high fever and backache; the rash appears as the fever falls |
| Distribution | Centripetal — denser on the trunk | Centrifugal — denser on the face and limbs |
| Palms and soles | Spared | Involved |
| Evolution of lesions | Pleomorphic — macules, papules, vesicles, pustules and crusts all present together, appearing in crops | Monomorphic — all lesions at the same stage |
| Depth | Superficial, unilocular, "dew drop on a rose petal" | Deep-seated, multilocular and umbilicated |
| Scarring | Rare unless secondarily infected | Deep pitted scarring usual |
| Mortality | Very low in healthy children | Around 30% |
Applied Aspects
- Start intravenous acyclovir on suspicion of herpes encephalitis and do not wait for imaging or cerebrospinal fluid results
- Never prescribe topical steroids for a red eye without excluding dendritic ulceration; steroid-treated herpetic keratitis can perforate the cornea and blind the patient
- Do not give aspirin to a child with chickenpox or influenza, because of Reye syndrome
- Chickenpox in an adult or in pregnancy is a serious illness, not the trivial childhood disease, and warrants antiviral treatment and assessment for pneumonia
- Treat zoster within 72 hours where possible, and consider it in unexplained dermatomal pain before the rash appears
- Zoster in a young adult should prompt HIV testing; it is a recognised early indicator of immunosuppression and is a common presentation of undiagnosed HIV in India
- Chickenpox is infectious from 2 days before the rash, so exposure has already occurred by the time the diagnosis is made and contact tracing must look backwards
- A pregnant woman exposed to chickenpox needs urgent assessment of her immune status, and varicella-zoster immunoglobulin if susceptible
- Look for Hutchinson sign in ophthalmic zoster — a vesicle on the tip of the nose indicates nasociliary involvement and predicts ocular disease, requiring urgent ophthalmological referral
- Post-herpetic neuralgia is prevented better than it is treated, which is the argument for early antiviral treatment and for zoster vaccination in the elderly
- Disseminated zoster crossing several dermatomes indicates significant immunosuppression and requires intravenous treatment and investigation of the cause
- Neonatal herpes carries a high mortality and may present without skin lesions; caesarean section is advised where the mother has active genital lesions at delivery
- Aspirin is contraindicated in chickenpox because of Reye syndrome, and paracetamol should be used instead — a point worth stating explicitly to families
- Herpes is transmitted by asymptomatic shedders, so the absence of visible lesions does not mean the absence of risk, and this is important in counselling about genital herpes
- Zoster vaccination is recommended for older adults in many countries and reduces both shingles and post-herpetic neuralgia; the recombinant vaccine is preferred to the live one in the immunosuppressed
- Varicella vaccine is live and contraindicated in pregnancy and in significant immunosuppression, which is precisely the group most in need of protection — hence the role of immunoglobulin after exposure
- The Tzanck smear cannot distinguish HSV from VZV, so where the distinction matters clinically, PCR or immunofluorescence is required
- Acyclovir is remarkably safe because it is a prodrug activated by viral thymidine kinase, so it is concentrated only in infected cells — which is why it can be given in high dose with little toxicity
- Ensure adequate hydration with intravenous acyclovir, which can crystallise in the renal tubules and cause acute kidney injury if given rapidly to a dehydrated patient
Structure and Antigens
- Hepatitis B virus is a hepadnavirus — a 42 nm DANE particle with an outer envelope and an inner core, containing partially double-stranded circular DNA and its own DNA polymerase with reverse transcriptase activity
- It is the smallest DNA virus genome of medical importance, and the only DNA virus that replicates through an RNA intermediate — which is why nucleoside analogues developed for HIV also work against it
- CccDNA (covalently closed circular DNA) persists in the hepatocyte nucleus as a stable template, which is why infection can be suppressed but rarely cured and why treatment is usually long-term
| Antigen or antibody | Meaning |
|---|---|
| HBsAg (surface, "australia antigen") | The first marker to appear and the marker of current infection. Present in excess as spheres and filaments in serum. Persistence beyond 6 months defines chronic infection |
| Anti-HBs | The protective antibody — indicates immunity, from recovery or from vaccination. It is the only marker produced by the vaccine |
| HBcAg (core) | Not detectable in serum — it remains within the hepatocyte |
| Anti-HBc IgM | Recent infection; and the only marker present during the window period |
| Anti-HBc IgG (total) | Past or present infection; never produced by vaccination, so it distinguishes natural infection from immunisation |
| HBeAg | A marker of active replication and high infectivity |
| Anti-HBe | Seroconversion, with falling replication and infectivity — though pre-core mutants replicate actively while remaining HBeAg negative |
| HBV DNA | The most accurate measure of replication; used to decide on and monitor treatment |
CLINICAL PEARL
The window period is why a blood donation can be infectious with every routine test negative. HBsAg has disappeared and anti-HBs has not yet appeared, so the only marker present is anti-HBc IgM. A patient in this phase appears uninfected on surface antigen testing alone, which is why anti-HBc is included in blood donor screening and why nucleic acid testing has been added where it can be afforded.
Transmission and Natural History
- Parenteral — transfusion, unsafe injections, needlestick injury, shared needles among drug users, dialysis, tattooing, ear piercing and shared razors. Hepatitis B is roughly 100 times more infectious than HIV by needlestick
- Sexual transmission, and perinatal (vertical) transmission from mother to infant, which is the dominant route in high-prevalence countries
- The age at infection determines the outcome — this is the key epidemiological fact. Over 90% of infected neonates become chronic carriers, about 30% of young children, but fewer than 5% of immunocompetent adults. The immature immune system fails to clear the virus but also fails to produce symptoms
- Incubation 45 to 180 days (average about 75), much longer than hepatitis A
- Acute hepatitis — a prodrome with anorexia, nausea, malaise and sometimes arthralgia, urticaria and a serum-sickness-like illness from immune complexes, then jaundice; fulminant hepatic failure in about 1%
- Chronic infection — progresses through immune-tolerant, immune-active and inactive carrier phases; leads to cirrhosis and to hepatocellular carcinoma, which HBV can cause without cirrhosis because the viral DNA integrates into the host genome
- Extrahepatic disease — polyarteritis nodosa and membranous glomerulonephritis, both immune-complex mediated
Interpreting the Serological Profile
| HBsAg | Anti-HBs | Anti-HBc | HBeAg | Interpretation |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| + | − | IgM | + | Acute hepatitis B, highly infectious |
| + | − | IgG | + | Chronic hepatitis B with active replication |
| + | − | IgG | − | Chronic infection, low replication (or a pre-core mutant) |
| − | − | IgM only | − | The window period |
| − | + | IgG | − | Recovered, with natural immunity |
| − | + | Negative | − | Vaccinated — the absence of anti-HBc is what proves it |
| − | − | − | − | Susceptible — vaccinate |
Prevention and Treatment
- The vaccine is recombinant HBsAg produced in yeast — safe, highly effective, and included in the pentavalent vaccine in India's Universal Immunisation Programme, with a birth dose within 24 hours
- It was the first vaccine shown to prevent a cancer, since preventing chronic infection prevents hepatocellular carcinoma
- Anti-HBs above 10 mIU/mL indicates protection; non-responders (about 5 to 10%) require revaccination
- Perinatal prophylaxis — hepatitis B immunoglobulin plus the first vaccine dose within 12 hours of birth to infants of HBsAg-positive mothers, with antiviral therapy for the mother if the viral load is high; this prevents the great majority of vertical transmission
- Post-exposure prophylaxis after needlestick — immunoglobulin and vaccine according to the source and the recipient's antibody status
- Treatment of chronic infection — tenofovir or entecavir (potent, with a high barrier to resistance) and pegylated interferon-alpha. Treatment suppresses rather than cures, because cccDNA persists, so it is usually long-term or lifelong
- Other measures — safe injection practice, screening of blood donors, sterilisation of instruments, and universal precautions
Hepatitis D and Comparison with Other Hepatitis Viruses
- Hepatitis D (delta agent) is a defective RNA virus that requires the HBsAg envelope of hepatitis B to assemble and transmit — so it can only infect someone who has hepatitis B
- CO-infection (both acquired together) usually resolves as the hepatitis B does; superinfection of an established hepatitis B carrier causes severe acute hepatitis and rapid progression to cirrhosis, and is far more dangerous
- Preventing hepatitis B prevents hepatitis D entirely — the hepatitis B vaccine protects against both
| Feature | HAV | HBV | HCV | HEV |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| Genome | RNA | DNA | RNA | RNA |
| Envelope | Naked | Enveloped | Enveloped | Naked |
| Transmission | Faecal-oral | Parenteral, sexual, perinatal | Parenteral chiefly | Faecal-oral, waterborne |
| Incubation | 2–6 weeks | 6 weeks–6 months | 2 weeks–6 months | 2–9 weeks |
| Chronicity | Never | 5% of adults, over 90% of neonates | Up to 80% — the highest | Only in the immunosuppressed |
| Special risk | Cholestatic relapse | Cirrhosis, hepatocellular carcinoma | Cirrhosis, carcinoma | Fulminant hepatitis in pregnancy, with about 20% mortality |
| Vaccine | Yes | Yes | NO | Available in China |
Applied Aspects
- Vaccinate all healthcare workers and students and check the antibody response; this is the single most effective protection against an occupational infection that is 100 times more transmissible than HIV
- Give the birth dose within 24 hours; delay is the commonest reason perinatal transmission is not prevented, and it must not wait for maternal test results
- Screen for HBsAg in every pregnant woman, and arrange immunoglobulin and vaccine for the infant where positive
- Screen for HBV before immunosuppression — particularly before rituximab, chemotherapy, transplantation or anti-TNF therapy; reactivation can cause fulminant hepatic failure and is preventable with prophylactic antivirals
- Do not diagnose "carrier" and discharge; chronic infection requires long-term monitoring for viral load, liver function, fibrosis and hepatocellular carcinoma surveillance by ultrasound and alpha-fetoprotein
- Unsafe injections and unscreened blood remain significant sources in India, and single-use syringes, auto-disable devices and proper waste disposal prevent more infection than any treatment
Poxviruses
- The largest and most complex viruses, visible by light microscopy as elementary bodies (Paschen bodies); brick-shaped with complex symmetry, a double-stranded DNA genome, and cytoplasmic replication — the only DNA viruses to do so, because they carry their own DNA-dependent RNA polymerase
- Highly resistant to drying, so scabs and clothing remained infectious for long periods
| Virus | Disease and features |
|---|---|
| Variola (smallpox) | Eradicated — the last natural case was in Somalia in 1977 and the WHO declared eradication in 1980. The rash was centrifugal (denser on face and limbs) with all lesions at the same stage, deep-seated and umbilicated, involving palms and soles. Guarnieri bodies were the cytoplasmic inclusions |
| Vaccinia | The vaccine strain used for eradication; now a vector for recombinant vaccines |
| Monkeypox (mpox) | A zoonosis of west and central Africa that has spread internationally; similar to smallpox but milder, with prominent lymphadenopathy, which smallpox did not cause |
| Molluscum contagiosum | Common in children and in HIV; pearly umbilicated papules containing large cytoplasmic molluscum (Henderson-Paterson) bodies. Self-limiting in the immunocompetent |
| Orf and milker's nodule | Occupational zoonoses from sheep and cattle |
CLINICAL PEARL
Smallpox eradication succeeded because of properties of the virus, not merely because of effort. There was no animal reservoir, no subclinical carriage (every infected person had a visible characteristic rash), no latency, only one stable serotype, and a cheap, heat-stable vaccine. Surveillance and ring vaccination could therefore chase the last cases. Diseases lacking these features — measles has a high transmissibility, polio has silent infection — are correspondingly harder.
Adenoviruses
- Naked icosahedral viruses with double-stranded DNA and characteristic fibres projecting from the vertices, which carry the attachment protein and the haemagglutinin
- Being naked, they are resistant to drying, detergents and acid, so they survive on surfaces, in water and through the stomach
- Over 50 serotypes, with different serotypes causing different syndromes
- Diseases — respiratory (pharyngitis, pharyngoconjunctival fever from swimming pools, and acute respiratory disease in military recruits); ocular — epidemic keratoconjunctivitis, a highly contagious infection often spread in eye clinics by contaminated tonometers and hands; gastrointestinal — types 40 and 41 cause infantile diarrhoea, second only to rotavirus; haemorrhagic cystitis in children; and disseminated disease in the immunosuppressed
- Adenoviruses are widely used as vectors in gene therapy and in vaccines, including some COVID-19 vaccines
Papillomaviruses and Polyomaviruses
- Human papillomavirus (HPV) — naked icosahedral viruses with circular double-stranded DNA; over 200 types, infecting squamous epithelium and replicating only in differentiating keratinocytes, which is why the virus has never been grown in ordinary cell culture
- Low-risk types 6 and 11 cause genital warts (condyloma acuminatum) and recurrent respiratory papillomatosis in children born to infected mothers
- High-risk types 16 and 18 cause about 70% of cervical carcinoma, and also anal, vulval, vaginal, penile and oropharyngeal cancer. The oncoproteins E6 and E7 inactivate the tumour suppressors p53 and Rb respectively
- HPV is a necessary cause of cervical cancer — virtually every case contains high-risk viral DNA, which is an unusually strong causal relationship in oncology
- Prevention — the HPV vaccine (bivalent, quadrivalent and nonavalent recombinant L1 virus-like particle vaccines), most effective given to girls before sexual debut; and screening by cytology or HPV DNA testing, which is more sensitive and is replacing cytology
- Polyomaviruses — JC virus causes progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy in the profoundly immunosuppressed, notably in AIDS and with natalizumab and rituximab; BK virus causes haemorrhagic cystitis and nephropathy in transplant recipients
Parvovirus and the Remaining DNA Virus Families
| Family | Distinguishing feature | Chief human disease |
|---|---|---|
| Poxviridae | Largest; complex symmetry; cytoplasmic replication | Smallpox (eradicated), mpox, molluscum contagiosum |
| Herpesviridae | Enveloped; establish latency | HSV, VZV, CMV, EBV, HHV-8 |
| Adenoviridae | Naked with fibres at the vertices | Respiratory, ocular and enteric infection |
| Papillomaviridae | Naked, circular DNA; cannot be cultured conventionally | Warts and cervical carcinoma |
| Polyomaviridae | Naked, circular DNA | JC virus (PML) and BK virus |
| Hepadnaviridae | Partially double-stranded; reverse transcriptase | Hepatitis B |
| Parvoviridae | Smallest; the only single-stranded DNA virus of man | Parvovirus B19 — erythema infectiosum, aplastic crisis, hydrops fetalis |
Applied Aspects
- Cervical cancer is the second commonest cancer in Indian women and is largely preventable; HPV vaccination and screening together could eliminate it, and India has begun introducing an indigenously developed vaccine
- Vaccinate before exposure; the vaccine is prophylactic and does not treat established infection or disease, so its value depends entirely on timing
- Screening remains necessary in vaccinated women, since the vaccine does not cover every oncogenic type
- Epidemic keratoconjunctivitis spreads in eye clinics; disinfect tonometers, wash hands between patients and use single-use drops, since outbreaks are frequently iatrogenic
- Smallpox eradication remains the template for surveillance-based elimination, and its lessons underlie the polio and measles programmes; laboratory stocks and the possibility of deliberate release keep it a biosecurity concern
- Molluscum contagiosum in an adult with widespread lesions should prompt HIV testing, since extensive or facial disease in adults suggests immunosuppression
- Adenovirus survives on surfaces and in swimming pools because it is naked, which is why outbreaks follow shared towels, inadequately chlorinated water and contaminated ophthalmic equipment
- HPV testing is replacing cytology for cervical screening because it is more sensitive and can be done on a self-collected sample, which matters greatly where access to gynaecological examination is limited
- Genital warts and cervical cancer are caused by different HPV types, so the presence of warts does not indicate cancer risk and their absence does not exclude it — a distinction patients find reassuring once explained
- Recurrent respiratory papillomatosis in a child is acquired from maternal genital warts at delivery, and is difficult to treat — another reason for vaccinating before childbearing age
- Consider PML in a patient on natalizumab or rituximab who develops progressive focal neurological signs; JC virus reactivation is a recognised and serious complication of these agents
- BK virus causes haemorrhagic cystitis and nephropathy after transplantation, and is monitored by viral load; the treatment is reduction of immunosuppression rather than an antiviral
- Mpox has emerged as an international concern, and the prominent lymphadenopathy that distinguishes it from smallpox is the clinical feature to look for
- Smallpox vaccination stopped in 1980, so most of the world's population is now susceptible — which is why laboratory stocks and the possibility of deliberate release remain a biosecurity concern
- Adenovirus vectors are used in modern vaccines, including some COVID-19 vaccines, and pre-existing immunity to the vector is one of the practical limitations of that platform
- Molluscum is self-limiting in healthy children and usually needs no treatment; destructive interventions in a young child are rarely justified
- India has introduced an indigenously developed HPV vaccine, which substantially reduces the cost barrier that has limited coverage until now
- Cervical screening should continue in vaccinated women, since the vaccine does not cover every oncogenic type and coverage of the population is incomplete
- Naked viruses need hypochlorite rather than alcohol, which governs outbreak control for adenovirus in eye clinics and for enteric viruses on wards
- Warts in a child are usually innocent and self-limiting, but anogenital warts warrant careful consideration of the mode of acquisition
- Vaccinating boys as well as girls reduces transmission and prevents anal and oropharyngeal cancer, and is increasingly recommended where resources permit
- Poxvirus lesions are resistant and remain infectious in scabs and bedding, which shaped the isolation practices used during smallpox eradication and applies again to mpox
- Eradication required no animal reservoir and no silent carriage; measuring a candidate disease against those criteria is how the feasibility of polio and measles elimination is judged
Systems for Cultivating Viruses
Viruses are obligate intracellular parasites and cannot be grown on any inanimate medium. Three systems are used: cell (tissue) culture, the embryonated egg, and laboratory animals.
| Type of cell culture | Nature | Uses and limitations |
|---|---|---|
| Primary cell culture | Taken directly from tissue; normal diploid chromosomes; survives only a few subcultures — monkey kidney, human amnion, chick embryo fibroblast | The most sensitive for isolating virus from clinical specimens, and used for vaccine production; but expensive, variable and may carry latent viruses |
| Diploid (semi-continuous) cell strain | Diploid, survives about 50 subcultures — human embryonic lung (WI-38, MRC-5) | Free of latent virus and safe for vaccine production |
| Continuous (established) cell line | Heteroploid, malignant, immortal — HeLa, HEp-2, Vero, KB, McCoy | Convenient, indefinitely propagated and easy to maintain; but their malignant nature makes them unsuitable for producing vaccines for human use |
Detection of Viral Growth in Cell Culture
- Cytopathic effect (CPE) — visible degeneration of the monolayer: rounding and clumping, syncytium (giant cell) formation in respiratory syncytial virus, measles and herpes; inclusion bodies; and detachment. The pattern and timing suggest the virus
- Haemadsorption — infected cells expressing a haemagglutinin on their surface bind added red cells; this detects influenza and parainfluenza viruses before any cytopathic effect appears
- Haemagglutination of red cells by virus in the culture fluid
- Interference — a virus producing no cytopathic effect (rubella) is detected because it blocks the growth of a second challenge virus that normally does
- Immunofluorescence, ELISA and PCR on the culture, which detect growth earlier and identify the virus specifically
- Plaque assay — areas of dead cells under an agar overlay, allowing the virus to be quantified as plaque-forming units
CLINICAL PEARL
Continuous cell lines are convenient precisely because they are malignant, which is why they cannot be used for vaccines. HeLa and similar lines divide indefinitely because they are cancer cells, which makes them ideal for a diagnostic laboratory. But material grown in them could carry oncogenic nucleic acid into a recipient, so vaccine production uses primary or diploid cells instead — a case where the property that makes a tool useful in one setting disqualifies it in another.
Embryonated Egg and Animal Inoculation
| Route in the embryonated egg | Virus grown |
|---|---|
| Chorioallantoic membrane | Poxviruses (producing visible POCKS, which were used to distinguish variola from vaccinia and herpes) and herpes simplex |
| Allantoic cavity | Influenza (the basis of influenza vaccine production), mumps — giving a high yield |
| Amniotic cavity | Primary isolation of influenza from clinical specimens |
| Yolk sac | Chlamydiae, rickettsiae and some viruses |
- Animal inoculation — the oldest method, now largely superseded but still used where no other system works: suckling mice for coxsackieviruses and arboviruses (inoculated intracerebrally); mice for rabies; the mouse footpad for Mycobacterium leprae; primates for hepatitis
- Uses — primary isolation, study of pathogenesis, vaccine production and testing, and antibody production
- Limitations — cost, ethical constraints, animal facilities, and the fact that many human viruses do not infect animals at all
Applied Aspects
- Cell culture is no longer routine in most laboratories, having been displaced by PCR and antigen detection, which are faster, cheaper and safer; it is retained in reference laboratories for isolation, vaccine work and antiviral susceptibility testing
- Egg-based influenza vaccine production explains two practical points — the several months required to produce a new vaccine each season, and the caution formerly advised in egg allergy
- Vero cells are used for rabies vaccine, which replaced the older nerve-tissue vaccines that caused neuroparalytic complications; this is an important improvement in Indian practice
- Culture remains the only method that proves the virus is viable, which PCR cannot do; this matters when deciding whether a person is still infectious
- Handle cultures at the appropriate biosafety level, since propagating a virus greatly increases its concentration and therefore the hazard
- Some important viruses have never been cultured conventionally — hepatitis B, HPV and norovirus among them — which is why their study depended on molecular methods and why vaccines against them are recombinant
Definition and Types
Interferons are a family of host-coded cytokines produced by cells in response to viral infection and other stimuli, which induce an antiviral state in neighbouring cells.
| Type | Class | Chief source | Principal role |
|---|---|---|---|
| Interferon-alpha | Type I | Leucocytes | Antiviral — the main defence in the first days of infection, before antibody appears |
| Interferon-beta | Type I | Fibroblasts and epithelial cells | Antiviral |
| Interferon-gamma | Type II ("immune" interferon) | Th1 lymphocytes and NK cells | Chiefly immunomodulatory — the principal macrophage-activating cytokine, essential against intracellular organisms; weaker antiviral action |
| Interferon-lambda | Type III | Epithelial cells | Antiviral at mucosal surfaces |
- The chief inducer is double-stranded RNA, which is produced during the replication of most viruses but is absent from uninfected human cells — so it is an unambiguous signal of infection. Also induced by synthetic double-stranded RNA and by bacterial products
A virus-infected cell detects double-stranded RNA and synthesises interferon → Interferon is secreted and binds receptors on neighbouring cells — it does not protect the cell that made it, which is already doomed → The neighbouring cell transcribes antiviral proteins → 2'-5' oligoadenylate synthetase activates RNase L, which degrades viral mRNA → Protein kinase R phosphorylates eIF-2, blocking translation → Mx proteins and others inhibit further steps → The neighbouring cell is now in an antiviral state and the virus cannot replicate in it
CLINICAL PEARL
Interferon does not attack the virus; it makes the next cell an unusable host. The infected cell is already lost, and interferon is its warning to its neighbours. That is why interferon acts very early — within hours, long before antibody — and why it is species-specific but not virus-specific: it protects against any virus that comes next, but human interferon is useless in another species.
Properties
- Species-specific but not virus-specific — interferon induced by one virus protects against many others, but only in cells of the same species; this is why interferon for human use must be human or recombinant human protein
- Acts on the cell, not on the virus — it induces the host cell to make antiviral proteins rather than attacking the virion directly
- Produced within hours, far earlier than antibody, and is therefore the principal defence in the first days of a viral illness; its appearance corresponds with the fall in virus titre and the start of recovery
- Also responsible for systemic symptoms — fever, malaise, myalgia and fatigue, which are largely interferon effects rather than direct viral damage. This is why therapeutic interferon produces a flu-like illness
- Other actions — antiproliferative (hence its use in some malignancies), up-regulation of MHC class I (improving recognition of infected cells by cytotoxic T cells), and activation of NK cells and macrophages
Therapeutic Uses and Limitations
- Pegylated interferon-alpha — chronic hepatitis B and formerly hepatitis C, where it has been almost entirely replaced by direct-acting antivirals that are more effective, oral and far better tolerated
- Interferon-alpha in malignancy — hairy cell leukaemia, chronic myeloid leukaemia (largely superseded by imatinib), melanoma, renal cell carcinoma, Kaposi sarcoma
- Interferon-beta — relapsing-remitting multiple sclerosis
- Interferon-gamma — chronic granulomatous disease and severe malignant osteopetrosis
- Also used in condylomata acuminata and some viral keratitis
- Adverse effects — a flu-like syndrome with fever, chills and myalgia (almost universal); bone marrow suppression; depression and suicidal ideation, which require active screening; autoimmune thyroid disease; alopecia; and injection site reactions
- Limitations — parenteral administration, high cost, poor tolerability, and modest efficacy compared with modern direct-acting antivirals
Applied Aspects
- Interferon explains why one viral infection can transiently protect against another, and why the systemic symptoms of very different viral illnesses feel so similar
- Screen for depression before and during interferon therapy; psychiatric adverse effects are common, serious and frequently missed
- Direct-acting antivirals have displaced interferon in hepatitis C, turning a difficult year-long injectable treatment with about half the patients cured into a 12-week oral course curing over 95% — among the most striking therapeutic advances of recent decades
- Defects in interferon signalling cause unusual susceptibility to viral and mycobacterial infection, and were identified as a cause of severe COVID-19 in previously healthy people
- Interferon is a therapeutic disappointment relative to its promise; discovered in 1957 and expected to be a universal antiviral, it proved too toxic and too weak for most infections — a useful caution about extrapolating from a well-understood mechanism
- Its true importance is as a natural defence rather than as a drug, and understanding it explains the timing and the symptoms of viral illness
The Virus and its Transmission
- Cytomegalovirus (HHV-5) — the largest of the herpesviruses, an enveloped double-stranded DNA virus establishing lifelong latency in monocytes and their precursors
- Highly species-specific and slow-growing in culture, producing a characteristic cytopathic effect with cell enlargement — "cytomegaly"
- Seroprevalence exceeds 80 to 90% in Indian adults, acquisition occurring in childhood; primary infection in the immunocompetent is almost always silent
- Transmission — saliva, urine, breast milk, sexual contact, blood transfusion, organ transplantation, and transplacentally. Infected children excrete virus in urine and saliva for months to years, which is why young children are a major source
Clinical Disease
| Setting | Features |
|---|---|
| Immunocompetent | Usually asymptomatic. May cause a mononucleosis-like illness with fever and atypical lymphocytes but a negative Paul-Bunnell (heterophile) test — the commonest cause of "heterophile-negative mononucleosis" |
| Congenital | The commonest congenital viral infection and a leading infectious cause of sensorineural deafness and of neurodevelopmental disability. Risk is highest with primary maternal infection. Features: intrauterine growth restriction, microcephaly, periventricular calcification, chorioretinitis, hepatosplenomegaly, jaundice, thrombocytopenia with a "blueberry muffin" rash. Most infected infants are asymptomatic at birth, yet a proportion develop late deafness |
| Transplant recipients | The single most important infection after solid organ and stem cell transplantation — fever, leucopenia, pneumonitis, hepatitis, colitis, retinitis; and it also predisposes to graft rejection and to other infections |
| Advanced HIV (CD4 below 50) | CMV retinitis — a progressive "pizza pie" or "cottage cheese and ketchup" retinopathy causing blindness; also colitis, oesophagitis and encephalitis |
| Transfusion-associated | Prevented by leucodepletion or by CMV-negative products for at-risk recipients |
CLINICAL PEARL
Most congenitally infected infants look normal at birth and some go deaf later, which is why screening matters. Roughly 90% are asymptomatic at delivery, and a proportion of those develop progressive sensorineural hearing loss over the following years — after the newborn hearing screen has been passed. Congenital CMV is therefore a leading cause of non-genetic deafness that is invisible at the one moment everybody is looking.
Diagnosis and Treatment
- Histology — large cells with the characteristic "owl eye" intranuclear inclusion surrounded by a clear halo
- PCR for CMV DNA with quantitative viral load is the mainstay, used both to diagnose and to monitor treatment and to guide pre-emptive therapy in transplant recipients
- Pp65 antigenaemia assay in leucocytes; culture on human fibroblasts, with the shell vial method giving a faster result
- Serology — IgM and IgG with avidity testing to distinguish primary from past infection in pregnancy, which is the key distinction for fetal risk
- Congenital infection is confirmed by detecting virus in urine or saliva within the first 3 weeks of life; after that, a positive result cannot distinguish congenital from perinatal acquisition
- Treatment — ganciclovir and oral valganciclovir (limited by myelosuppression); foscarnet (nephrotoxic and causes electrolyte disturbance) and cidofovir as alternatives; letermovir for prophylaxis in stem cell transplantation. Valganciclovir in symptomatic congenital infection improves hearing and developmental outcomes
Applied Aspects
- Test the urine or saliva within 3 weeks in a suspected congenital infection; after that window the opportunity to prove it is lost, and with it the case for antiviral treatment
- Arrange long-term audiological follow-up for congenitally infected infants, including those who are asymptomatic and pass the newborn screen
- Advise pregnant women on hygiene — handwashing after nappy changes, not sharing utensils or food with toddlers, and avoiding kissing young children on the mouth; these simple measures reduce seroconversion and there is no vaccine
- Monitor transplant recipients with quantitative PCR and use pre-emptive or prophylactic antiviral therapy, which has substantially improved outcomes
- Examine the fundus in any patient with advanced HIV and visual symptoms; CMV retinitis is sight-threatening, progresses rapidly and is treatable, and antiretroviral therapy restoring the CD4 count is the definitive answer
- Use leucodepleted or CMV-negative blood for neonates, transplant recipients and other at-risk patients
The Virus
- Epstein-Barr virus (HHV-4) — an enveloped double-stranded DNA herpesvirus that infects B lymphocytes by binding CD21 (CR2, the complement receptor), and also oropharyngeal epithelium
- It immortalises B cells in vitro, producing continuously growing cell lines — the first human virus shown to transform cells, and the reason it was linked to malignancy
- Latency is in B lymphocytes, with lifelong persistence and intermittent shedding in saliva
- Transmission by saliva — hence "the kissing disease"; also by transfusion and transplantation. Over 90% of adults worldwide are seropositive, and in India infection is usually acquired in early childhood, when it is asymptomatic
Infectious Mononucleosis
- Occurs when primary infection is delayed to adolescence or adult life, which is why it is a disease of students in high-income countries and is relatively uncommon in India, where infection occurs early and silently
- Incubation 4 to 7 weeks; the classical triad is fever, pharyngitis with an exudative tonsillitis, and generalised lymphadenopathy (especially posterior cervical), with marked fatigue
- Splenomegaly in about half, with a small risk of splenic rupture — which is why contact sports are avoided for several weeks
- Other features — palatal petechiae, periorbital oedema, mild hepatitis with deranged liver enzymes, and rarely haemolytic anaemia, thrombocytopenia, airway obstruction from tonsillar enlargement, Guillain-Barré syndrome or encephalitis
- The ampicillin rash — a florid maculopapular eruption in about 90% of patients given ampicillin or amoxicillin for the presumed streptococcal sore throat. It is not a true penicillin allergy, and labelling the patient allergic for life on this basis is a common and consequential error
- Blood picture — absolute lymphocytosis with more than 10% atypical lymphocytes (Downey cells), which are reactive T cells responding to the infected B cells
CLINICAL PEARL
The atypical lymphocytes of glandular fever are not infected cells; they are the immune response looking at them. Epstein-Barr virus infects B lymphocytes, but the large activated cells filling the blood film are reactive cytotoxic T cells. Almost all the clinical features — the fever, the lymphadenopathy, the splenomegaly — are consequences of the host response rather than of viral damage, which is why the illness is severe in adolescents with a vigorous immune system and silent in infants.
Diagnosis
- PAUL-bunnell (heterophile antibody) test — detects an IgM antibody that agglutinates sheep or horse red cells. The differential absorption step is essential: the heterophile antibody of infectious mononucleosis is absorbed by OX red cells but not by guinea-pig kidney, which distinguishes it from Forssman antibody and serum sickness antibody
- The monospot test is the rapid slide version, and is the usual bedside test
- Heterophile antibody is negative in about 10% of adults and in most young children, so a negative result does not exclude the diagnosis
- EBV-specific serology — VCA IgM indicates acute infection; VCA IgG persists for life; and EBNA antibody appears late, after 6 to 8 weeks, so its presence excludes acute infection — a particularly useful point
- PCR for EBV DNA — used chiefly to monitor post-transplant lymphoproliferative disease and in nasopharyngeal carcinoma
Ebv-associated Malignancy and Applied Aspects
- Burkitt lymphoma — endemic in equatorial Africa, associated with holoendemic malaria as a cofactor; characterised by the t(8;14) translocation activating the c-MYC oncogene, and a jaw or abdominal mass in children
- Nasopharyngeal carcinoma — strongly associated with EBV, with genetic and dietary cofactors; common in southern China and in north-east India
- Hodgkin lymphoma in a proportion of cases; post-transplant lymphoproliferative disease, driven by unchecked proliferation of EBV-infected B cells when T-cell immunity is suppressed — treated by reducing immunosuppression and with rituximab; and oral hairy leukoplakia in HIV
- Management of mononucleosis is supportive — rest, analgesia and fluids; corticosteroids only for airway obstruction or severe haematological complications; antivirals are not indicated
- Avoid ampicillin and amoxicillin in a sore throat with lymphadenopathy until streptococcal infection is confirmed, and do not label the resulting rash as penicillin allergy
- Advise avoidance of contact sports and heavy lifting for 3 to 4 weeks where the spleen is enlarged, since rupture may be fatal and may follow trivial trauma
The Virus
- Parvovirus B19 — the smallest DNA virus, a naked icosahedral virus with single-stranded DNA; it is the only medically important single-stranded DNA virus and the only human pathogen in its family
- Being naked it is highly resistant to heat, detergents and lipid solvents, and survives in the environment and in blood products — it resists the usual viral inactivation steps in plasma manufacture
- Its receptor is the P antigen (globoside) on erythroid precursors in the bone marrow — and this single fact explains the entire disease. People rare individuals lacking the P antigen are naturally resistant
- It replicates only in dividing cells, and destroys erythroid progenitors, arresting red cell production
- Transmission — respiratory droplets, transplacental, and blood products
CLINICAL PEARL
One receptor explains every manifestation of parvovirus B19. It binds the P antigen on red cell precursors, so it stops erythropoiesis for about a week. In a healthy person, whose red cells live 120 days, that is imperceptible. In chronic haemolysis, where red cells live days, it causes an aplastic crisis. In the fetus, with rapid erythropoiesis and a short red cell lifespan, it causes hydrops fetalis. Same virus, same week of arrest, three entirely different consequences.
Clinical Syndromes
| Syndrome | Host | Features |
|---|---|---|
| Erythema infectiosum (fifth disease) | Healthy children | A "slapped cheek" facial rash followed by a lacy reticular rash on the limbs. By the time the rash appears the child is NO longer infectious, since it is immune-complex mediated — so exclusion from school is pointless |
| Arthropathy | Adults, especially women | Symmetrical polyarthritis of hands, wrists and knees, closely mimicking rheumatoid arthritis; usually self-limiting over weeks |
| Aplastic crisis | Chronic haemolytic anaemia — sickle cell disease, thalassaemia, hereditary spherocytosis, G6PD deficiency | Abrupt severe anaemia with a REticulocyte count of essentially zero; may require urgent transfusion. Often without a rash |
| Pure red cell aplasia | Immunosuppressed — HIV, transplant, chemotherapy | Chronic anaemia from persistent infection, since antibody cannot be made to clear it; treated with intravenous immunoglobulin |
| Hydrops fetalis and fetal loss | Fetus, especially in the second trimester | Severe fetal anaemia causing high-output cardiac failure and hydrops; may resolve spontaneously or require intrauterine transfusion. It does not cause congenital malformation |
| Papular-purpuric "gloves and socks" syndrome | Young adults | A distinctive acral rash with fever |
Diagnosis and Management
- Serology — B19 IgM indicates recent infection and is the usual test in an immunocompetent patient; IgG indicates past infection and immunity
- PCR for B19 DNA — required in the immunosuppressed, who may not make antibody, and in aplastic crisis and fetal infection, where viral load is very high
- Bone marrow shows giant pronormoblasts with intranuclear inclusions and an absence of later erythroid forms
- Management — supportive in the healthy; transfusion in aplastic crisis; intravenous immunoglobulin in chronic infection in the immunosuppressed, since it supplies the antibody they cannot make; and fetal monitoring with middle cerebral artery Doppler and intrauterine transfusion where indicated
- There is NO vaccine and no specific antiviral
Applied Aspects
- Consider parvovirus in any sudden severe anaemia in a patient with a chronic haemolytic disorder; a reticulocyte count of near zero in the face of profound anaemia is the diagnostic clue, and is the opposite of what haemolysis alone would produce
- This matters greatly in India, where sickle cell disease and thalassaemia are common; an aplastic crisis may be the first serious event in an undiagnosed haemoglobinopathy
- Infectivity precedes the rash, so a child with erythema infectiosum need not be excluded from school — the transmission has already happened during the preceding non-specific illness
- Advise susceptible pregnant women to avoid known outbreaks, though this is of limited practical value given asymptomatic transmission; and investigate maternal exposure with serology
- Consider parvovirus before diagnosing rheumatoid arthritis in a woman with an acute symmetrical polyarthritis, particularly with a history of contact with children; the illness resolves and the diagnosis would otherwise be lifelong
- Immunosuppressed patients with unexplained chronic anaemia should be tested by PCR rather than serology, and respond well to immunoglobulin
Concept and Criteria
An oncogenic (tumour) virus is one capable of causing malignant transformation of cells. Viruses are implicated in roughly 15 to 20% of all human cancers, and are the second most important identifiable cause after tobacco.
- Transformation is recognised in vitro by loss of contact inhibition, anchorage-independent growth, immortalisation, and the ability to form tumours in animals
- Viral infection is necessary but not sufficient — most infected people never develop cancer. Cofactors and a long latent period of years to decades are the rule
| Virus | Genome | Malignancy | Mechanism and cofactors |
|---|---|---|---|
| HPV 16, 18 | DNA | Cervical carcinoma; anal, penile, vulval, oropharyngeal cancer | E6 inactivates p53 and E7 inactivates Rb — both tumour suppressors; smoking and immunosuppression are cofactors |
| Hepatitis B | DNA | Hepatocellular carcinoma | Integration into the host genome, chronic inflammation and regeneration, and the HBx protein; may cause cancer without cirrhosis. Aflatoxin and alcohol are cofactors |
| Hepatitis C | RNA | Hepatocellular carcinoma | Chronic inflammation and cirrhosis — it does not integrate, so cancer nearly always follows cirrhosis |
| EBV | DNA | Burkitt lymphoma, nasopharyngeal carcinoma, Hodgkin lymphoma, post-transplant lymphoproliferative disease | Immortalises B cells; malaria is a cofactor in Burkitt lymphoma, and dietary and genetic factors in nasopharyngeal carcinoma |
| HHV-8 | DNA | KAPOSI sarcoma; primary effusion lymphoma | Requires immunosuppression — it is an AIDS-defining malignancy |
| HTLV-1 | RNA (retrovirus) | Adult T-cell leukaemia/lymphoma; and tropical spastic paraparesis | The Tax protein; a very long latency of decades, and a low lifetime risk |
| Merkel cell polyomavirus | DNA | Merkel cell carcinoma | Clonal integration |
| HIV | RNA (retrovirus) | Kaposi sarcoma, lymphoma, cervical cancer | Indirect — through immunosuppression permitting other oncogenic viruses, rather than by transforming cells itself |
CLINICAL PEARL
HIV causes cancer without ever transforming a cell. It carries no oncogene and does not integrate near one in any consistent way. What it does is destroy the CD4 cells that normally keep HHV-8, EBV and HPV in check — so the malignancies of AIDS are almost all caused by other viruses that immune surveillance was previously containing. This is why antiretroviral therapy reduces these cancers: it restores the surveillance rather than treating the tumour.
Mechanisms of Viral Carcinogenesis
- Insertion of a viral oncogene — the virus carries a gene whose product transforms the cell, as with HPV E6 and E7
- Insertional mutagenesis — integration of viral DNA next to a host proto-oncogene activates it, or disrupts a tumour suppressor
- Inactivation of tumour suppressors — p53 and Rb are the common targets, and it is notable that several unrelated viruses converge on the same two proteins
- Chronic inflammation with regeneration — repeated cell division multiplies the chance of a mutation; this is the dominant mechanism in hepatitis C and in H. Pylori-associated gastric cancer
- Immunosuppression — permitting other oncogenic viruses to escape surveillance, as in HIV and in transplantation
- Inhibition of apoptosis, allowing damaged cells to survive
Prevention and Applied Aspects
- Vaccination is the most powerful intervention — the hepatitis B vaccine was the first cancer vaccine, and universal infant immunisation has already reduced childhood hepatocellular carcinoma where it has been implemented; the HPV vaccine is expected to eliminate most cervical cancer
- Screening — cervical cytology and HPV DNA testing; ultrasound and alpha-fetoprotein surveillance in chronic hepatitis B and C
- Treating the infection prevents the cancer — direct-acting antivirals curing hepatitis C reduce hepatocellular carcinoma; suppressing hepatitis B reduces it; eradicating H. Pylori reduces gastric cancer and can cure gastric malt lymphoma outright
- Reducing cofactors — alcohol, smoking, aflatoxin exposure in stored grain and groundnuts (a real problem in parts of India), and malaria control
- Screening blood and organ donors for HBV, HCV, HIV and HTLV
- Cervical cancer is the second commonest cancer in Indian women and is almost entirely preventable; this makes HPV vaccination and screening among the highest-value cancer interventions available in the country
Prions
A prion is an infectious agent consisting of protein alone, with NO nucleic acid — an abnormally folded form of a normal host protein that induces the normal form to misfold. The term is a contraction of "proteinaceous infectious particle" (Prusiner).
The normal cellular protein PrPC is a host-coded glycoprotein, rich in alpha-helix, present on neurons → The abnormal PrPSc (scrapie form) has the same amino acid sequence but is folded predominantly into beta-pleated sheet → PrPSc acts as a template, converting normal PrPC into the abnormal form — an autocatalytic process → The abnormal protein is resistant to proteases and accumulates → It aggregates into amyloid plaques; neurons die → spongiform change — vacuolation of grey matter — with gliosis and NO inflammatory response → Progressive fatal neurodegeneration after an incubation of years to decades
- Extraordinary resistance — prions withstand standard autoclaving, formaldehyde, alcohol, boiling, UV and ionising radiation, all of which act on nucleic acid or on ordinary proteins. Inactivation requires 134°C for 18 minutes, 1N sodium hydroxide, or sodium hypochlorite, and disposable instruments or incineration are preferred
- They provoke NO immune or inflammatory response — no antibody, no fever, no cellular infiltrate — because the protein is a self protein. There is therefore no serological test
| Disease | Host and mode | Features |
|---|---|---|
| Creutzfeldt-JAKOB disease (sporadic) | 85% of human cases; no identified source | Rapidly progressive dementia with myoclonus and ataxia in the elderly; characteristic periodic sharp waves on the EEG; death within a year |
| Iatrogenic CJD | Transmitted by medical procedures | Corneal and dura mater grafts, cadaveric growth hormone and gonadotrophin, and contaminated neurosurgical instruments — which is why prion resistance to sterilisation matters clinically |
| Variant CJD | From eating beef from cattle with bovine spongiform encephalopathy ("mad cow disease") | Affects younger people, with early psychiatric and sensory symptoms; the "pulvinar sign" on MRI; a longer course |
| Familial CJD, GSS, fatal familial insomnia | Inherited PRNP gene mutations | Autosomal dominant |
| Kuru | Ritual cannibalism among the Fore people of Papua New Guinea | Cerebellar ataxia and tremor; disappeared after the practice ceased — the illness that first demonstrated transmissibility |
CLINICAL PEARL
A prion transmits information without carrying any genetic material, which was thought impossible. The "protein only" hypothesis contradicted the assumption that heritable information must reside in nucleic acid, and was resisted for years before Prusiner received the Nobel Prize for it. The practical consequences follow directly: no nucleic acid means no antibiotic target, no serology, and resistance to every sterilising method aimed at DNA.
Slow Virus Infections
| Disease | Agent | Features |
|---|---|---|
| Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE) | Defective measles virus persisting in the brain | Occurs 5 to 15 years after measles, particularly when the infection was before the age of 2. Progressive intellectual decline, myoclonic jerks, seizures and death. Very high measles antibody titres in CSF; periodic complexes on EEG. Prevented entirely BY measles vaccination |
| Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy (PML) | JC polyomavirus | Reactivation in profound immunosuppression — AIDS, and with natalizumab and rituximab; multifocal demyelination with focal deficits; treatment is restoration of immunity |
| Progressive rubella panencephalitis | Rubella virus | Rare, after congenital rubella |
| HIV encephalopathy | HIV | Direct CNS infection causing dementia |
- "Slow virus" infections differ fundamentally from prion disease — they are caused by conventional viruses with nucleic acid that persist and cause disease after a very long incubation, and they do provoke an immune response, which is how they are diagnosed
Applied Aspects
- Measles vaccination prevents SSPE, and this is among the strongest arguments for immunisation; SSPE still occurs in India where coverage has been incomplete, and it is invariably fatal
- Vaccinate against measles on time; infection before the age of 2 carries the highest risk of SSPE, so delay is not neutral
- Use disposable instruments or dedicated instrument sets in suspected prion disease, and never return them to the general pool; standard autoclaving does not decontaminate them
- Iatrogenic CJD is a reminder that human-derived biological products carry risk; cadaveric growth hormone and dura mater grafts have been replaced by recombinant and synthetic alternatives for this reason
- Consider PML in an immunosuppressed patient with progressive focal neurological deficits, and remember that it is a recognised complication of natalizumab and rituximab, which changes the risk-benefit discussion before those drugs are started
- There is no treatment for any prion disease, and management is supportive; prevention through surgical practice, tissue sourcing and food safety is the only effective intervention
Structure and Types
- Orthomyxovirus — enveloped, with helical symmetry and a genome of single-stranded negative-sense RNA in eight separate segments
- The segmented genome is the crucial structural fact — it allows two different influenza viruses infecting the same cell to reassort their segments, producing an entirely new virus in one step
- Being negative-sense, it carries its own RNA polymerase within the virion, since the host has no enzyme able to read it
| Surface glycoprotein | Function | Significance |
|---|---|---|
| Haemagglutinin (H) | Binds sialic acid receptors and mediates attachment and fusion; agglutinates red cells | The target of neutralising and protective antibody, and therefore the main vaccine antigen; 18 subtypes |
| Neuraminidase (N) | Cleaves sialic acid, releasing newly formed virions from the cell surface and preventing them clumping | The target of oseltamivir and zanamivir; 11 subtypes |
| M2 ion channel | Uncoating | The target of amantadine, now abandoned because of resistance |
| Type | Reservoir | Epidemiological behaviour |
|---|---|---|
| Influenza A | Man and animals — wild birds are the natural reservoir of all subtypes, with pigs and poultry as intermediaries | Undergoes both drift and shift; causes epidemics and pandemics; subtyped by H and N (H1N1, H3N2) |
| Influenza B | Man only (and seals) | Drift only, so NO pandemics; causes epidemics, often in children |
| Influenza C | Man and pigs | Mild sporadic illness |
Antigenic Variation
| Feature | Antigenic drift | Antigenic shift |
|---|---|---|
| Mechanism | Accumulation of point mutations in the H or N gene, since RNA polymerase has no proofreading | Reassortment of whole gene segments between a human and an animal virus infecting the same cell — or direct transfer of an animal virus |
| Extent of change | Minor and gradual | Major and abrupt — an entirely new subtype |
| Occurs in | Types A and B | Type A only, because only A has an animal reservoir |
| Population immunity | Partial — existing antibody gives some cross-protection | Absent — nobody has seen the new subtype |
| Consequence | Annual epidemics; the vaccine must be reformulated each year | Pandemics — 1918 H1N1, 1957 H2N2, 1968 H3N2, 2009 H1N1 |
| Frequency | Continuous | Every few decades, unpredictably |
CLINICAL PEARL
The pig is the classical "mixing vessel" because its cells carry both human and avian receptors. Human influenza binds alpha-2,6-linked sialic acid and avian influenza binds alpha-2,3 — and swine respiratory epithelium has both. A pig can therefore be infected by a human and a bird strain simultaneously, allowing the eight segments to reassort into a virus with avian surface proteins and human transmissibility. That is how a pandemic strain is made, and why influenza surveillance watches agriculture as closely as hospitals.
Clinical Features and Complications
- Transmission by respiratory droplets and by contaminated hands and surfaces; incubation 1 to 4 days; infectious from about a day before symptoms
- Abrupt onset of fever, chills, severe myalgia and headache, dry cough and prostration — the systemic symptoms are what distinguish it from a common cold
- Primary viral pneumonia — rapidly progressive and often fatal, occurring particularly in pregnancy, cardiac disease and during pandemics
- Secondary bacterial pneumonia — commoner, with a characteristic pattern of initial improvement then deterioration; caused by Streptococcus pneumoniae, staphylococcus aureus (which may be necrotising) and H. Influenzae. It accounts for most influenza deaths
- REYE syndrome — encephalopathy with fatty liver in children given aspirin
- Other complications — myocarditis, myositis with rhabdomyolysis, encephalitis, Guillain-Barré syndrome, and exacerbation of chronic lung and heart disease
- Groups at risk — the elderly, infants, pregnant women, the obese, and those with chronic heart, lung, renal or immune disease
Diagnosis, Treatment and Prevention
- RT-PCR of a nasopharyngeal swab is the test of choice — sensitive, specific and able to subtype; rapid antigen tests are quick but insensitive, so a negative result does not exclude influenza
- Culture in the amniotic or allantoic cavity of an embryonated egg, or in cell culture with haemadsorption, which detects growth before any cytopathic effect; serology by haemagglutination inhibition on paired sera
- Treatment — oseltamivir (oral) or zanamivir (inhaled), neuraminidase inhibitors that are most effective within 48 hours of onset; baloxavir is a newer agent. They shorten the illness modestly and reduce complications in high-risk patients
- Vaccine — reformulated annually on WHO recommendation to match the circulating strains, because of drift. The inactivated quadrivalent vaccine is given intramuscularly; a live attenuated intranasal vaccine is available for children
- Vaccination is recommended for health workers, the elderly, pregnant women, children and those with chronic disease
- Non-pharmaceutical measures — hand hygiene, respiratory etiquette, masks, ventilation and isolation, which matter most before a vaccine exists
Avian and Pandemic Influenza
| Subtype | Features |
|---|---|
| H5N1 (highly pathogenic avian influenza) | Acquired from infected poultry by direct contact; very high case fatality (around 50%) but poor person-to-person transmission, which is what has prevented a pandemic so far. Outbreaks in Indian poultry are controlled by culling |
| H7N9 | From live bird markets in China; high mortality; birds may appear healthy, making surveillance harder |
| H1N1 pdm09 ("swine flu") | The 2009 pandemic strain, arising by reassortment of swine, avian and human viruses; now circulating as a seasonal strain |
| Requirements for a pandemic | A novel subtype to which the population has no immunity; ability to cause disease in man; and efficient person-to-person transmission. Avian strains satisfy the first two but not the third — which is precisely what surveillance is watching for |
- Pandemic preparedness — surveillance in animals and man, stockpiling of antivirals, capacity for rapid vaccine production, and non-pharmaceutical measures for the months before a vaccine can exist
Applied Aspects
- Suspect secondary bacterial pneumonia when a patient deteriorates after apparent improvement; this biphasic pattern is characteristic and the organisms are predictable, so antibiotic cover should include S. Aureus
- Vaccinate pregnant women; influenza in pregnancy carries a substantially higher risk of severe disease, and maternal antibody also protects the infant in the months before vaccination is possible
- Do not give aspirin to a child with influenza or chickenpox
- Start oseltamivir early in high-risk patients without waiting for confirmation; its benefit falls away sharply after 48 hours
- Avian influenza in India is monitored through poultry surveillance; human infection with H5N1 is rare but carries high mortality, and any cluster of severe respiratory illness with poultry contact must be notified urgently
- Annual vaccination is under-used in India, including among healthcare workers, who are both at risk and a source of transmission to vulnerable patients
- Influenza and COVID-19 are clinically indistinguishable in many patients, so testing for both may be needed; and co-infection occurs
- The 1918 pandemic killed a disproportionate number of young adults, probably through an excessive immune response, which is a reminder that virulence is not simply a property of the virus
- Notify clusters of severe respiratory illness with poultry contact, and take an occupational and animal exposure history in any unusually severe influenza
- The vaccine takes about two weeks to protect, so it must be given before the season rather than during an outbreak
- Egg-based production explains the months of lead time for each season’s vaccine and the historical caution in egg allergy, which is now regarded as a contraindication only for severe anaphylaxis
- Influenza in a pregnant woman warrants prompt oseltamivir regardless of severity at presentation, because deterioration can be rapid
The Enteroviruses
- Picornaviruses — "pico" (small) plus "RNA"; the smallest RNA viruses. naked, icosahedral, with single-stranded positive-sense RNA, so the genome acts directly as messenger RNA
- Being naked they are acid-stable and resistant to bile, detergents and the environment, which is exactly what a virus transmitted by the faecal-oral route through the stomach requires
- Members — poliovirus types 1, 2 and 3; coxsackie A and B; ECHOviruses; newer enteroviruses including EV71; rhinovirus (which is acid-labile and confined to the nose); and hepatitis A virus
| Virus | Diseases |
|---|---|
| Coxsackie A | Herpangina (vesicles on the soft palate with fever); hand, foot and mouth disease (A16 and EV71); aseptic meningitis; acute haemorrhagic conjunctivitis (A24) |
| Coxsackie B | Bornholm disease (epidemic pleurodynia — "devil's grip"); myocarditis and pericarditis, a leading viral cause; aseptic meningitis; neonatal sepsis-like illness |
| ECHOviruses | Aseptic meningitis (the commonest cause), febrile rashes, neonatal infection |
| EV71 | Hand, foot and mouth disease with a notable tendency to brainstem encephalitis and neurogenic pulmonary oedema; major outbreaks in the Asia-Pacific region |
| Rhinovirus | The common cold — over 100 serotypes, which is why immunity is useless and no vaccine is feasible; acid-labile, so it cannot infect the gut, and grows best at 33°C, the temperature of the nose |
Poliovirus — Pathogenesis
Ingestion; the virus is acid-stable and survives the stomach → Primary multiplication in the oropharynx and the lymphoid tissue of the gut — tonsils and PEYER patches → Minor viraemia, which in most people is contained here → In a minority, spread to the reticuloendothelial system and a major viraemia → Invasion of the central nervous system → Selective destruction of the anterior horn cells of the spinal cord, and of brainstem motor nuclei in bulbar disease → asymmetrical flaccid paralysis with NO sensory loss, since only motor neurons are affected
- The outcome is overwhelmingly favourable — about 90 to 95% are asymptomatic, 4 to 8% have a minor non-specific febrile illness, 1 to 2% develop non-paralytic aseptic meningitis, and fewer than 1% develop paralytic disease. But every infected person excretes virus and can infect others
- Provocative factors that increase the risk of paralysis and determine its site — intramuscular injections during the incubation period, strenuous exercise, tonsillectomy (predisposing to bulbar disease), pregnancy and immunodeficiency
- Post-polio syndrome — new weakness developing decades after recovery, from attrition of the surviving enlarged motor units
CLINICAL PEARL
Fewer than one infected person in a hundred is paralysed, and that is what made polio hard to eradicate rather than easy. Because the great majority of infections are silent yet still excrete virus, a single paralytic case implies hundreds already infected, and transmission continues invisibly wherever coverage falls. Surveillance therefore cannot wait for paralysis to be common — it depends on investigating every case of acute flaccid paralysis in a child, whatever the suspected cause.
The Two Vaccines
| Feature | OPV (Sabin) — oral, live attenuated | IPV (Salk) — injectable, killed |
|---|---|---|
| Intestinal (mucosal) immunity | Excellent — induces secretory IgA, so the vaccinated child no longer transmits wild virus | Poor — protects the individual from paralysis but permits gut infection and onward spread |
| Herd immunity | Yes — vaccine virus spreads to contacts and immunises them | NO |
| Administration and cost | Oral drops; needs no needle or trained injector; very cheap — ideal for mass campaigns | Injection; costlier; needs trained staff |
| Safety | Vaccine-associated paralytic poliomyelitis (VAPP) in about 1 in 2.7 million doses; and reversion to vaccine-derived poliovirus (VDPV), which can circulate and cause outbreaks where coverage is poor | Completely safe — no VAPP, no VDPV; can be given to the immunocompromised and their contacts |
| Cold chain | Sensitive; damaged by heat | More stable |
| Current use | Bivalent OPV (types 1 and 3) after type 2 was withdrawn in 2016 following its eradication, because most VDPV outbreaks were type 2 | Introduced into routine schedules worldwide to cover type 2 and to move toward an OPV-free endgame |
Polio Eradication
- INDIA was certified polio-free in 2014, the last case having occurred in West Bengal in January 2011 — an achievement widely thought impossible, given the population, density and sanitation
- How it was done — National Immunisation Days ("pulse polio") delivering OPV to every child under 5 on a single day; mopping-up rounds; social mobilisation to overcome refusal; and above all acute flaccid paralysis (AFP) surveillance, in which every child under 15 with sudden flaccid weakness is investigated with two stool samples
- Wild type 2 was declared eradicated in 2015 and type 3 in 2019; only wild type 1 remains, endemic in Pakistan and Afghanistan
- The remaining obstacles are conflict, inaccessibility, vaccine refusal and circulating vaccine-derived poliovirus, which now causes more cases in some regions than wild virus does
- Why polio was a plausible target — man is the only reservoir, there is no chronic carrier state in the immunocompetent, and effective cheap vaccines exist; the obstacle was silent transmission, not biology
Laboratory Diagnosis of Poliomyelitis
- Stool is the specimen of choice — two samples collected at least 24 hours apart, within 14 days of the onset of paralysis, and transported in a reverse cold chain to a national laboratory
- Virus is excreted in stool for weeks, far longer than it is present in throat secretions, which is why stool rather than a throat swab is used
- Cell culture in human or monkey kidney lines, with typing by neutralisation; and intratypic differentiation by molecular methods to distinguish wild virus from vaccine virus and from vaccine-derived poliovirus — the critical distinction in a certified polio-free country
- Cerebrospinal fluid shows a lymphocytic pleocytosis with normal glucose, but the virus is rarely isolated from it
- Environmental surveillance of sewage detects circulating virus even where no paralytic case has occurred, and is now an important part of the endgame
Applied Aspects
- Investigate every case of acute flaccid paralysis in a child and notify it; the differential includes Guillain-Barré syndrome, transverse myelitis and traumatic neuritis, but surveillance depends on all of them being reported
- Avoid unnecessary intramuscular injections in a febrile child in an endemic setting, because of provocative paralysis — a specific and often forgotten precaution
- Two stool samples 24 hours apart are required for virological investigation of acute flaccid paralysis, collected within 14 days of onset
- Give IPV to immunodeficient children and their household contacts, never OPV, since the live vaccine can cause paralysis and prolonged excretion in them
- Enteroviruses are a leading cause of aseptic meningitis in children, and recognising this avoids prolonged unnecessary antibiotics in a self-limiting illness
- Hand, foot and mouth disease is usually benign, but EV71 outbreaks require vigilance for brainstem encephalitis, which can progress rapidly
- Polio-free does not mean polio-proof; importation remains possible while wild virus circulates anywhere, which is why India maintains immunisation, surveillance and border vaccination posts
- Environmental sewage surveillance detected poliovirus in India after the last clinical case, demonstrating that silent circulation can be found without a paralysed child
- Coxsackie B myocarditis should be considered in a young patient with chest pain and a raised troponin after a viral illness, since it is a leading infectious cause of cardiomyopathy
- The rhinovirus has over 100 serotypes, which is why the common cold recurs indefinitely and why no vaccine is possible — a useful contrast with measles, which has one
- Enteroviruses circulate most in the monsoon and post-monsoon months in India, and cluster in children; recognising a seasonal outbreak of aseptic meningitis prevents a great deal of unnecessary investigation
- Distinguish poliomyelitis from Guillain-Barré syndrome — polio is asymmetrical, febrile at onset, purely motor and without sensory loss, whereas Guillain-Barré is symmetrical, ascending, afebrile and often has sensory features
- Vaccine-derived poliovirus is now the commoner cause of paralytic polio in several regions, which is the argument for moving to IPV once wild virus is gone
- Never give OPV to a child known to be immunodeficient, or to the household contact of one; prolonged excretion and paralysis have both occurred
- Report acute flaccid paralysis within 24 hours and arrange the two stool samples; the target rate of non-polio AFP reporting is itself a measure of how sensitive surveillance is
- Post-polio syndrome affects survivors decades later, and India has a large cohort of people paralysed before eradication who need rehabilitation and orthotic support rather than antiviral treatment
- Hand hygiene and safe water interrupt enterovirus transmission, which is why polio was a disease of poor sanitation and why its eradication required vaccine rather than waiting for sanitation to improve
- Explain to parents why a healthy child needs repeated polio drops; refusal in some communities was a genuine obstacle, and it was overcome by engagement rather than by insistence
- Maintain routine immunisation as well as campaign doses; campaigns raise population immunity quickly but routine coverage is what sustains it
Structure and Genome
- A retrovirus of the lentivirus genus — enveloped, with two identical copies of single-stranded positive-sense RNA (hence "diploid"), and a characteristic cone-shaped core
- Envelope glycoproteins — gp120, which binds the receptor, and gp41, which mediates fusion; both derive from gp160
- Core proteins — p24 (capsid, the antigen detected in fourth-generation tests) and p17 (matrix)
- Three virion enzymes — reverse transcriptase, integrase and protease; all three are drug targets
- Structural genes — gag (core proteins), pol (enzymes) and env (envelope); with regulatory genes tat, rev, nef, vif, vpr and vpu
- HIV-1 is worldwide and predominates in India; HIV-2 is largely confined to West Africa, is less transmissible, less virulent and slower to progress, and is intrinsically resistant to NNRTIs, which matters for treatment choice
Replication
Gp120 binds CD4 on the T helper lymphocyte, and also on macrophages, monocytes, dendritic and microglial cells → A conformational change exposes the CO-receptor binding site — CCR5 (macrophage-tropic strains, which dominate early) or CXCR4 (T-tropic strains, appearing later and heralding progression) → gp41 mediates fusion of the envelope with the cell membrane; the core enters → reverse transcriptase copies the RNA into double-stranded DNA. It has NO proofreading, so it makes about one error per genome per cycle — the origin of the enormous variability and of drug resistance → integrase inserts the DNA into the host chromosome as a provirus → The provirus may remain latent for years in resting memory T cells — the reservoir that makes cure impossible with current drugs → On activation, transcription and translation produce polyproteins; protease cleaves them during and after budding to yield the mature infectious virion
CLINICAL PEARL
The latent provirus in resting memory T cells is why HIV can be suppressed but not cured. Antiretroviral drugs act on replicating virus; a silent integrated provirus presents no target at all. Treatment can drive the viral load below detection indefinitely, but stopping it allows rebound within weeks from that reservoir. This is why therapy is lifelong, and why "undetectable" means controlled rather than eradicated — a distinction patients must understand clearly.
Transmission and Natural History
- Sexual transmission is much the commonest route worldwide and in India; risk is increased by genital ulceration, other sexually transmitted infections, and a high viral load in the source
- Blood-borne — transfusion (now rare with screening), shared needles among injecting drug users, needlestick injury (risk about 0.3%, far lower than hepatitis B), and unsterile procedures
- Vertical (mother to child) — in utero, at delivery (the largest component), and through breastfeeding; without intervention the risk is 20 to 45%, and with full prophylaxis it falls below 2%
- Not transmitted by casual contact, sharing utensils, insects, or ordinary social contact — a point that must be stated explicitly, since misunderstanding drives stigma
| Stage | Timing | Features |
|---|---|---|
| Acute (seroconversion) illness | 2 to 6 weeks after exposure | A glandular-fever-like illness with fever, rash, pharyngitis, lymphadenopathy and sometimes aseptic meningitis. Viral load is very high and the patient is highly infectious, yet antibody tests may still be negative — the combination that drives much transmission |
| Clinical latency | Years — a median of about 8 to 10 years untreated | Asymptomatic or with persistent generalised lymphadenopathy; but viral replication and CD4 destruction continue throughout, so "latency" is clinical rather than virological |
| Symptomatic disease | CD4 falling below about 500 to 200 | Weight loss, fever, diarrhoea, oral candidiasis, oral hairy leukoplakia, zoster, tuberculosis |
| AIDS | CD4 below 200/mm3, or an AIDS-defining illness | Opportunistic infections and malignancies |
- Opportunistic infections track the CD4 count — below 200: Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia, oesophageal candidiasis; below 100: cerebral toxoplasmosis, cryptococcal meningitis; below 50: CMV retinitis and disseminated Mycobacterium avium complex. tuberculosis occurs at any CD4 count and is the commonest opportunistic infection and cause of death in India
- AIDS-defining malignancies — Kaposi sarcoma (HHV-8), non-Hodgkin and primary CNS lymphoma (EBV), and invasive cervical carcinoma (HPV)
Laboratory Diagnosis
- Fourth-generation ELISA detects p24 antigen together with antibody, shortening the window period to about 2 to 3 weeks from the 6 to 12 weeks of antibody-only tests
- India's national testing algorithm requires reactivity on three different rapid tests or ELISAs using different antigens or principles before HIV infection is reported; Western blot has largely been abandoned as costly and prone to indeterminate results
- Viral load by RT-PCR — used to monitor treatment (the aim is undetectable), to diagnose acute infection before seroconversion, and for infant diagnosis
- Infant diagnosis requires DNA PCR, not antibody, because maternal IgG crosses the placenta and persists for up to 18 months; testing is done at 6 weeks and thereafter under India's early infant diagnosis programme
- CD4 count by flow cytometry — staging, assessing risk of opportunistic infection, and deciding on prophylaxis
- Pre- and post-test counselling and confidentiality are mandatory; the HIV/AIDS Act 2017 in India prohibits discrimination and mandates informed consent for testing
Treatment and Prevention
- Antiretroviral therapy for all, regardless of CD4 count — "treat all" is now national and international policy. India's first-line regimen is TLD: tenofovir, lamivudine and dolutegravir, provided free through the National AIDS Control Programme
- U = U ("Undetectable = Untransmittable") — a person with a sustained undetectable viral load does not transmit HIV sexually. This is among the most important messages in HIV medicine, transforming both prevention and the experience of living with the diagnosis
- PMTCT — antenatal testing, antiretroviral therapy for the mother, prophylaxis for the infant, and safe infant feeding; this has reduced vertical transmission dramatically
- Post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) — started within hours of a needlestick or other exposure and continued for 28 days; and pre-exposure prophylaxis (PrEP) for those at substantial ongoing risk
- Adherence determines resistance — intermittent treatment selects resistant virus rapidly, so adherence support is as important as the choice of drugs
Opportunistic Infections and Their Prevention
| CD4 count | Infections to expect | Prophylaxis |
|---|---|---|
| Any count | Tuberculosis — the commonest opportunistic infection and cause of death in India; bacterial pneumonia; herpes zoster; oral candidiasis | Isoniazid preventive therapy after excluding active disease |
| Below 200 | Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia (dry cough, progressive dyspnoea, diffuse infiltrates, raised LDH); oesophageal candidiasis | CO-trimoxazole, which also covers toxoplasma and some bacteria |
| Below 100 | Cerebral toxoplasmosis (ring-enhancing lesions); cryptococcal meningitis (India ink, cryptococcal antigen); cryptosporidiosis | Co-trimoxazole; cryptococcal antigen screening |
| Below 50 | CMV retinitis; disseminated mycobacterium avium complex; progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy | Antiretroviral therapy is the definitive prophylaxis |
| Malignancies | Kaposi sarcoma (HHV-8), lymphoma (EBV), cervical carcinoma (HPV) | Immune restoration; cervical screening |
- Immune reconstitution inflammatory syndrome (iris) — paradoxical worsening of an existing infection as immunity recovers after starting antiretroviral therapy. It is not treatment failure; both treatments are continued and corticosteroids given where severe
Applied Aspects
- Screen every HIV patient for tuberculosis at every visit using the four-symptom screen, and test every tuberculosis patient for HIV; give co-trimoxazole prophylaxis at low CD4 counts
- Stigma remains the largest obstacle in India, deterring testing, disclosure and adherence; confidentiality, non-judgemental care and correct information about how HIV is not transmitted are as much a part of treatment as the drugs
- Test infants by PCR, never by antibody, until 18 months of age
- Start PEP within hours, not days, after a significant exposure; its effectiveness falls with delay, and the first dose should not await formal counselling
- Zoster, oral candidiasis or tuberculosis in a young adult should prompt HIV testing, since these are common presentations of undiagnosed infection
- Universal precautions protect against HIV and hepatitis together, and are applied to every patient rather than to those known to be infected — which is the entire point of the word "universal"
- Do not test for HIV without consent and counselling; this is a legal requirement in India under the HIV/AIDS Act, and disclosure without consent has caused documented harm
- Recognise iris and continue both treatments; apparent deterioration after starting antiretroviral therapy is usually immune recovery rather than failure
- A negative test in the window period is not reassurance after a high-risk exposure; repeat testing is required, and this must be explained at the first visit
- Ask about the CD4 count before interpreting a presentation; the same symptom means different things at 500 and at 50, and the differential diagnosis follows directly from the count
- Treat the opportunistic infection first in cryptococcal and tuberculous meningitis, and delay antiretroviral therapy for a few weeks, because iris in the central nervous system can be fatal
- Adherence is the whole of long-term success; resistance follows intermittent treatment far more readily than continuous treatment, so support, counselling and free supply matter as much as drug choice
Definition and Classification
Arboviruses ("ARthropod-BOrne") are viruses transmitted between vertebrate hosts by the bite of a blood-sucking arthropod, in which they also multiply. The term is ecological rather than taxonomic.
| Family | Important members | Vector |
|---|---|---|
| Flaviviridae | Dengue, japanese encephalitis, West Nile, yellow fever, Zika, Kyasanur Forest disease | Mosquitoes; ticks for Kyasanur Forest disease |
| Togaviridae (alphavirus) | Chikungunya | Aedes |
| Bunyavirales | Crimean-Congo haemorrhagic fever, sandfly fever, Rift Valley fever | Ticks, sandflies |
| Reoviridae | Colorado tick fever | Ticks |
Dengue
- A flavivirus with four serotypes (DENV-1 to 4), transmitted by AEDES aegypti, a day-biting mosquito that breeds in clean stored water around houses — coolers, tanks, tyres, pots and construction sites
- Infection gives lifelong immunity to that serotype but only brief cross-protection against the others
- Antibody-dependent enhancement is the central concept — on secondary infection with a different serotype, pre-existing non-neutralising antibody binds the new virus and carries it into macrophages through Fc receptors, increasing viral load and provoking a cytokine storm. This is why severe dengue is largely a disease of second infections
- Three phases — febrile (2 to 7 days: high fever, severe headache, retro-orbital pain, myalgia and arthralgia giving "breakbone fever", rash); critical (around defervescence, lasting 24 to 48 hours, when plasma leakage occurs); and recovery, with reabsorption of fluid
- The danger is at defervescence, not at the height of the fever — the patient appears to be improving as the temperature falls, and it is precisely then that shock develops
- Warning signs — severe abdominal pain, persistent vomiting, mucosal bleeding, lethargy or restlessness, tender hepatomegaly, clinical fluid accumulation, and a rising haematocrit with a falling platelet count
- Severe dengue — shock from plasma leakage, severe bleeding, or organ impairment
- Diagnosis — NS1 antigen from day 1 to 5; IgM from day 5 onward; RT-PCR early; and serial full blood counts and haematocrit, which guide management more than any single test
- Treatment — there is NO specific antiviral; management is careful fluid replacement guided by haematocrit and urine output. paracetamol only — aspirin and NSAIDs are contraindicated because of bleeding risk. Platelet transfusion is for significant bleeding, not for a low count alone
CLINICAL PEARL
Dengue kills as the fever settles, which is the opposite of clinical intuition. Plasma leakage begins around defervescence, so a patient sent home because "the fever has gone" may return in shock hours later. This is why the warning signs are taught as a list, why the haematocrit rising while the platelet count falls is the key combination, and why patients are told to return on the day they start feeling better rather than discharged with reassurance.
Chikungunya and Japanese Encephalitis
| Feature | Chikungunya | Japanese encephalitis |
|---|---|---|
| Virus and vector | Alphavirus; AEDES, the same day-biting vector as dengue — so the two occur together and co-infection happens | Flavivirus; CULEX tritaeniorhynchus, a night-biting mosquito breeding in rice fields |
| Cycle | Man is the main host in urban outbreaks | Zoonotic — pigs are the amplifying host and wading birds the reservoir; man is a dead-end host and does not transmit it |
| Clinical picture | Abrupt fever with severe, often incapacitating arthralgia of small joints (the name means "that which bends up"), rash. Rarely fatal, but the arthritis may persist for months or years | Mostly asymptomatic; about 1 in 250 develops encephalitis with fever, seizures, altered consciousness and parkinsonian features from basal ganglia and thalamic involvement. High mortality and frequent neurological sequelae |
| Distinguishing from dengue | Arthralgia is far more prominent and prolonged; thrombocytopenia and plasma leakage are much less marked | — |
| Diagnosis | RT-PCR early; IgM later | IgM in CSF or serum by capture ELISA |
| Prevention | Vector control; no vaccine in routine use | An effective vaccine, included in India's programme in endemic districts; and pig management away from dwellings |
Vector Control
- AEDES breeds in clean stored water close TO houses — coolers, overhead tanks, flower pots, discarded tyres, coconut shells and construction sites. Control is therefore a household and community matter: emptying, covering, and removing containers weekly
- CULEX breeds in dirty stagnant water — drains, cesspits and rice fields — so the interventions are entirely different
- Aedes bites by day, so bed nets protect poorly; repellents, full clothing, screens and removal of breeding sites are what work. Culex bites at night, so insecticide-treated nets do protect against Japanese encephalitis
- Larval measures — source reduction, larvivorous fish (Gambusia), temephos; adult measures — space spraying during outbreaks, which controls an epidemic but does not prevent one
- Source reduction is the durable measure; fogging is visible and reassuring but has only a transient effect on adult mosquitoes
Comparing the Common Acute Febrile Illnesses of the Indian Monsoon
| Illness | Distinguishing features | Key test |
|---|---|---|
| Dengue | Retro-orbital pain, severe myalgia, rash, thrombocytopenia with leucopenia, plasma leakage at defervescence | NS1 antigen days 1–5; IgM from day 5 |
| Chikungunya | Disabling small-joint arthralgia persisting for months; less thrombocytopenia | RT-PCR early; IgM later |
| Malaria | Paroxysms with rigors, anaemia, splenomegaly, thrombocytopenia | Peripheral smear and rapid antigen test |
| Scrub typhus | An eschar, lymphadenopathy, rash; rural exposure | IgM ELISA; dramatic response to doxycycline |
| Leptospirosis | Conjunctival suffusion, calf tenderness, jaundice with renal failure | IgM ELISA, mat |
| Enteric fever | Step-ladder fever, relative bradycardia, leucopenia | Blood culture in week 1 |
- These illnesses overlap and co-infection occurs, so a systematic approach with rapid tests for several is more useful than treating a single presumed diagnosis; and the treatable ones — malaria, scrub typhus, leptospirosis, enteric fever — must not be missed while attention is on dengue
Applied Aspects
- Watch the patient at defervescence, not at the peak of fever, and teach the warning signs explicitly to patients and families before discharge
- Never give aspirin or NSAIDs in a suspected dengue illness; in India, where undifferentiated fever is common and self-medication is widespread, this warning must be given actively
- Do not transfuse platelets for a number alone; the indication is significant bleeding, and unnecessary transfusion exposes the patient to risk without benefit
- Japanese encephalitis is preventable by vaccination, and its inclusion in the immunisation programme in endemic districts of Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Assam and West Bengal has substantially reduced disease
- Consider co-infection — dengue, chikungunya, malaria, scrub typhus and leptospirosis circulate together in the Indian monsoon, and more than one may be present
- Kyasanur Forest disease is a tick-borne haemorrhagic flavivirus infection of the Western Ghats, and Crimean-Congo haemorrhagic fever is transmissible from patient to healthcare worker — both require specific awareness and, for the latter, strict barrier precautions
- A dengue vaccine exists but is complicated by antibody-dependent enhancement; vaccinating a seronegative person may prime them for severe disease on first natural infection, so pre-vaccination screening is required
- Fogging reassures more than it achieves; source reduction of larval breeding sites is what actually reduces Aedes density, and it requires household participation
- Zika shares the Aedes vector with dengue and chikungunya and causes congenital microcephaly, so it must be considered in a pregnant woman with a febrile rash in an affected area
- Chikungunya arthritis may persist for months and is frequently dismissed; it responds to analgesia and physiotherapy, and patients should be warned at the outset that recovery is slow
- Japanese encephalitis leaves neurological sequelae in a large proportion of survivors, so vaccination in endemic districts prevents lifelong disability rather than merely death
- Man is a dead-end host for Japanese encephalitis, so isolating a patient is unnecessary; control is directed at pigs, mosquitoes and vaccination, not at the case
- Take a travel history within the incubation period; arboviral infections are geographically defined, and knowing where the patient has been narrows the differential immediately
- Aedes aegypti is an urban, domestic, day-biting mosquito, so dengue is a disease of towns and of construction sites rather than of forests — which is why it has risen with urbanisation
The Virus
- A rhabdovirus — characteristically bullet-shaped, enveloped, with helical symmetry and single-stranded negative-sense RNA
- Surface glycoprotein G binds the nicotinic acetylcholine receptor at the neuromuscular junction, and is the antigen that induces protective neutralising antibody — hence the vaccine target
- NEGRI bodies — eosinophilic cytoplasmic inclusions in neurons, most abundant in the hippocampus (Ammon horn) and cerebellar purkinje cells. They are pathognomonic but are absent in about 20% of cases, so their absence does not exclude rabies
- Fragile outside the body — rapidly killed by soap, detergents, alcohol, iodine, drying and sunlight. This is precisely why washing the wound is so effective
- Two epidemiological forms — urban rabies, in which the dog is the reservoir and accounts for over 95% of human cases in India; and sylvatic (wildlife) rabies in foxes, bats, jackals and mongooses
Pathogenesis
Virus in saliva is introduced by a bite, scratch, or a lick on broken skin or mucous membrane → It replicates locally in muscle at the site of entry — this local phase accounts for the long and variable incubation, and is the window in which post-exposure prophylaxis works → It binds acetylcholine receptors and enters peripheral nerve endings → retrograde axonal transport to the spinal cord and brain — travelling within the nerve, where antibody cannot reach it → Replication in the brain, producing encephalitis with remarkably little inflammation relative to the severity → centrifugal spread along nerves to the salivary glands, cornea, skin and other organs → Virus in the saliva of the now-symptomatic host transmits the infection by biting
CLINICAL PEARL
Once the virus is inside a nerve, nothing can reach it — which is why prophylaxis must be given before symptoms and why rabies is almost invariably fatal after them. Antibody and immune cells circulate in blood and tissue, but the virus travels within the axon. Vaccine and immunoglobulin therefore work only during the local muscle phase. Once encephalitis begins, survival is measured in single reported cases worldwide.
Clinical Features
- Incubation is typically 1 to 3 months but ranges from days to over a year. It is shorter when the bite is on the face, head or neck, or is severe or multiple, because these sites are richly innervated and closer to the brain
- Prodrome — fever, malaise, and characteristically pain, tingling or numbness AT the site OF the healed bite, which is the most suggestive early symptom
- Furious rabies (about 80%) — agitation alternating with lucid intervals; hydrophobia (violent painful spasm of the pharynx on attempting to drink, and eventually at the sight or sound of water); aerophobia (spasm provoked by a draught of air, which is virtually diagnostic); hypersalivation, hallucinations and autonomic instability
- Paralytic ("dumb") rabies (about 20%) — ascending flaccid paralysis resembling Guillain-Barré syndrome, without hydrophobia; it is frequently misdiagnosed, and is commoner after bat exposure
- Death from respiratory or cardiac failure within days to a couple of weeks; the case fatality is effectively 100%, and management is palliative — sedation, analgesia and comfort
- Diagnosis in life — RT-PCR on saliva, a nuchal skin biopsy containing hair follicles, or corneal impression; antibody in serum or cerebrospinal fluid in the unvaccinated. Post mortem — Negri bodies and immunofluorescence on brain tissue
Post-exposure Prophylaxis
| WHO category | Type of exposure | Action required |
|---|---|---|
| Category I | Touching or feeding an animal; licks on intact skin | NO exposure — wash the area; no vaccine required |
| Category II | Nibbling of uncovered skin; minor scratches or abrasions without bleeding | Wound washing + vaccine |
| Category III | Single or multiple transdermal bites or scratches; licks on broken skin or mucous membrane; any contact with a bat | Wound washing + vaccine + rabies immunoglobulin infiltrated into and around the wound |
- Wound washing is the single most effective measure — thorough washing with soap and running water for at least 15 minutes, followed by povidone-iodine or alcohol. It alone reduces the risk substantially, because the virus is destroyed by soap
- Do not suture the wound immediately where possible; suturing is delayed and, if unavoidable, done loosely after immunoglobulin infiltration
- Do not apply irritants — chillies, oil, lime, turmeric or herbal preparations, which are traditional in parts of India, cause harm and delay
- Vaccine — modern cell culture vaccines (human diploid cell, purified chick embryo cell, Vero cell) have replaced the old nerve-tissue Semple vaccine, which caused neuroparalytic complications. Given intramuscularly (Essen 5-dose or 4-dose regimen) or intradermally, which is dose-sparing, much cheaper and widely used in India
- Rabies immunoglobulin (human or equine) for category III — infiltrated into and around the wound to neutralise virus locally, with any remainder given intramuscularly at a distant site. It must never be given in the same syringe or at the same site as the vaccine
- Previously vaccinated people need only two booster doses and NO immunoglobulin
- Pre-exposure prophylaxis for veterinarians, animal handlers, laboratory workers and travellers to endemic areas
Prevention at Population Level
- Mass dog vaccination is the only measure that eliminates human rabies; vaccinating about 70% of the dog population interrupts transmission, as has been shown in Latin America and in parts of Asia
- Animal birth control and responsible ownership reduce the stray population, though culling alone is ineffective and is opposed on welfare grounds
- Public education — immediate wound washing, prompt attendance, avoidance of traditional applications, and not provoking dogs; children are the commonest victims and are least likely to report a bite
- Ensuring vaccine and immunoglobulin availability at peripheral level; the intradermal regimen makes this affordable, since one vial serves several patients
- India’s National Rabies Control Programme combines human prophylaxis with animal vaccination and surveillance, with the stated aim of eliminating dog-mediated human rabies
- Rabies is notifiable in many Indian states, and reporting is essential for the surveillance on which control depends
Applied Aspects
- India has the largest rabies burden in the world, with thousands of deaths annually, overwhelmingly from dog bites and mostly in children — and essentially all of them preventable
- Post-exposure prophylaxis is never contraindicated, including in pregnancy, infancy and immunosuppression; the disease is invariably fatal and the vaccine is safe
- Do not delay prophylaxis to observe the animal; start immediately and stop only if the dog or cat remains healthy after 10 days of observation
- Infiltrate the immunoglobulin into the wound, not merely intramuscularly; its purpose is local neutralisation at the site where the virus is still accessible
- Mass dog vaccination is what eliminates human rabies, as it has in several countries; treating bitten people is necessary but it does not reduce the reservoir
- Consider paralytic rabies in an unexplained ascending paralysis with a history of animal contact, since it is regularly mistaken for Guillain-Barré syndrome and the diagnosis has implications for staff exposure
- The intradermal regimen makes prophylaxis affordable and should be used where several patients attend, since it uses a fraction of the vaccine of the intramuscular schedule
- Bat contact is category III however trivial it seems, because bat bites may be unnoticed and bat rabies has caused human deaths
- Counsel that vaccination after a bite is not optional; the commonest reason for a rabies death in India is that prophylaxis was never sought or was left incomplete
- Complete the full course; patients frequently stop attending once the wound has healed and they feel well, which is precisely when the virus is still travelling
- A previously vaccinated person needs neither immunoglobulin nor a full course — two booster doses suffice, which is a strong argument for pre-exposure prophylaxis in those at occupational risk
- Rabies has been transmitted by corneal and organ transplantation from donors dying of undiagnosed encephalitis, which is why donor screening matters
- Do not attempt aggressive treatment once symptoms begin; the illness is essentially uniformly fatal, and the humane course is palliation, sedation and support for the family
- Every dog bite is an opportunity to check tetanus status too, and to consider antibiotic prophylaxis for the bacterial infection that bites also carry
- Children are bitten on the face and hands most often, which means both a shorter incubation and a greater need for immunoglobulin infiltration — and they may not report the bite at all
- Wash the wound even if the patient presents late; washing remains worthwhile at any interval, and prophylaxis is given however long ago the bite occurred if the patient has not yet developed symptoms
- Equine immunoglobulin requires a test dose and carries a risk of serum sickness, but its lower cost makes it the practical option in much of India and it should not be withheld for fear of reaction
- Monkey and cat bites also transmit rabies, and are common in India; the same categories and the same prophylaxis apply, and a monkey bite in a temple town is not a trivial event
- Rabies vaccine may be given during pregnancy and lactation without restriction, and hesitancy on this ground has cost lives
- Record the category and the treatment given, and give the patient a card with the dates of the remaining doses; incomplete courses are the commonest preventable failure
The Virus and Transmission
- A paramyxovirus — enveloped, helical, with single-stranded negative-sense RNA; only one serotype, which is why infection and vaccination both give lifelong immunity and why eradication is theoretically possible
- Surface proteins — H (haemagglutinin) for attachment and F (fusion) protein, which causes cell fusion and the formation of warthin-finkeldey multinucleate giant cells
- One of the most infectious diseases known, spread by respiratory droplets and airborne particles, with a basic reproduction number of 12 to 18 — which is why herd immunity requires about 95% coverage, far higher than for most vaccines
- Infectious from about 4 days before to 4 days after the rash, so transmission occurs before the diagnosis is possible
Clinical Features
Incubation 10 to 14 days → prodrome (3 to 4 days) — high fever with the "three Cs": cough, coryza and conjunctivitis, with photophobia → KOPLIK spots — tiny bluish-white spots on a red base on the buccal mucosa opposite the molars, appearing 1 to 2 days before the rash. They are pathognomonic and allow diagnosis before the rash → rash — an erythematous maculopapular eruption beginning behind the ears and on the face, spreading downward to trunk and limbs, and becoming confluent → The rash fades in the same order, leaving brownish staining and branny desquamation → Transient but profound immunosuppression for weeks to months, with loss of previously acquired immune memory
CLINICAL PEARL
Measles does not merely cause a rash; it erases immunological memory. The virus infects memory lymphocytes, producing "immune amnesia" in which antibodies to previously encountered pathogens are lost. This is why children die of pneumonia and diarrhoea in the weeks and months after the measles itself has resolved, and why measles mortality reflects far more than the acute illness. Vaccination prevents this second, larger burden as well.
Complications
- Respiratory — otitis media (the commonest), pneumonia (viral or secondary bacterial, and the commonest cause of death), croup, and reactivation of tuberculosis
- Gastrointestinal — diarrhoea and consequent malnutrition
- Neurological — acute post-infectious encephalomyelitis (about 1 in 1,000, immune-mediated); and subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE), occurring 5 to 15 years later, particularly after infection under the age of 2, and invariably fatal
- Ocular — keratitis and corneal ulceration leading to blindness, especially where vitamin A deficiency coexists
- In the malnourished and immunosuppressed — giant cell pneumonia without a rash, and greatly increased mortality
- Measles in pregnancy causes abortion and preterm birth, but not congenital malformation (unlike rubella)
Diagnosis, Treatment and Prevention
- The diagnosis is usually clinical, and Koplik spots make it before the rash appears; confirmed by measles-specific IgM from about day 3 of the rash, or RT-PCR on throat swab or urine
- Treatment is supportive — fluids, nutrition, antipyretics, and antibiotics only for proven bacterial complications
- Vitamin A must be given to every child with measles in populations where deficiency occurs — two doses on consecutive days. It reduces mortality and prevents corneal blindness, and is one of the cheapest life-saving interventions in paediatrics
- Vaccine — a live attenuated vaccine, given in India as measles-rubella (MR) at 9 to 12 months with a second dose at 16 to 24 months. The second dose is not a booster but a chance to reach those in whom the first failed
- Post-exposure prophylaxis — vaccine within 72 hours, or immunoglobulin within 6 days for susceptible high-risk contacts
Applied Aspects
- Give vitamin A to every child with measles; this single measure measurably reduces death and blindness and is frequently omitted
- 95% coverage is needed for herd immunity, which is higher than for any other routine vaccine and explains why measles is the first disease to return when coverage falls
- SSPE is entirely preventable by vaccination and still occurs in India; infection before the age of 2 carries the highest risk, so timely vaccination matters as much as eventual vaccination
- Isolate suspected cases and notify; measles is airborne and highly transmissible in waiting rooms and wards, and hospital-acquired measles is well documented
- Look in the mouth in any febrile rash with cough, coryza and conjunctivitis — Koplik spots settle the diagnosis at no cost
- Measles is a sensitive indicator of programme failure; an outbreak signals a gap in coverage long before other vaccine-preventable diseases reappear
The Virus and Postnatal Rubella
- A togavirus (rubivirus) — enveloped, icosahedral, with single-stranded positive-sense RNA; one serotype, and man is the only host
- It produces NO cytopathic effect in cell culture, and was classically detected by interference with a challenge virus
- Postnatal rubella is a mild illness — a low-grade fever with a fine discrete pink maculopapular rash beginning on the face and spreading, lasting about 3 days ("three-day measles"), with tender posterior auricular, suboccipital and posterior cervical lymphadenopathy, which is the most useful clinical sign
- Forchheimer spots (petechiae on the soft palate) may be seen; arthralgia and arthritis are common in adolescent and adult women
- Up to half of infections are subclinical, yet still infectious and still capable of causing fetal damage — which is why a history of "no rash" is worthless and serological status must be established
CLINICAL PEARL
Rubella is a trivial illness whose entire importance lies in what it does to a fetus. The child with the rash is barely unwell and recovers in three days. The unborn child of an infected woman in early pregnancy may be born deaf, blind and with a malformed heart. This is the only reason rubella is vaccinated against — and it is why the target of the programme is not the children who get the disease but the women they might otherwise infect.
Congenital Rubella Syndrome
- The risk depends critically on the gestational age at maternal infection — the single most important fact for counselling
- Under 8 to 11 weeks — risk of defects approaches 90%; 11 to 16 weeks — about 20 to 35%, mainly deafness; after 16 to 20 weeks — deafness only, and the risk is small; after 20 weeks — defects are rare
- The classical triad — sensorineural deafness (the commonest single defect, and often the only one), cataract and other eye disease (retinopathy, glaucoma, microphthalmia), and cardiac defects, characteristically patent ductus arteriosus and pulmonary artery stenosis
- Other features — microcephaly and intellectual disability, growth restriction, hepatosplenomegaly, thrombocytopenia with a "blueberry muffin" rash from extramedullary haematopoiesis, and bone lucencies
- Late manifestations — diabetes mellitus, thyroid disease and progressive rubella panencephalitis, appearing years later
- Infected infants shed virus in urine and secretions for months and are a hazard to susceptible pregnant staff and visitors, so they must be isolated
Diagnosis and Prevention
- Maternal infection — rubella-specific IgM, or a fourfold rise in IgG in paired sera. IgG avidity testing is valuable: low avidity indicates recent primary infection and high avidity indicates past infection with no fetal risk
- Congenital infection in the infant — rubella IgM (which cannot cross the placenta and therefore must be the infant's own), persistence of IgG beyond the expected decline of maternal antibody, or virus detection in urine or a throat swab
- Vaccine — a live attenuated (RA 27/3) vaccine, given in India as measles-rubella (MR) in the Universal Immunisation Programme
- It is contraindicated IN pregnancy as a live vaccine, and pregnancy should be avoided for 28 days afterwards — though inadvertent vaccination in pregnancy has never been shown to cause congenital rubella syndrome and is not an indication for termination
- The strategy is to vaccinate children of both sexes to interrupt transmission, and to ensure women of childbearing age are immune by screening and vaccinating susceptible women postpartum or before conception
Applied Aspects
- Check rubella immunity before or early in pregnancy, and vaccinate susceptible women after delivery, which is the practical opportunity most often missed
- A history of rash or of "having had rubella" is unreliable; up to half of infections are subclinical and other illnesses mimic it, so only serology answers the question
- Use IgG avidity to date an infection when a pregnant woman is found to be IgM positive; false-positive IgM is common and has led to unnecessary terminations
- Isolate an infant with congenital rubella from susceptible pregnant staff and visitors, since shedding continues for months
- Test the hearing of any child with congenital rubella repeatedly; deafness may be the only defect and may not be apparent at birth
- India aims to eliminate congenital rubella syndrome through MR campaigns; coverage in adolescent girls and women of childbearing age is the limiting factor
The Virus and Clinical Features
- A paramyxovirus — enveloped, helical, single-stranded negative-sense RNA, with one serotype, so immunity after infection or vaccination is lifelong
- Spread by respiratory droplets and saliva; incubation 16 to 18 days; infectious from about 2 days before to 5 days after the swelling appears
- Up to a third of infections are subclinical but still transmissible
- Parotitis is the characteristic feature — painful swelling of one and then usually both parotid glands, obliterating the angle of the jaw and lifting the ear lobe outward and upward, with pain on chewing and on taking sour food. The opening of Stensen duct is red and swollen
- Distinguishing parotid from lymph node swelling — parotid swelling obscures the angle of the mandible, whereas cervical lymphadenopathy does not; this is the practical bedside discriminator
Complications
| Complication | Features |
|---|---|
| Orchitis | In about 20 to 30% of post-pubertal males, usually unilateral and appearing as the parotitis settles; painful swelling with fever. Testicular atrophy may follow, but sterility is rare because involvement is usually unilateral — a point worth stating clearly, since patients and families fear otherwise |
| Meningitis and encephalitis | Aseptic meningitis is common and usually benign; mumps was a leading cause of viral meningitis before vaccination. It may occur without parotitis |
| Pancreatitis | Abdominal pain and vomiting; serum amylase is raised, but amylase also rises with parotitis alone, so lipase is needed to confirm |
| Deafness | Unilateral sensorineural deafness — historically a leading cause of acquired childhood deafness; usually permanent |
| Oophoritis | In about 5% of post-pubertal women; does not impair fertility |
| Others | Myocarditis, arthritis, thyroiditis, nephritis; abortion if infection occurs in the first trimester, but NO congenital malformation |
CLINICAL PEARL
Mumps orchitis is painful and frightening but rarely causes sterility. It affects perhaps a quarter of post-pubertal men and is usually unilateral, so even where atrophy follows, the other testis preserves fertility. Reassuring patients and families explicitly is part of the management, because the belief that mumps causes infertility is widespread and causes considerable and unnecessary distress.
Diagnosis, Treatment and Prevention
- The diagnosis is usually clinical where parotitis is present; confirmed by mumps IgM, a fourfold rise in IgG, or RT-PCR on saliva, a buccal swab, urine or cerebrospinal fluid, which is preferred in vaccinated populations where the IgM response may be blunted
- Serum amylase is raised in parotitis alone, so it cannot distinguish parotitis from pancreatitis; lipase is needed
- Differential diagnosis of parotid swelling — suppurative parotitis (unilateral, with pus from the duct, usually in a dehydrated or elderly patient), calculus, tumour, Sjögren syndrome, HIV-associated parotid enlargement, and drugs
- Treatment is supportive — analgesia, fluids, soft food and avoidance of sour or acidic items; scrotal support and anti-inflammatory drugs for orchitis. There is no specific antiviral
- Prevention — the live attenuated mumps vaccine, given as MMR; two doses are needed for reliable protection, and waning immunity with outbreaks in vaccinated young adults has been documented. Mumps vaccine is not part of India's Universal Immunisation Programme, though MMR is widely used in the private sector
Applied Aspects
- Reassure about fertility in mumps orchitis, since the fear is far greater than the actual risk
- Consider mumps in aseptic meningitis even without parotitis, since central nervous system involvement may occur alone
- Distinguish parotitis from cervical lymphadenopathy by whether the angle of the jaw is obscured, and from suppurative parotitis by expressing the duct
- Isolate for 5 days after the swelling appears, and exclude from school and work for that period
- Mumps remains common in India because the vaccine is not in the national programme, and outbreaks in schools and hostels are regularly reported
- Take a vaccination history in any parotid swelling; in a vaccinated patient the illness may be atypical and the IgM response unreliable, so PCR is preferred
Rotavirus
- A reovirus — naked, with a distinctive wheel-like appearance on electron microscopy (from the Latin rota), and a genome of 11 segments of double-stranded RNA — one of the few double-stranded RNA viruses
- The segmented genome permits reassortment, which generates diversity and has been exploited to construct the human-bovine reassortant vaccines
- Groups A to H, of which group A causes almost all human disease; typed by G (VP7) and P (VP4) proteins
- The commonest cause of severe dehydrating diarrhoea in children under 5 worldwide, and a leading cause of childhood death in India before vaccination
- Pathogenesis — it infects the mature enterocytes at the tips of the small intestinal villi, causing villous blunting with malabsorption; and the NSP4 protein acts as a viral enterotoxin causing active secretion. Secondary lactase deficiency follows and may prolong the diarrhoea
- Clinical picture — vomiting first, then profuse watery diarrhoea without blood or pus, with low-grade fever; dehydration may be severe and rapid, especially in infants
- Diagnosis — stool ELISA or latex agglutination for rotavirus antigen; RT-PCR and electron microscopy in outbreaks
- Prevention — oral live attenuated rotavirus vaccine, introduced into India's Universal Immunisation Programme, including the indigenously developed rotavac; a small risk of intussusception exists, which is why the schedule is age-restricted
CLINICAL PEARL
Rotavirus vaccination is worthwhile even though it does not prevent infection. Children still get rotavirus after vaccination — but they get it mildly, and it is severe dehydrating disease that fills paediatric wards and kills. The vaccine's value is therefore measured in hospital admissions and deaths averted rather than in cases prevented, which is an important distinction when its "failures" are pointed out.
Other Viral Causes of Gastroenteritis
| Virus | Features |
|---|---|
| Norovirus (Norwalk) | A calicivirus; naked and highly resistant. The commonest cause of gastroenteritis in adults and of outbreaks in closed communities — cruise ships, hospitals, hostels and hotels. A very low infecting dose (under 100 particles), projectile vomiting is prominent, and it is spread by aerosolised vomit as well as by the faecal-oral route. Immunity is short-lived. Alcohol rub IS ineffective — soap and water and hypochlorite are needed |
| Enteric adenovirus (types 40, 41) | The second commonest cause in young children after rotavirus; a longer incubation and a more prolonged illness |
| Astrovirus | A star-shaped naked virus; mild diarrhoea in children and the elderly |
| Sapovirus | A calicivirus causing illness similar to norovirus |
| Cytomegalovirus | Colitis in the immunosuppressed and in advanced HIV |
Management and Applied Aspects
- Oral rehydration solution is the treatment — the reduced-osmolarity formulation, given after every loose stool; intravenous fluids only for severe dehydration or persistent vomiting
- Zinc for 14 days in children reduces both the duration and severity of the current episode and the incidence of further episodes over the following months; it is standard in India
- Continue feeding and breastfeeding throughout; withholding food prolongs recovery and worsens nutrition. Lactose-free feeds are needed only if secondary lactase deficiency causes persistent diarrhoea
- Antibiotics have NO role in viral gastroenteritis, and antimotility drugs are contraindicated in children
- Infection control — hand hygiene with soap and water (alcohol rub is inadequate for these naked viruses), isolation and cohorting, exclusion of affected staff for 48 hours after symptoms settle, and environmental cleaning with hypochlorite
- Rotavirus vaccination has reduced severe childhood diarrhoea substantially in India, and diarrhoeal deaths in children have fallen with the combination of vaccination, oral rehydration, zinc and improved sanitation
- Distinguish viral from bacterial diarrhoea clinically — watery stool without blood, pus or high fever suggests a virus, and antibiotics are then not merely useless but harmful
- Norovirus outbreaks close wards, and the control measures are isolation, soap and water, and hypochlorite; alcohol gel gives false reassurance against a naked virus
Hepatitis a
- A picornavirus (enterovirus 72) — naked, icosahedral, with single-stranded positive-sense RNA; only one serotype, so infection confers lifelong immunity
- Being naked it is acid- and bile-resistant and survives in water, shellfish and on hands — exactly what the faecal-oral route requires. It is inactivated by boiling, chlorination and formalin
- Transmission — contaminated water and food, especially shellfish and raw produce; person to person in households and institutions; and rarely by blood
- Incubation 15 to 45 days; maximal infectivity is in the late incubation and prodromal period, before jaundice appears, so isolating a jaundiced patient achieves little
- The illness is age-dependent — in children under 6 it is usually anicteric and often asymptomatic, whereas in adults it is symptomatic and may be severe. This is why hepatitis A is a mild childhood illness in endemic areas and a serious adult one where hygiene has improved
- Course — a prodrome of anorexia, nausea, malaise and a characteristic aversion to smoking, then jaundice with dark urine and pale stools. It never becomes chronic and there is no carrier state; fulminant hepatic failure occurs in under 1%, but the risk rises with age and with pre-existing liver disease
- Diagnosis — anti-HAV IgM indicates acute infection; IgG indicates past infection and immunity
- Prevention — safe water, sanitation and food hygiene; an inactivated vaccine, used for travellers, those with chronic liver disease and in outbreak control; and immunoglobulin for post-exposure prophylaxis
Hepatitis E
- A hepevirus — naked, with single-stranded positive-sense RNA; transmitted by the faecal-oral route, characteristically through contaminated water
- It causes large waterborne epidemics, typically after monsoon flooding and contamination of drinking water with sewage; India has experienced several major outbreaks, including the Delhi epidemic of 1955–56 which first defined the disease
- Genotypes 1 and 2 are human and waterborne (Asia, Africa); genotypes 3 and 4 are zoonotic, acquired from undercooked pork and game in industrialised countries
- The critical fact: hepatitis E in pregnancy carries a mortality of about 20%, particularly in the third trimester, from fulminant hepatic failure — far higher than any other viral hepatitis and higher than in non-pregnant adults
- Usually self-limiting and not chronic in the immunocompetent; but genotype 3 causes chronic hepatitis in the immunosuppressed, particularly transplant recipients, in whom it can progress rapidly to cirrhosis
- Diagnosis — anti-HEV IgM; RT-PCR in the immunosuppressed, in whom serology is unreliable
- Treatment — supportive; ribavirin for chronic infection in the immunosuppressed, together with reduction of immunosuppression
- Prevention — safe drinking water and sanitation; a vaccine is licensed in China but is not widely available
CLINICAL PEARL
Hepatitis E is the one viral hepatitis that must be excluded urgently in a pregnant woman with jaundice. A mortality of around 20% in the third trimester makes it entirely different from hepatitis A, which is otherwise epidemiologically similar. In India, where waterborne outbreaks follow the monsoon every year, jaundice in late pregnancy is hepatitis E until proved otherwise and warrants admission and monitoring for encephalopathy.
Comparison and Applied Aspects
| Feature | Hepatitis A | Hepatitis E |
|---|---|---|
| Family | Picornavirus | Hepevirus |
| Transmission | Faecal-oral; food, shellfish, person to person | Faecal-oral, chiefly waterborne; also zoonotic (pork) |
| Typical epidemiology | Endemic with sporadic cases and small outbreaks; mostly children | Large explosive waterborne epidemics; mostly young adults |
| Chronicity | Never | Only in the immunosuppressed (genotype 3) |
| Mortality | Under 1% | 1 to 3% generally, but about 20% in pregnancy |
| Vaccine | Yes, widely available | Licensed in China only |
- Neither causes chronic liver disease in a healthy person, so a patient with acute hepatitis A or E can be told with confidence that full recovery is expected
- Isolation after jaundice appears is largely futile, since infectivity peaks before it; hand hygiene and safe water are what interrupt transmission
- Investigate the water supply in an outbreak of jaundice; a cluster of hepatitis E cases indicates faecal contamination of drinking water affecting a whole community
- Vaccinate against hepatitis A those with chronic liver disease, in whom superimposed acute hepatitis may be fatal
- Improving sanitation shifts hepatitis A to older ages, paradoxically increasing symptomatic and severe disease — which is the argument for vaccination as a country develops
- Test for hepatitis E in any pregnant woman with jaundice, and admit for monitoring; the outcome depends on recognising it early
The Virus
- A flavivirus — enveloped, with single-stranded positive-sense RNA; it has no DNA stage and does not integrate into the host genome
- Six major genotypes and many subtypes; genotype 3 predominates in India. Genotype formerly determined treatment duration, though pan-genotypic direct-acting antivirals have largely removed that requirement
- Its RNA polymerase lacks proofreading, generating a quasispecies — a swarm of closely related variants within one patient. This constant variation, particularly in the hypervariable envelope region, is why no vaccine exists and why reinfection is possible after cure
CLINICAL PEARL
Hepatitis C is curable but not preventable, and hepatitis B is preventable but not curable — and the reason is structural. HBV integrates its DNA and persists as cccDNA, so it cannot be eradicated from the cell; but its surface antigen is stable, so a vaccine works. HCV never integrates, so eliminating replication cures it; but its envelope varies constantly, so a vaccine has proved impossible. Two viruses, opposite strategies, opposite clinical consequences.
Transmission and Natural History
- Parenteral transmission predominates — injecting drug use, transfusion before screening, unsafe injections and unsterile medical or dental procedures, dialysis, tattooing and needlestick injury
- Sexual and vertical transmission occur but are uncommon, unlike hepatitis B — vertical transmission is about 5%, and rises with HIV co-infection
- In India, unsafe injection practice and unscreened blood have been major routes, with high prevalence in Punjab, Haryana and the north-east
- Acute infection is usually asymptomatic — only about 20% become jaundiced, which is why it is so rarely diagnosed at this stage
- Chronicity IS the rule — 50 to 80% become chronically infected, much the highest of any hepatitis virus. This is the central difference from hepatitis B in adults
- Of those chronically infected, roughly 20 to 30% develop cirrhosis over 20 to 30 years, and of those with cirrhosis about 1 to 4% per year develop hepatocellular carcinoma. Unlike hepatitis B, cancer nearly always follows cirrhosis, because the virus does not integrate and acts through chronic inflammation
- Progression is accelerated by alcohol, HIV or HBV co-infection, obesity and fatty liver, and older age at infection
- Extrahepatic manifestations — mixed cryoglobulinaemia with vasculitis, membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis, porphyria cutanea tarda, lichen planus, and non-Hodgkin lymphoma
Diagnosis and Treatment
- Screen with anti-HCV antibody — but this cannot distinguish current from past or cured infection, and remains positive after successful treatment
- Confirm with HCV RNA (PCR), which establishes active infection; a positive antibody with negative RNA indicates resolved or treated infection
- There is a window period of 6 to 8 weeks before antibody appears, so RNA testing is needed to diagnose acute infection or to assess a recent exposure
- Assess fibrosis non-invasively by transient elastography (FibroScan) or serum scores, which have largely replaced liver biopsy
- Direct-acting antivirals have transformed treatment — combinations such as sofosbuvir with daclatasvir or velpatasvir, given orally for 12 weeks, achieve cure in over 95% with few adverse effects. This replaced a year of injected interferon and ribavirin that cured about half of patients and was poorly tolerated
- Cure is defined as sustained virological response — undetectable HCV RNA 12 weeks after completing treatment
- Generic direct-acting antivirals manufactured in India reduced the cost from tens of thousands of dollars to a small fraction of that, and India's National Viral Hepatitis Control Programme provides free diagnosis and treatment
Applied Aspects
- Confirm every positive antibody with an RNA test before telling a patient they have hepatitis C; a substantial proportion have cleared the virus and need no treatment
- Screen those at risk — recipients of blood before screening began, people who inject drugs, dialysis patients, those with unexplained deranged liver enzymes, and healthcare workers after exposure
- There is NO vaccine and NO effective post-exposure prophylaxis; after a needlestick, the approach is to test the source and to monitor the recipient with RNA testing, treating early infection if it occurs
- Cure removes the virus but not the cirrhosis; patients who already have cirrhosis require continued surveillance for hepatocellular carcinoma despite being cured
- Advise abstinence from alcohol, which accelerates fibrosis substantially, and vaccinate against hepatitis A and B
- Unsafe injection practice remains a major driver in India; single-use syringes, proper sterilisation and safe waste disposal prevent far more hepatitis C than any treatment programme can cure
Coronaviruses
- Enveloped viruses with a helical nucleocapsid and the largest genome of any RNA virus — single-stranded positive-sense RNA. The name comes from the crown-like fringe of spike (S) glycoprotein seen on electron microscopy
- The spike protein determines the receptor and is the vaccine target; SARS-CoV-1 and SARS-CoV-2 bind ACE2, and MERS-CoV binds DPP4
- Unusually for an RNA virus it has a proofreading exonuclease, so it mutates more slowly than influenza or HIV — though over a pandemic of that scale variants still emerged
| Virus | Emergence and reservoir | Features |
|---|---|---|
| Common cold coronaviruses | Endemic worldwide | Mild upper respiratory illness; a significant proportion of common colds |
| SARS-CoV-1 | 2002, China; bats through civet cats | Severe acute respiratory syndrome; high mortality but contained and eliminated by isolation and contact tracing, because patients were infectious only after becoming symptomatic |
| MERS-CoV | 2012, Arabian peninsula; bats through dromedary CAMELS | High mortality (about 35%) but limited person-to-person spread; nosocomial outbreaks |
| SARS-CoV-2 | 2019; probable bat origin | COVID-19 — a pandemic, driven by substantial pre-symptomatic and asymptomatic transmission, which is precisely why it could not be contained as SARS-CoV-1 was |
CLINICAL PEARL
SARS was contained and COVID-19 was not, and the difference was the timing of infectivity. SARS-CoV-1 patients became infectious after they were symptomatic, so isolating symptomatic people interrupted transmission. SARS-CoV-2 spreads before symptoms and from people who never develop them, so the same strategy failed. A single feature of natural history, not virulence or transmissibility alone, determined whether an outbreak could be stopped by classical public health methods.
Covid-19 — Key Points
- Transmission — respiratory droplets and aerosols, favoured by crowded, closed and poorly ventilated spaces; and by contaminated surfaces to a lesser extent
- Clinical spectrum — from asymptomatic through mild upper respiratory illness to pneumonia, acute respiratory distress syndrome, thrombosis and multi-organ failure. anosmia and ageusia were characteristic early features; "happy hypoxia", with marked hypoxaemia and little breathlessness, was a notable and dangerous presentation
- Risk factors for severe disease — age, obesity, diabetes, hypertension, chronic lung, cardiac and kidney disease, and immunosuppression
- Diagnosis — RT-PCR on a nasopharyngeal swab is the standard; rapid antigen tests are less sensitive but useful for rapid screening; serology indicates past infection or vaccination
- Treatment — supportive care and oxygen; dexamethasone in those requiring oxygen (its mortality benefit was among the most important findings of the pandemic); anticoagulation; and antivirals in selected patients. Antibiotics have no role unless bacterial co-infection is proven
- Vaccines — developed with unprecedented speed using mRNA, viral vector and inactivated whole-virus platforms; India produced and deployed Covishield and the indigenous Covaxin on a very large scale
- Long COVID — persistent fatigue, breathlessness, cognitive difficulty and other symptoms lasting months, of uncertain mechanism
Other Emerging Viral Infections
| Virus | Reservoir and transmission | Features |
|---|---|---|
| NIPAH | Fruit bats; through date palm sap, pigs, and person TO person | Outbreaks in KERALA and West Bengal; encephalitis with respiratory illness and very high mortality; requires BSL-4 handling and strict barrier nursing |
| EBOLA and Marburg | Bats; person to person through body fluids | Viral haemorrhagic fever with high mortality; healthcare workers and those handling bodies are at particular risk; an effective vaccine now exists |
| ZIKA | AEDES mosquitoes; also sexual and vertical transmission | A mild illness in adults, but causes microcephaly and congenital Zika syndrome, and Guillain-Barré syndrome |
| Crimean-Congo haemorrhagic fever | Ticks and livestock; person to person including to healthcare workers | Reported from Gujarat and Rajasthan; high mortality |
| Kyasanur Forest disease | Ticks; monkeys; Western Ghats | Haemorrhagic fever with a biphasic course; a vaccine exists |
| Hantavirus | Rodent excreta | Haemorrhagic fever with renal syndrome; pulmonary syndrome |
Applied Aspects
- Most emerging viruses are zoonoses, and their emergence is driven by deforestation, wildlife trade, intensive animal farming, urbanisation and travel — so prevention is ecological and agricultural as much as medical
- The "one health" approach — integrating human, animal and environmental health surveillance — is the accepted framework, and India has established programmes along these lines
- Suspect Nipah in encephalitis with respiratory features in Kerala, particularly with bat or date palm sap exposure or a cluster of cases, and institute barrier precautions immediately; healthcare workers have died in Indian outbreaks
- Barrier precautions protect staff in viral haemorrhagic fevers; nosocomial amplification has been a feature of nearly every outbreak, and safe burial practices matter as much as clinical care
- Rapid genomic sequencing and open data sharing allowed the SARS-CoV-2 vaccine to be designed within days of the sequence being published, and this capacity is now part of outbreak preparedness
- Notify unusual clusters early; the interval between the first case and recognition determines whether an outbreak is contained or becomes an epidemic, and that interval depends on a clinician thinking something is odd and reporting it
General Properties
- Fungi are eukaryotes — they possess a true nucleus with a nuclear membrane, mitochondria, an endoplasmic reticulum and 80S ribosomes. This alone separates them fundamentally from bacteria
- Cell wall of chitin with glucans and mannans — not peptidoglycan. This is why antibacterial antibiotics have no effect on fungi, and why antibacterial treatment predisposes to fungal overgrowth
- The cell membrane contains ergosterol, where the human membrane contains cholesterol — the single most important fact in medical mycology, because it is the basis of nearly every antifungal drug
- Heterotrophic and mostly saprophytic, obtaining nutrition by absorption after external digestion; most are aerobic
- Grow best at 22 to 25°C, at acid pH, and in high sugar and salt — conditions exploited in Sabouraud medium
- Reproduce sexually (the teleomorph or perfect state) and asexually (the anamorph or imperfect state); medical identification rests almost entirely on the asexual spores, whose shape and arrangement are characteristic
CLINICAL PEARL
Antifungal drugs are more toxic than antibacterial ones because the target is a cell much more like ours. A bacterium has a peptidoglycan wall, 70S ribosomes and its own metabolic enzymes — none of which man possesses, so a penicillin can be almost harmless. A fungus is a eukaryote, so the points of difference are few. ergosterol instead of cholesterol in the membrane is the main one, and it is exploited by amphotericin B (which binds it) and the azoles (which block its synthesis) — but the resemblance to cholesterol is precisely why amphotericin B is nephrotoxic.
Morphological Forms
| Form | Structure | Examples |
|---|---|---|
| Yeast | Unicellular, round or oval; reproduces by budding (blastoconidia); forms smooth creamy pasty colonies | Cryptococcus, Saccharomyces |
| Yeast-like | Yeasts that also form pseudohyphae — chains of elongated buds that have not separated | Candida |
| Mould (filamentous) | Branching filaments called hyphae, forming a mat called a mycelium; the colony is fluffy or powdery | Dermatophytes, Aspergillus, Mucorales |
| Dimorphic | Mould in the environment and in culture at 25°C, but yeast in tissue and at 37°C — "mould in the cold, yeast in the heat" | Histoplasma, Blastomyces, Coccidioides, Paracoccidioides, Sporothrix, Talaromyces (Penicillium) marneffei |
- Septate hyphae have cross-walls and are found in dermatophytes, Aspergillus (which branches at an acute angle of about 45 degrees) and most moulds
- Aseptate (coenocytic) hyphae are broad, ribbon-like and lack cross-walls, branching at wide (90 degree) angles — characteristic of the mucorales. This distinction on microscopy is immediately actionable, since the treatments differ
Classification of Mycoses
| Type | Site | Examples |
|---|---|---|
| Superficial | Outermost skin and hair only; NO tissue reaction and therefore no inflammation — the complaint is cosmetic | Pityriasis versicolor (Malassezia), tinea nigra, black and white piedra |
| Cutaneous | Keratinised tissue — skin, hair and nail; an inflammatory response occurs | Dermatophytoses (tinea); cutaneous candidiasis |
| Subcutaneous | Dermis, subcutaneous tissue and bone, after traumatic implantation | Mycetoma, sporotrichosis, chromoblastomycosis, rhinosporidiosis |
| Systemic (deep) | Internal organs, usually by inhalation; caused by dimorphic fungi that infect the healthy as well as the immunosuppressed — true pathogens | Histoplasmosis, blastomycosis, coccidioidomycosis, paracoccidioidomycosis |
| Opportunistic | Cause disease only when host defences fail; individually of low virulence but collectively the commonest and most lethal fungal infections in hospital | Candida, aspergillus, cryptococcus, mucorales, Pneumocystis |
Predisposing Factors and Virulence
- Host factors — neutropenia (the single most important for Aspergillus and Candida), impaired cell-mediated immunity (HIV, steroids, transplantation — predisposing to Cryptococcus, Pneumocystis and Histoplasma), diabetes with ketoacidosis (mucormycosis above all), malignancy and chemotherapy, and prematurity
- Iatrogenic factors — broad-spectrum antibiotics (removing competing bacterial flora), corticosteroids, indwelling catheters and prosthetic devices, parenteral nutrition, surgery, and burns
- Local factors — moisture, occlusion, maceration, poor hygiene and a hot humid climate, all of which matter greatly for the superficial mycoses in India
- Fungal virulence factors — ability to grow at 37°C; dimorphism (the yeast form resists phagocytosis); the capsule of Cryptococcus; adhesins and biofilm formation on devices; proteases and phospholipases; melanin, which scavenges free radicals; and angioinvasion, characteristic of Aspergillus and the Mucorales
Antifungal Targets
| Class | Target | Consequence |
|---|---|---|
| Polyenes — amphotericin B, nystatin | Bind ergosterol, forming pores in the membrane | Fungicidal and broad, but they bind human cholesterol to a degree, which is why amphotericin B is nephrotoxic and causes infusion reactions; liposomal formulations reduce this |
| Azoles — fluconazole, itraconazole, voriconazole, posaconazole | Inhibit 14-alpha-demethylase (a CYP enzyme), blocking ergosterol synthesis | Fungistatic against yeasts; many drug interactions because the target is a cytochrome P450 enzyme and the human enzymes are affected too |
| Allylamines — terbinafine | Inhibit squalene epoxidase, an earlier step in ergosterol synthesis | Fungicidal; concentrates in keratin, which suits skin and nail disease. Resistance in T. Indotineae arises by mutation of this enzyme |
| Echinocandins — caspofungin, micafungin | Inhibit beta-1,3-glucan synthase in the cell wall | The target is absent in man, so they are the best tolerated antifungals; active against Candida and Aspergillus but not Cryptococcus or the Mucorales |
| Flucytosine | Converted to 5-fluorouracil, disrupting nucleic acid synthesis | Never used alone because resistance emerges rapidly; combined with amphotericin B in cryptococcal meningitis |
| Griseofulvin | Disrupts the mitotic spindle | Deposited in keratin; still used for Microsporum tinea capitis in children |
Applied Aspects
- Antibacterial antibiotics predispose to fungal infection by removing the competing flora; oral and vaginal candidiasis after a course of antibiotics is the everyday example, and the treatment is often to stop the antibiotic
- Ergosterol explains the whole antifungal armamentarium — polyenes bind it, azoles and terbinafine block its synthesis at different steps, and echinocandins act instead on the cell wall glucan, which man does not possess at all and which is why they are the best tolerated
- Fungal infection is increasing because the population at risk is increasing — more transplantation, more chemotherapy, more intensive care, more diabetes and more HIV
- Suspect fungal infection in a neutropenic patient with persistent fever despite broad-spectrum antibiotics; this is the classical clinical setting and delay is costly
- India has a very large fungal disease burden, driven by diabetes, tuberculosis, HIV and a hot humid climate, and it is substantially under-diagnosed because mycology services are limited
- Take a fungal infection seriously in a diabetic; poor glycaemic control and ketoacidosis convert organisms of low virulence into rapidly fatal ones
- Fungi are eukaryotes, so cytotoxic and immunosuppressive drugs do not touch them while disabling the host defences that were containing them — which is the whole basis of opportunistic mycosis
- Dimorphism is a virulence mechanism, not a curiosity; the temperature shift to the yeast form is what allows survival in tissue, and mutants unable to convert are avirulent
- Distinguishing colonisation from infection is the central difficulty in medical mycology, because so many of these organisms are commensals or environmental contaminants
- Suspect fungal infection where an "antibiotic-resistant" infection fails to improve; the commonest reason a fungal diagnosis is delayed is that nobody considered it
- The rise in fungal infection follows the rise in modern medicine — transplantation, chemotherapy, intensive care and indwelling devices all create the hosts these organisms require
- Echinocandins are the best-tolerated antifungals precisely because their target, the cell wall glucan, has no human counterpart — the same logic that makes penicillin safe
- Azole interactions are extensive because the target is a cytochrome P450 enzyme; check every co-prescription, particularly statins, warfarin, immunosuppressants and antiepileptics
- Amphotericin B nephrotoxicity is dose-limiting; liposomal formulations reduce it substantially but are far more expensive, which is a real constraint in Indian practice
- Prolonged azole prophylaxis selects resistant species — C. Glabrata and C. Krusei emerge under fluconazole, and breakthrough mucormycosis occurs under voriconazole
- Fungal infections require prolonged treatment, measured in weeks to months, and relapse after premature discontinuation is the rule rather than the exception
- Terbinafine concentrates in keratin, which is why it suits skin and nail infection and why it is ineffective against yeasts and against Malassezia given orally
- Only four antifungal classes are in common use, against many antibacterial classes, so each resistance development costs proportionally far more
- Griseofulvin requires a fatty meal for absorption, which is a practical instruction that determines whether treatment for tinea capitis works at all
The Dermatophytes
Dermatophytes are keratinophilic fungi that invade only the keratinised tissues — skin, hair and nail — and do not penetrate living tissue. The infections they cause are called dermatophytoses or tinea.
| Genus | Tissues invaded | Notes |
|---|---|---|
| Trichophyton | Skin, hair and nail — all three | The commonest genus; produces abundant pencil-shaped MICROconidia and few macroconidia. T. Rubrum and T. Mentagrophytes are the usual isolates |
| Microsporum | Skin and hair — not nail | Produces abundant thick-walled spindle-shaped MACROconidia; M. Canis is acquired from cats and dogs and fluoresces under Wood light |
| Epidermophyton | Skin and nail — never hair | Only E. Floccosum; club-shaped macroconidia in clusters and NO microconidia |
| Ecological group | Source | Host response |
|---|---|---|
| Anthropophilic | Man to man | Mild inflammation but chronic and relapsing — the fungus is well adapted to its host, so it is tolerated and persists |
| Zoophilic | Animals — cats, dogs, cattle | Intense inflammation, sometimes with a boggy kerion, but it tends to resolve, because the poorly adapted fungus provokes a vigorous response |
| Geophilic | Soil | Marked inflammation; uncommon |
CLINICAL PEARL
The more inflamed a ringworm looks, the better the prognosis. A zoophilic fungus is poorly adapted to man, so it provokes a violent inflammatory response — and that response tends to clear it, sometimes without treatment. An anthropophilic fungus has co-evolved with us, provokes little reaction, and therefore persists for years. The angry kerion usually resolves; the quiet scaly patch is the one that recurs.
Clinical Types
| Type | Site and features |
|---|---|
| Tinea capitis | Scalp; almost confined to children. Scaly patches with broken hairs and alopecia; a kerion is a boggy, tender, inflammatory swelling that may scar. Oral treatment is essential — topical agents cannot reach the hair follicle |
| Tinea corporis | Glabrous skin; annular lesions with an active, scaly, raised advancing edge and central clearing — hence "ringworm" |
| Tinea cruris | Groin ("jock itch"); commoner in men, favoured by heat, sweating and occlusive clothing; characteristically spares the scrotum, which distinguishes it from candidiasis |
| Tinea pedis | Feet ("athlete's foot"); interdigital maceration, scaling, or a "moccasin" pattern; associated with occlusive footwear and communal bathing |
| Tinea unguium (onychomycosis) | Nail; thickening, yellow discolouration, subungual hyperkeratosis and onycholysis. Requires prolonged oral treatment — weeks to months — and relapse is common |
| Tinea barbae, faciei, manuum | Beard area, face and hand; tinea faciei is frequently misdiagnosed and treated with steroids |
| Tinea incognito | Dermatophytosis modified by topical steroids — the inflammation and the scaly edge are suppressed, so it looks better while spreading widely and atypically |
| ID reaction (dermatophytid) | A sterile hypersensitivity eruption at a distant site, containing NO fungus; it resolves when the primary infection is treated |
Laboratory Diagnosis
- Specimen — skin scrapings from the active advancing edge (not the cleared centre, where the fungus is scanty); plucked hairs with their roots, not cut hairs; and nail clippings with subungual debris from as proximal a point as possible
- KOH mount — 10 to 20% potassium hydroxide (40% with dimethyl sulphoxide for nails) digests the keratin and leaves the fungus visible as branching septate hyphae and arthrospores. It is cheap, takes minutes, and is the single most useful test
- Calcofluor white binds chitin and fluoresces, making the hyphae far easier to see; used with a fluorescence microscope
- Hair invasion patterns — ectothrix (spores outside the hair shaft, seen with Microsporum, and fluorescent) and endothrix (spores within the shaft, with T. Tonsurans and T. Violaceum, and non-fluorescent)
- Wood lamp — ultraviolet light at 365 nm; Microsporum species fluoresce a bright green, whereas Trichophyton species do not fluoresce, so a negative Wood lamp does not exclude tinea capitis
- Culture on sabouraud dextrose agar with cycloheximide (to suppress saprophytic moulds) and chloramphenicol (to suppress bacteria), at 25 to 28°C for up to 4 weeks. Identification is by colony colour and texture, reverse pigment, and the microscopic appearance of macro- and microconidia in a lactophenol cotton blue mount
- Dermatophyte test medium turns red on alkali production, giving a presumptive result; PCR and MALDI-TOF where available
Treatment
- Topical treatment suffices for limited glabrous skin disease — terbinafine, clotrimazole, ketoconazole or luliconazole, continued for 1 to 2 weeks beyond clinical clearance, which is the step most often omitted
- Oral treatment is essential for — tinea capitis (always), tinea unguium, extensive or recurrent disease, tinea barbae, and infection in the immunosuppressed. Topical agents cannot penetrate hair follicles or the nail plate
- Oral agents — terbinafine (fungicidal, concentrated in keratin, the usual first choice); itraconazole (broad, but with many interactions and negative inotropic effects); griseofulvin (older, fungistatic, requires a fatty meal for absorption, and remains preferred for Microsporum tinea capitis in children); fluconazole
- General measures — keep the area dry, wear loose cotton clothing, avoid sharing towels and clothes, treat family members and pets, disinfect or discard footwear, and continue for the full course
- Do not use topical or oral corticosteroids, and in particular do not use combination creams containing them
Differential Diagnosis of Annular Skin Lesions
| Condition | Distinguishing features |
|---|---|
| Tinea corporis | Active scaly raised edge with central clearing; itchy; KOH positive |
| Pityriasis rosea | A herald patch followed by a "Christmas tree" distribution along skin lines; collarette of scale inside the edge; self-limiting |
| Nummular (discoid) eczema | Coin-shaped, uniformly scaly and vesicular without central clearing; very itchy |
| Psoriasis | Thick silvery scale, well-defined, on extensor surfaces; nail pitting; Auspitz sign |
| Granuloma annulare | An annular ring of firm papules with NO scale — the absence of scale is the key |
| Leprosy (borderline tuberculoid) | Hypopigmented or erythematous plaque with definite loss OF sensation and a thickened nerve — always test sensation in an annular patch |
| Erythema migrans | Expanding "bull’s-eye" after a tick bite; Lyme disease, rare in India |
- Two bedside tests separate most of these — a KOH mount and a test of sensation. Both take minutes and cost nothing, and omitting them is how leprosy and tinea are both missed
Applied Aspects — the Indian Epidemic
- India is experiencing an epidemic of chronic recalcitrant dermatophytosis — extensive, atypical, steroid-modified and treatment-resistant tinea, which has changed the disease from a trivial complaint into a major dermatological problem
- The dominant cause is the over-the-counter steroid-antifungal-antibacterial combination cream. The steroid suppresses inflammation so the rash looks better while the fungus spreads unchecked, producing extensive tinea incognito and selecting resistant organisms
- A new species, Trichophyton indotineae, has emerged in India and spread internationally; it carries squalene epoxidase mutations conferring terbinafine resistance, so the standard first-line drug fails
- Practical consequences — longer courses at higher doses, itraconazole as first-line in many centres, treatment of the whole household simultaneously, and attention to clothing and environment
- Confirm the diagnosis with a KOH mount before treating; the steroid-modified lesion no longer looks like ringworm, and an unconfirmed diagnosis leads to months of wrong treatment
- Counsel patients explicitly against combination creams, which are cheap, widely available and give rapid symptomatic relief — which is precisely why they are so damaging; several have now been banned in India but remain in circulation
- Treat for 1 to 2 weeks beyond clinical clearance; stopping when the rash disappears is the commonest reason for relapse, since viable fungus persists in apparently normal skin
- Treat the whole household and any pets in recurrent tinea; reinfection from an untreated family member is otherwise inevitable
- Scrape from the advancing edge, not the centre; the cleared centre contains few organisms and yields a falsely negative KOH mount
- Tinea capitis always requires oral treatment, and a child treated with creams alone will not clear; this is among the commonest errors in general practice
- A negative Wood lamp does not exclude tinea capitis, since only Microsporum fluoresces and most Indian cases are caused by Trichophyton
The Organism
- Candida albicans is the commonest species, but non-albicans species are increasing — C. Glabrata, C. Tropicalis, C. Parapsilosis, C. Krusei and C. Auris
- A yeast-like fungus — oval budding cells with pseudohyphae, and true hyphae in invasive disease. It forms smooth creamy colonies on Sabouraud agar
- A normal commensal of the mouth, gastrointestinal tract and vagina in a large proportion of healthy people — so infection is nearly always endogenous, arising when the balance shifts rather than on acquisition from outside
- Virulence factors — adhesins; the yeast-to-HYPHA transition, which is required for tissue invasion; secreted aspartyl proteases and phospholipases; biofilm formation on catheters and prostheses; and phenotypic switching
Predisposing Factors
| Category | Factors |
|---|---|
| Local | Moisture, occlusion, maceration and obesity (intertrigo); dentures; inhaled corticosteroids without rinsing the mouth |
| Physiological | Extremes of age; pregnancy (raised oestrogen and vaginal glycogen) |
| Endocrine | Diabetes mellitus — recurrent vaginal or oral candidiasis may be the presenting feature of undiagnosed diabetes |
| Iatrogenic | Broad-spectrum antibiotics (removing competing bacteria), corticosteroids, cytotoxic drugs, central venous catheters, parenteral nutrition, abdominal surgery, dialysis |
| Immunological | HIV, neutropenia, transplantation; and inherited defects of Th17 immunity causing chronic mucocutaneous candidiasis |
CLINICAL PEARL
Recurrent thrush in an adult is a symptom, not a diagnosis. Candida is a commensal, so disease means the host has changed — and the commonest reasons are diabetes, HIV, antibiotics and corticosteroids. Oral candidiasis in an adult who is not on inhaled steroids, wearing dentures or recently treated with antibiotics should prompt a blood glucose and an HIV test rather than simply a prescription for nystatin.
Clinical Forms
| Form | Features |
|---|---|
| Oral (thrush) | Creamy white plaques on the tongue and buccal mucosa that can BE scraped off leaving a raw bleeding surface — which distinguishes it from oral hairy leukoplakia and from lichen planus, neither of which rubs off. Also angular cheilitis, denture stomatitis and an atrophic erythematous form |
| Oesophageal | Dysphagia and retrosternal pain; an AIDS-defining illness at CD4 below 200 |
| Vulvovaginal | Intense itching with a thick "cottage cheese" discharge and vulval erythema; the pH remains normal (below 4.5), unlike bacterial vaginosis and trichomoniasis, which is a useful bedside discriminator |
| Cutaneous | Intertrigo in warm moist flexures with characteristic satellite lesions; napkin dermatitis, which involves the skin folds where irritant dermatitis spares them; paronychia and onychomycosis in those with wet hands |
| Chronic mucocutaneous | Persistent disfiguring infection of skin, nails and mucosae from a defect of T-cell immunity; may be associated with endocrinopathy |
| Urinary | Usually catheter-associated colonisation, which needs no treatment; candiduria in a non-catheterised patient may indicate disseminated disease |
| Candidaemia and disseminated candidiasis | Usually from a central line or the gut; a leading cause of hospital bloodstream infection with high mortality. Seeds to eye (endophthalmitis), kidney, liver, spleen, bone, heart valves and brain |
| Hepatosplenic (chronic disseminated) | Multiple lesions appearing as neutrophil counts recover after chemotherapy — an immune reconstitution phenomenon |
Laboratory Diagnosis
- Microscopy — Gram stain or KOH mount showing budding yeasts with pseudohyphae. In tissue, seeing hyphae indicates invasion, whereas yeasts alone may represent colonisation
- Culture on Sabouraud agar at 37°C, giving creamy colonies within 24 to 48 hours; CHROMagar distinguishes species by colony colour, which matters because species predicts susceptibility
- Germ tube test (Reynolds-Braude phenomenon) — incubation in serum at 37°C for 2 to 3 hours produces germ tubes without a constriction at the point of origin, identifying C. Albicans and C. Dubliniensis rapidly and cheaply
- Chlamydospore formation on cornmeal agar with Tween 80 — thick-walled terminal chlamydospores are characteristic of C. Albicans
- Sugar assimilation and fermentation, automated identification systems, and MALDI-TOF
- Blood culture is positive in only about 50% of invasive candidiasis, so a negative result does not exclude it; beta-D-glucan and T2Candida assays and PCR help in that gap
- Interpretation is the difficulty — because Candida is a commensal, isolating it from sputum, a wound swab or catheter urine usually means colonisation, and only isolation from a normally sterile site proves infection
Differentiating the Candida Species
| Species | Germ tube | Fluconazole | Clinical note |
|---|---|---|---|
| C. Albicans | Positive | Susceptible | The commonest; forms chlamydospores on cornmeal agar |
| C. Glabrata | Negative | Dose-dependent or resistant | Small yeasts with NO pseudohyphae; increasingly echinocandin-resistant; commoner in the elderly and after azole exposure |
| C. Tropicalis | Negative | Usually susceptible | Common in neutropenic patients with haematological malignancy |
| C. Parapsilosis | Negative | Susceptible | Grows on catheters and in parenteral nutrition; carried on the hands of staff; reduced echinocandin susceptibility; a major neonatal unit pathogen |
| C. Krusei | Negative | Intrinsically resistant | Emerges under fluconazole prophylaxis |
| C. Auris | Negative | Usually resistant | Multidrug-resistant, environmentally persistent and transmitted patient to patient; frequently misidentified |
Treatment and Applied Aspects
- Topical for mucocutaneous disease — nystatin, clotrimazole or miconazole; oral fluconazole for oesophageal, recurrent or extensive disease
- Invasive candidiasis — an echinocandin (caspofungin, micafungin, anidulafungin) is first-line, being fungicidal, well tolerated and active against most species; fluconazole where the isolate is susceptible and the patient stable; liposomal amphotericin B as an alternative
- Species predicts resistance — C. Krusei is intrinsically resistant to fluconazole, C. Glabrata is often resistant or dose-dependent, and C. Parapsilosis has reduced echinocandin susceptibility — so identification to species level directly changes treatment
- Remove the central line in candidaemia; biofilm on the catheter cannot be sterilised, and retention is associated with persistent fungaemia and death
- Perform fundoscopy in every case of candidaemia to detect endophthalmitis, which is sight-threatening and requires prolonged and different treatment; and take repeat blood cultures to document clearance
- Do not treat asymptomatic candiduria in a catheterised patient; remove or change the catheter instead
- Look for the underlying cause — check the blood glucose, review the antibiotics and steroids, and consider HIV; treating the candidiasis without addressing the reason for it guarantees recurrence
- Seeing hyphae in tissue indicates invasion, whereas yeasts alone may be colonisation — a distinction the histopathology report should be asked for explicitly
- Rinse the mouth after an inhaled corticosteroid and use a spacer; oral candidiasis in an asthmatic is usually a technique problem rather than an immune one
- Oesophageal candidiasis is AIDS-defining, and its diagnosis in an adult should prompt HIV testing without exception
- Vaginal candidiasis has a normal pH, unlike bacterial vaginosis and trichomoniasis; a simple pH strip separates the three at the bedside and avoids inappropriate treatment
- Candidaemia mortality is high and time-dependent, so empirical antifungal treatment is started in a septic patient with risk factors rather than awaiting culture
- Non-albicans species now account for about half of isolates in many Indian units, which is why species identification cannot be treated as an academic refinement
- C. Parapsilosis is carried on the hands of staff and grows in parenteral nutrition, so hand hygiene and line care are the specific preventive measures in neonatal units
- Repeat blood cultures until they are negative, and count the duration of treatment from the first negative culture rather than from the start of therapy
- Do not treat Candida grown from sputum; it essentially never causes pneumonia in an immunocompetent adult and represents oropharyngeal contamination
Aspergillus
- A ubiquitous environmental mould with septate hyphae branching at acute (about 45 degree) angles, and characteristic conidiophores bearing a swollen vesicle with radiating phialides — the appearance that gives it its name (from the aspergillum, a holy water sprinkler)
- Species — A. Fumigatus (the commonest invasive pathogen), A. Flavus (commoner in India, and the producer of aflatoxin), A. Niger (otomycosis) and A. Terreus (intrinsically amphotericin-resistant)
- Acquired by inhalation of spores, which are everywhere in air, soil, dust, decaying vegetation and damp buildings; hospital construction and renovation are a recognised cause of outbreaks in haematology units
- It is angioinvasive in the immunosuppressed, invading blood vessels to cause thrombosis, infarction and haemorrhage — which explains the wedge-shaped infarcts, the haemoptysis and the dissemination
| Form | Host | Features |
|---|---|---|
| Allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis (ABPA) | Asthma and cystic fibrosis — an immunocompetent but atopic host | A hypersensitivity reaction (types I and III), not invasion — worsening asthma, brown mucus plugs, fleeting infiltrates, central bronchiectasis, eosinophilia, high total and specific IgE. Treated with corticosteroids with itraconazole |
| Aspergilloma (fungus ball) | A pre-existing cavity — most often an old tuberculous cavity, which makes it common in India | A ball of hyphae lying free within the cavity, producing the "air crescent" or "MONOD sign" on imaging and moving with posture. Causes haemoptysis, which may be massive and fatal. Antifungals penetrate poorly; surgery or bronchial artery embolisation for bleeding |
| Chronic pulmonary aspergillosis | Mild immune impairment; post-tuberculous lung | Slowly progressive cavitation and fibrosis over months; long-term azoles |
| Invasive aspergillosis | Profound and prolonged neutropenia; transplantation; high-dose steroids | Fever unresponsive to antibiotics, pleuritic pain, haemoptysis; the halo sign and later the air crescent on CT; dissemination to brain, sinuses, skin and elsewhere. High mortality |
| Others | — | Otomycosis (A. Niger, with a characteristic black "wet blotting paper" appearance); sinusitis; keratitis; onychomycosis |
CLINICAL PEARL
Aspergillus causes three entirely different diseases in the same lung, and which one depends on the host rather than the fungus. An atopic host mounts a hypersensitivity response and gets ABPA, treated with steroids. A host with an old cavity and normal immunity gets a fungus ball, treated with surgery. A neutropenic host gets invasive disease, treated with antifungals. Giving the wrong one of those three treatments is actively harmful — steroids in invasive disease are catastrophic.
The Mucorales — Mucormycosis
- Caused by Rhizopus, Mucor, Rhizomucor, Lichtheimia and related genera
- Broad, ribbon-like, aseptate (or sparsely septate) hyphae branching at wide, roughly 90-degree angles — the microscopic appearance that distinguishes it from Aspergillus and that must be recognised immediately, because the treatments differ
- The classical predisposing factor is diabetic ketoacidosis. The organisms require free iron, and acidosis releases iron from transferrin; they also possess a ketone reductase allowing them to thrive in a high-glucose acidotic environment
- Other risk factors — neutropenia, haematological malignancy, transplantation, corticosteroids, iron overload and desferrioxamine (which acts as a siderophore for the fungus), malnutrition, burns and penetrating trauma
- Rhino-orbito-cerebral is the commonest form — beginning in the nose and paranasal sinuses with facial pain and nasal congestion, then a black necrotic eschar on the palate or nasal turbinate, orbital involvement with proptosis and ophthalmoplegia, and finally cerebral extension. It is angioinvasive, causing thrombosis and infarction, which is why the tissue turns black
- Other forms — pulmonary (in neutropenia), cutaneous (after trauma or contaminated dressings), gastrointestinal (in malnourished infants) and disseminated
- India has the highest burden of mucormycosis in the world, driven by the prevalence of uncontrolled diabetes; a very large surge occurred during the COVID-19 pandemic, attributed to the combination of diabetes, corticosteroids and COVID-19 itself
Diagnosis
- Direct microscopy is the most important immediate test — KOH or calcofluor white on tissue, showing either septate acute-angle hyphae (Aspergillus) or broad aseptate wide-angle hyphae (Mucorales). This distinction can be made within minutes and dictates treatment
- Histopathology with silver or PAS stains, demonstrating tissue invasion and angioinvasion — the definitive proof of invasive disease
- Culture on Sabouraud agar without cycloheximide, which inhibits these moulds; but culture is frequently negative in mucormycosis because grinding the tissue destroys the aseptate hyphae — so the tissue should be minced, not ground
- Galactomannan antigen in serum or bronchoalveolar lavage for Aspergillus; and beta-D-glucan, which is raised in many fungal infections but is negative in mucormycosis and in cryptococcosis
- Imaging — the halo sign and air crescent in invasive aspergillosis; the reverse halo sign and bone erosion in mucormycosis; magnetic resonance imaging for orbital and cerebral extension
- PCR and MALDI-TOF where available
Distinguishing the Two on Microscopy
| Feature | Aspergillus | Mucorales |
|---|---|---|
| Septation | Septate — regular cross-walls | Aseptate or sparsely septate |
| Width | Narrow and uniform (3–6 micrometres) | Broad, irregular, ribbon-like (6–25 micrometres) |
| Branching angle | Acute — about 45 degrees, dichotomous and regular | Wide — about 90 degrees, irregular |
| Culture | Usually grows readily | Frequently negative, because grinding the tissue destroys the aseptate hyphae — the specimen must be minced |
| Galactomannan | Positive | Negative |
| Beta-D-glucan | Positive | Negative |
| Voriconazole | Active — first-line | Intrinsically resistant — and voriconazole prophylaxis has been associated with breakthrough mucormycosis |
| Amphotericin B | Active | Active — the drug of choice, in liposomal form and high dose |
Treatment and Applied Aspects
- Invasive aspergillosis — voriconazole is first-line, with isavuconazole and liposomal amphotericin B as alternatives; echinocandins are only adjunctive, since Aspergillus is not reliably killed by them
- Mucormycosis — requires three things together: (1) urgent and repeated surgical debridement of all necrotic tissue, which is the decisive intervention; (2) liposomal amphotericin B in high dose, with posaconazole or isavuconazole as step-down; and (3) correction of the underlying condition — reversing ketoacidosis, controlling glucose, stopping steroids and stopping desferrioxamine
- The mucorales are intrinsically resistant to voriconazole, fluconazole and the echinocandins. This is the single most important therapeutic fact: a patient treated for presumed aspergillosis with voriconazole who actually has mucormycosis will deteriorate, and voriconazole prophylaxis has itself been associated with breakthrough mucormycosis
- Suspect mucormycosis in a diabetic with facial pain, nasal blockage or a black nasal or palatal lesion, and examine the nose and palate directly; delay of days changes the outcome
- Prevention in hospital — HEPA filtration and positive-pressure rooms for neutropenic patients, barriers during construction work, and avoiding damp and dust
- Glycaemic control and rational steroid use are the practical preventive measures in India; the COVID-19-associated surge in mucormycosis followed directly from steroid use in patients whose diabetes was then poorly controlled
- Examine the nose and palate in any diabetic with facial pain or periorbital swelling; a black eschar is a surgical emergency and the examination takes seconds
- Aspergilloma is common in India because tuberculosis is; an old tuberculous cavity is the usual substrate, and haemoptysis in a treated tuberculosis patient should raise it before assuming relapse
- Galactomannan may be falsely positive with piperacillin-tazobactam and other beta-lactams, and falsely negative in patients already on antifungal prophylaxis — both worth knowing before acting on a single result
- Never treat presumed aspergillosis with voriconazole in a ketoacidotic diabetic without excluding mucormycosis, since the Mucorales are intrinsically resistant to it and the patient will deteriorate
- Surgery is the decisive treatment in mucormycosis, and repeated debridement is usually necessary; antifungals alone rarely succeed because the tissue is already infarcted and no drug reaches it
- Stop desferrioxamine immediately in a patient who develops mucormycosis, since it acts as a siderophore delivering iron to the fungus
- Reverse the ketoacidosis as urgently as the infection; the acidosis releases iron from transferrin and is what permits the fungus to grow at all
- ABPA is treated with steroids, which is counterintuitive in a fungal disease and is the point most often misunderstood; itraconazole is adjunctive and steroid-sparing
- Massive haemoptysis from an aspergilloma is a surgical or radiological emergency; bronchial artery embolisation buys time where resection is not immediately possible
- Ask about hospital construction work in a cluster of invasive aspergillosis on a haematology unit; renovation is a documented cause of outbreaks and the remedy is engineering rather than antifungal
- Steroids in invasive aspergillosis are catastrophic and in ABPA are the treatment — which is why the distinction between the three pulmonary forms must be made before anything is prescribed
- Mince the tissue, do not grind it, when mucormycosis is suspected; this single instruction to the laboratory determines whether the culture grows anything
Cryptococcus
- An encapsulated yeast — C. Neoformans (associated with pigeon droppings and soil, and affecting the immunosuppressed) and C. Gattii (associated with eucalyptus trees, and able to infect the immunocompetent)
- The polysaccharide capsule is the principal virulence factor — it is antiphagocytic, inhibits the immune response, and is the antigen detected diagnostically. Non-capsulated strains are avirulent
- Other virulence factors — melanin, produced by phenol oxidase from substrates in the brain (which is one reason for its neurotropism), and growth at 37°C
- Acquired by inhalation, causing a usually silent pulmonary infection, then haematogenous spread with a marked predilection for the central nervous system
- Risk factors — advanced HIV with CD4 below 100 (much the commonest), corticosteroids, transplantation, lymphoma, sarcoidosis and cirrhosis
- Cryptococcal meningitis is the commonest clinical form — a subacute illness developing over weeks with headache, fever and altered behaviour. Neck stiffness is often absent or mild, because the inflammatory response is poor in the immunosuppressed — which is why it is repeatedly missed
- Raised intracranial pressure is the major cause of death and of blindness, and must be managed by repeated therapeutic lumbar puncture rather than by drugs; mannitol and acetazolamide are ineffective
- Other forms — pulmonary cryptococcosis, cutaneous lesions resembling molluscum contagiosum, and disseminated disease
- Diagnosis — INDIA ink (negative) preparation of cerebrospinal fluid showing budding yeasts with a clear halo, positive in about 50 to 80%; cryptococcal antigen (CrAg) by latex agglutination or lateral flow assay, which is the test of choice, being over 95% sensitive on both cerebrospinal fluid and serum; culture on Sabouraud agar; and mucicarmine staining of tissue. The cerebrospinal fluid shows a lymphocytic picture with high protein and low glucose, and often a strikingly high opening pressure
- Treatment — induction with liposomal amphotericin B plus flucytosine for 2 weeks, then consolidation with high-dose fluconazole for 8 weeks, then maintenance until immune reconstitution
- Delay antiretroviral therapy by 4 to 6 weeks in cryptococcal meningitis; starting it early causes a high mortality from iris within the confined space of the cranium
CLINICAL PEARL
People with cryptococcal meningitis die of pressure, not of the fungus. The capsule blocks cerebrospinal fluid reabsorption at the arachnoid villi, and the resulting intracranial hypertension causes the headache, the visual loss and much of the mortality — while the antifungal is working perfectly well. The treatment is mechanical: daily therapeutic lumbar punctures removing enough fluid to halve the pressure. This single measure saves more lives than any adjustment of the drug regimen.
Pneumocystis Jirovecii
- Reclassified from a protozoon to a fungus on genetic grounds, though it retains protozoal features: it has cholesterol rather than ergosterol in its membrane, which is exactly why amphotericin B and the azoles do not work against it
- Formerly P. Carinii; the human pathogen is now named P. Jirovecii, though the pneumonia is still abbreviated PCP
- It cannot be cultured, so diagnosis rests entirely on microscopy and molecular methods
- Exists as a trophozoite and a cyst containing up to 8 intracystic bodies; acquired by inhalation, with most people infected in childhood
- The classical opportunistic infection of advanced HIV with CD4 below 200; also occurs with corticosteroids, transplantation, haematological malignancy and severe malnutrition in infants
- Clinical features — an insidious onset over weeks in HIV (but abrupt and more severe in non-HIV immunosuppression) with a dry cough, progressive exertional dyspnoea and fever. The chest is characteristically clear on auscultation despite marked hypoxaemia and extensive radiographic change — a very useful discrepancy
- Investigations — bilateral perihilar interstitial ("bat-wing") infiltrates on the chest radiograph, though it may be normal early; ground-glass opacification on CT; markedly raised serum LDH; profound hypoxaemia with desaturation ON exercise, which may be the earliest objective sign
- Diagnosis — induced sputum or bronchoalveolar lavage stained with methenamine silver, toluidine blue or Giemsa, or by immunofluorescence; PCR is more sensitive but may detect colonisation. Beta-D-glucan is raised
- Treatment — high-dose CO-trimoxazole for 21 days, orally or intravenously; alternatives are clindamycin with primaquine, pentamidine or atovaquone
- Add corticosteroids if the PaO2 is below 70 mmHg or the alveolar-arterial gradient exceeds 35, given before or with the antimicrobial. They reduce mortality by suppressing the inflammatory response provoked by dying organisms
- Prophylaxis with co-trimoxazole when the CD4 falls below 200, or with oral candidiasis or another AIDS-defining illness; continued until immune restoration
Comparison of the Major Opportunistic Fungi
| Organism | Key host defect | Distinguishing feature |
|---|---|---|
| Candida | Neutropenia; central lines; antibiotics; diabetes | Budding yeasts with pseudohyphae; germ tube positive |
| Aspergillus | Prolonged neutropenia; steroids | Septate hyphae, acute-angle branching; galactomannan positive |
| Mucorales | Diabetic ketoacidosis; iron overload; steroids | Broad aseptate hyphae, wide-angle branching; beta-D-glucan negative |
| Cryptococcus | Impaired cell-mediated immunity — HIV with CD4 below 100 | Encapsulated yeast; INDIA ink halo; CrAg positive; beta-D-glucan negative |
| Pneumocystis | HIV with CD4 below 200; steroids | Cannot be cultured; cholesterol membrane, so azoles and amphotericin fail; treated with CO-trimoxazole |
Cerebrospinal Fluid in Cryptococcal Meningitis
| Parameter | Typical finding | Comment |
|---|---|---|
| Opening pressure | Markedly raised, often above 25 cm H2O | The key measurement and the key treatment target; it must be measured, and a manometer must be available |
| Cells | Mild lymphocytic pleocytosis, and sometimes normal | A near-normal cell count does not exclude the diagnosis in advanced HIV, because the patient cannot mount a response |
| Protein | Raised | — |
| Glucose | Low | Overlaps with tuberculous meningitis |
| India ink | Positive in 50 to 80% | Rapid and cheap; a negative result does not exclude |
| Cryptococcal antigen | Positive in over 95% | The test of choice; also positive on serum, allowing screening |
| Culture | Positive | Confirms and allows susceptibility testing |
- The differential is tuberculous meningitis, which is common in India and gives a similar lymphocytic picture with high protein and low glucose; cryptococcal antigen and CBNAAT distinguish them, and both may coexist
Applied Aspects
- Measure and manage the opening pressure in cryptococcal meningitis; daily therapeutic lumbar puncture is the intervention that saves sight and life, and it is frequently omitted
- Screen for cryptococcal antigen in advanced HIV before starting antiretroviral therapy; pre-emptive fluconazole in those who are CrAg positive but asymptomatic prevents meningitis and death
- Do not start antiretroviral therapy immediately in cryptococcal meningitis; wait 4 to 6 weeks because of the risk of intracranial iris
- Suspect Pneumocystis when hypoxaemia is out of proportion to the clinical examination, and check saturation on exertion, which unmasks it when the resting value is normal
- Give steroids with co-trimoxazole in hypoxaemic Pneumocystis pneumonia, and give them first — a rule that is counterintuitive in an infection and therefore easily forgotten
- Both infections indicate advanced immunosuppression, so their diagnosis should always prompt HIV testing and staging if the status is unknown
- Neck stiffness is often absent in cryptococcal meningitis, because the immunosuppressed patient cannot mount the inflammatory response that produces it; a subacute headache in advanced HIV warrants lumbar puncture regardless
- Cryptococcal antigen can be tested on serum as well as cerebrospinal fluid, and the lateral flow format works at the bedside without a laboratory — which makes screening feasible in Indian district settings
- Pneumocystis cannot be cultured, so a negative culture report means nothing; the diagnosis requires staining of induced sputum or lavage, or PCR
- Beta-D-glucan is negative in cryptococcosis and mucormycosis but positive in Pneumocystis, candidiasis and aspergillosis — a pattern that is diagnostically useful rather than a limitation
- Flucytosine is essential in induction for cryptococcal meningitis and measurably improves survival, but its availability in India has been limited — a supply problem with a direct mortality cost
- Give co-trimoxazole prophylaxis at CD4 below 200; it prevents Pneumocystis, toxoplasmosis and several bacterial infections at negligible cost, and is among the highest-value interventions in HIV care
- Cryptococcosis and tuberculous meningitis coexist in advanced HIV, so finding one does not exclude the other and both should be tested for
The Concept of Dimorphism
Dimorphic fungi exist in two forms — a mould in the environment and in culture at 25°C, and a yeast (or spherule) in tissue and in culture at 37°C. "Mould in the cold, yeast in the heat."
- The mould form is the infectious form, producing spores that are inhaled; the yeast form is the invasive (parasitic) form found in the patient
- The switch is triggered by temperature, and is essential to virulence — mutants unable to convert to the yeast form are avirulent
- They are true pathogens, able to infect the immunocompetent, unlike the opportunists; but disease is far more severe and disseminated in the immunosuppressed
- Cultures are hazardous — the mould form generates infectious spores, so suspected cultures must be handled in a biological safety cabinet at BSL-3; these are among the commonest laboratory-acquired fungal infections
| Fungus | Distribution and source | Tissue form and disease |
|---|---|---|
| Histoplasma capsulatum | Soil enriched with bird and bat droppings; caves, chicken coops and old buildings. In INDIA it is endemic along the gangetic plain, especially West Bengal and Bihar | Small intracellular yeasts within macrophages. Mostly asymptomatic or a flu-like illness; chronic cavitary lung disease resembling tuberculosis; and disseminated disease in HIV with fever, hepatosplenomegaly, pancytopenia and mucosal ulcers |
| Blastomyces dermatitidis | Moist soil and decaying wood, North America | Broad-based single budding yeast with a thick refractile wall. Pulmonary disease with characteristic verrucous skin lesions and bone involvement |
| Coccidioides immitis | Arid desert soil of the south-western United States ("valley fever") | Forms a spherule containing endospores — not a budding yeast, which is the exception in this group. Causes pneumonia with erythema nodosum; dissemination is commoner in pregnancy and in certain ethnic groups |
| Paracoccidioides brasiliensis | South America | A "pilot wheel" of multiple buds around a central yeast; mucocutaneous and pulmonary disease, chiefly in adult men |
| Talaromyces (Penicillium) marneffei | South-east Asia and north-east INDIA; bamboo rats | Divides by fission, not budding; an AIDS-defining illness with fever, anaemia and umbilicated skin lesions resembling molluscum |
| Sporothrix schenckii | Soil, thorns, sphagnum moss — implanted by trauma rather than inhaled | Cigar-shaped yeasts; lymphocutaneous sporotrichosis |
CLINICAL PEARL
Histoplasmosis is regularly misdiagnosed and treated as tuberculosis in India. Both cause chronic cough, fever, weight loss, cavitary lung disease and granulomas; both are endemic along the Gangetic plain; and both may present with oral ulcers, hepatosplenomegaly and adrenal involvement in disseminated form. The distinction requires looking for the intracellular yeasts in a bone-marrow or tissue smear, or antigen testing — and it matters, because a patient given antitubercular drugs for histoplasmosis will not improve.
Diagnosis and Treatment
- Direct microscopy and histopathology with Giemsa, methenamine silver or PAS, looking for the characteristic tissue form, which is often diagnostic by its morphology alone
- Culture at both 25 and 37°C to demonstrate dimorphism; growth is slow, taking up to 4 weeks, and must be handled with containment
- Antigen detection — Histoplasma antigen in urine and serum is sensitive in disseminated disease and is the most useful rapid test; serology by immunodiffusion and complement fixation, though it is unreliable in the immunosuppressed
- Treatment — mild disease may need none; itraconazole for mild to moderate disease, and liposomal amphotericin B for severe or disseminated disease followed by itraconazole, continued for months and until immune reconstitution in HIV
Applied Aspects
- Consider histoplasmosis in "tuberculosis" that fails to respond, particularly in an HIV-positive patient from an endemic area with pancytopenia and hepatosplenomegaly
- Take an exposure history — caves, bird roosts, poultry, demolition of old buildings, and travel; the epidemiology often makes the diagnosis before any test
- Warn the laboratory when a dimorphic fungus is suspected, so that cultures are handled safely; sniffing a plate has caused infection
- Look for adrenal involvement in disseminated histoplasmosis, which may cause Addison disease and is treatable if recognised
- Talaromycosis is an AIDS-defining illness in north-east India and south-east Asia, and should be considered in a patient from that region with fever and umbilicated skin lesions
- Fungal serology is unreliable in the immunosuppressed, who may not produce antibody; antigen detection and direct demonstration are required instead
Definition and Common Features
Subcutaneous mycoses are chronic infections of the dermis, subcutaneous tissue and sometimes bone, caused by fungi of low virtue that live in soil and vegetation and are introduced by traumatic implantation.
- Common features — a history of minor penetrating injury, often forgotten; an indolent chronic course over months to years; localised disease with little tendency to disseminate in the immunocompetent; and a marked occupational association with barefoot agricultural work
- They occur in immunocompetent people, unlike the opportunistic mycoses, and are diseases of exposure rather than of immunity
| Disease | Organism | Features |
|---|---|---|
| Mycetoma (Madura foot) | Eumycetoma — fungi (Madurella); actinomycetoma — bacteria (Nocardia, Actinomadura, Streptomyces) | The triad of painless swelling, multiple discharging sinuses, and grains in the discharge; destroys underlying bone. Named after madurai. Distinguishing the fungal from the bacterial form is essential, because actinomycetoma responds to antibiotics while eumycetoma needs antifungals and usually surgery |
| Sporotrichosis | Sporothrix schenckii — a dimorphic fungus | The "rose gardener disease" — implanted by a thorn, splinter or sphagnum moss. A nodule at the site ulcerates, then further nodules appear in a linear chain along the lymphatics — the characteristic lymphocutaneous pattern. Cigar-shaped yeasts and asteroid bodies in tissue. Treated with itraconazole, or the traditional saturated potassium iodide |
| Chromoblastomycosis | Pigmented (dematiaceous) fungi — Fonsecaea, Cladophialophora | Slowly progressive warty, cauliflower-like verrucous plaques on the leg or foot. Diagnostic finding: sclerotic (muriform or "copper penny") bodies — thick-walled brown septate cells in tissue. Notoriously difficult to treat; itraconazole with terbinafine, cryotherapy, surgery |
| Phaeohyphomycosis | Dematiaceous fungi | Cysts and abscesses containing dark-walled hyphae, distinguishing it from chromoblastomycosis, in which the fungus is present as sclerotic bodies |
| Rhinosporidiosis | Rhinosporidium seeberi — now classified among the Mesomycetozoea, not a true fungus, and it cannot be cultured | Friable, vascular, polypoid masses in the nose and conjunctiva that bleed readily. Associated with bathing in stagnant ponds. Endemic in southern India and Sri Lanka. Treated by surgical excision with cautery of the base; recurrence is common and drugs are ineffective |
| Lobomycosis, subcutaneous zygomycosis | Lacazia; Basidiobolus, Conidiobolus | Basidiobolomycosis causes a firm painless subcutaneous swelling in children in tropical India |
CLINICAL PEARL
The grain in a mycetoma sinus tells you whether the patient keeps the limb. An actinomycetoma is caused by bacteria and responds to co-trimoxazole with amikacin or dapsone, often completely. A eumycetoma is fungal, responds poorly to antifungals, and frequently ends in amputation. The grains differ in colour and in their microscopic appearance — thin bacterial filaments against broad fungal hyphae — and the examination costs nothing.
Diagnosis and Applied Aspects
- Examine the discharge for grains macroscopically, then crush and stain them; Gram stain shows the fine branching filaments of actinomycetoma and KOH shows the broad hyphae of eumycetoma
- Biopsy with special stains — PAS and methenamine silver; look specifically for sclerotic bodies (chromoblastomycosis), asteroid bodies (sporotrichosis) and sporangia (rhinosporidiosis)
- Culture on Sabouraud agar at 25 and 37°C, which is slow; imaging to assess bone involvement in mycetoma
- Footwear is the single most effective preventive measure for mycetoma and chromoblastomycosis, and remains under-emphasised in the endemic belts of India
- Ask about the occupation and about minor trauma; the injury may have occurred months or years earlier and will not be volunteered
- Consider lymphocutaneous spread in a chain of nodules — the differential includes sporotrichosis, Mycobacterium marinum, nocardiosis and leishmaniasis, and the history of exposure separates them
- Footwear prevents mycetoma, and this is a simple, cheap and under-emphasised public health measure in the endemic districts of India
- These infections are chronic and painless, so patients present late, often after bone destruction has occurred; a high index of suspicion in an agricultural worker with a slowly enlarging swelling shortens that delay
- Mycetoma is now recognised by the WHO as a neglected tropical disease, and India lies within the endemic "mycetoma belt"
- Treatment is prolonged — months to years — and adherence is the principal determinant of outcome; patients frequently stop when the discharge settles and relapse follows
- Rhinosporidiosis recurs after excision unless the base is thoroughly cauterised, and no drug is reliably effective, so surgical technique determines the result
- Do not mistake a verrucous plaque for tuberculosis verrucosa cutis or squamous carcinoma; a scraping or biopsy showing sclerotic bodies settles it immediately
- Immunosuppression changes the picture — sporotrichosis may disseminate rather than remaining lymphocutaneous, and requires systemic amphotericin B rather than itraconazole
Importance and Predisposing Factors
Fungal keratitis (keratomycosis) is infection of the corneal stroma by fungi. It is a leading cause of corneal blindness in India, where it accounts for a much higher proportion of infective keratitis than in temperate countries.
- The dominant risk factor is trauma with vegetable or organic matter — a paddy husk, a twig, a thorn, or dust during agricultural work. This is why it is a disease of agricultural workers and why it peaks in the harvesting season
- Other risk factors — topical corticosteroids (which convert a manageable infection into a devastating one), contact lens wear especially with contaminated solutions, previous ocular surgery, chronic ocular surface disease, and diabetes
- Organisms — filamentous fungi predominate in the tropics: fusarium and aspergillus (with Curvularia and other dematiaceous fungi), whereas candida predominates in temperate countries and in eyes with pre-existing surface disease
Clinical Features and Diagnosis
| Feature | Fungal keratitis | Bacterial keratitis |
|---|---|---|
| Onset and course | Insidious, over days to weeks | Rapid, over hours to days |
| Pain | Often less than the clinical signs would suggest | Severe and proportionate |
| Ulcer margin | Dry, raised, with feathery or serrated hyphate edges | Well-defined with a wet necrotic base |
| Satellite lesions | Characteristically present | Absent |
| Other signs | An endothelial plaque, an immune ring, and pigmentation with dematiaceous fungi | Dense stromal infiltrate |
| Hypopyon | Thick and immobile; fungi may penetrate an intact Descemet membrane to reach the anterior chamber | Mobile; usually sterile |
| History | Vegetable or organic trauma; agricultural work | Contact lens; ocular surface disease |
- Corneal scraping is the essential investigation, taken from the base and the advancing edge of the ulcer under topical anaesthesia with a sterile blade, and inoculated directly onto media at the slit lamp
- KOH mount with calcofluor white gives an immediate answer and shows septate or aseptate hyphae; Gram and Giemsa stains; culture on Sabouraud agar without cycloheximide and on blood agar, incubated for up to 3 weeks
- Confocal microscopy allows hyphae to be seen in the living cornea non-invasively and is increasingly used; PCR where available
- Corneal biopsy if scrapings are repeatedly negative and the ulcer progresses
CLINICAL PEARL
Topical steroids in fungal keratitis can cost the eye. They suppress the inflammatory response that is containing the fungus, allowing rapid deep invasion, perforation and endophthalmitis. Because a fungal ulcer may initially look and feel less angry than a bacterial one, and because steroids give immediate symptomatic relief, they are prescribed all too readily — which is why no red eye should receive steroids without a slit-lamp examination and a scraping.
Treatment and Prevention
- Topical natamycin 5% is first-line for filamentous keratitis, particularly Fusarium, and is the only commercially available topical antifungal in many places; topical voriconazole or amphotericin B for yeasts and resistant cases
- Given hourly initially, tapered over weeks; treatment is prolonged, often 6 weeks or more, and premature discontinuation causes relapse
- Oral antifungals (voriconazole, itraconazole) for deep, severe or scleral involvement; intrastromal or intracameral injection in selected cases
- NO topical corticosteroids; and cycloplegics for comfort and to prevent synechiae
- Surgery — therapeutic keratoplasty for perforation or unresponsive disease; tissue adhesive for small perforations; evisceration in an unsalvageable painful eye
- Prevention — protective eyewear during agricultural work and threshing; prompt attention to any ocular injury; discouraging the traditional application of oils, plant juices and herbal preparations to an injured eye, which is common and harmful; and avoiding unsupervised steroid drops
Applied Aspects
- Refer any corneal ulcer for slit-lamp examination and scraping before prescribing anything; treating blind with a combination drop is the commonest route to a blind eye
- Ask about the mechanism of injury — vegetable matter points strongly to fungus and changes the initial treatment while awaiting the smear
- Fungal keratitis is a major cause of monocular blindness in rural India, and the burden falls on working-age agricultural labourers, with substantial economic consequences for the family
- Contact lens hygiene matters — never rinse lenses or cases in tap water, replace solutions rather than topping up, and remove lenses at the first sign of redness
- Warn against traditional eye remedies; instillation of oils, breast milk, plant extracts and kajal into an injured eye introduces organisms and delays presentation
- Treat for long enough; fungal ulcers appear to worsen in the first days of correct treatment as organisms die, and this must not be mistaken for failure
Mycotoxins
Mycotoxins are toxic secondary metabolites produced by fungi growing on food and feed. The resulting illness is a mycotoxicosis — an intoxication, not an infection, so it is neither transmissible nor treatable with antifungals.
| Mycotoxin | Fungus and source | Effect |
|---|---|---|
| Aflatoxin B1 | Aspergillus flavus and A. Parasiticus growing on improperly dried and stored groundnuts, maize, cottonseed and spices — a major problem in humid Indian storage conditions | The most potent natural hepatocarcinogen known; a WHO Group 1 carcinogen. Causes hepatocellular carcinoma, with a striking synergy with hepatitis B (the combined risk far exceeding the sum). Acute high-dose exposure causes fatal hepatitis, as in the 1974 outbreak in Gujarat and Rajasthan. Also causes immunosuppression and growth stunting in children |
| Ochratoxin A | Aspergillus and Penicillium on cereals, coffee and dried fruit | Nephrotoxic and carcinogenic; implicated in Balkan endemic nephropathy |
| Ergot alkaloids | Claviceps purpurea on rye and bajra (pearl millet) | Ergotism — the gangrenous form ("St Anthony fire") from intense vasoconstriction, and the convulsive form. An outbreak occurred in Rajasthan from contaminated bajra |
| Trichothecenes (T-2 toxin) | Fusarium on cereals | Alimentary toxic aleukia with bone marrow suppression and haemorrhage; investigated as a biological weapon |
| Fumonisins | Fusarium on maize | Oesophageal carcinoma; neural tube defects; equine leukoencephalomalacia |
| Amatoxin | Mushroom poisoning — Amanita phalloides | Inhibits RNA polymerase II; fulminant hepatic failure after a deceptive latent period of 6 to 24 hours |
CLINICAL PEARL
Aflatoxin and hepatitis B multiply each other rather than adding. Either alone raises the risk of hepatocellular carcinoma; together the risk is far greater than the sum, because aflatoxin causes a characteristic p53 mutation while chronic hepatitis drives the cell proliferation that fixes it. In parts of India where both are common, this interaction is a substantial and largely preventable cause of liver cancer — preventable by vaccination and by drying and storing grain properly.
Prevention of Mycotoxin Exposure
- Adequate drying of grain and groundnuts before storage, and storage in dry, ventilated, pest-free conditions — fungal growth requires moisture, so this is the fundamental control
- Sorting and discarding visibly mouldy, discoloured or shrivelled kernels
- Regulatory limits and monitoring of aflatoxin in food and animal feed; India has statutory limits under food safety regulations
- Hepatitis B vaccination, which removes the synergistic cofactor
- Mycotoxins are heat-stable and survive cooking, roasting and processing, so contaminated food cannot be made safe by preparation — prevention must occur before and during storage
Fungal Allergy
- Fungal spores are among the commonest aeroallergens — Aspergillus, Alternaria, Cladosporium and Penicillium are ubiquitous in air, and counts rise in damp weather and in poorly ventilated damp buildings
- Allergic rhinitis and asthma — type I (IgE-mediated) hypersensitivity; Alternaria sensitisation is associated with severe and fatal asthma
- Allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis (ABPA) — a combined type I and type III reaction in asthma and cystic fibrosis, with bronchiectasis; treated with corticosteroids, not with antifungals alone
- Allergic fungal rhinosinusitis — nasal polyps with thick eosinophilic "allergic mucin" containing hyphae but no tissue invasion; treated by surgery and steroids. It is common in the hot humid parts of India and must be separated from invasive fungal sinusitis, in which steroids would be disastrous
- Hypersensitivity pneumonitis (extrinsic allergic alveolitis) — a type III and IV reaction to inhaled organic dust: farmer lung (Aspergillus and thermophilic actinomycetes in mouldy hay), bagassosis (mouldy sugarcane bagasse, described in India), malt worker lung and bird fancier lung. Removal of exposure prevents irreversible fibrosis
Applied Aspects
- Distinguish allergic from invasive fungal sinusitis before giving steroids; the clinical pictures overlap, the treatments are opposite, and the consequence of error is rapid invasive disease
- Consider ABPA in asthma that is difficult to control, particularly with brown mucus plugs, fleeting infiltrates and eosinophilia; total IgE is the screening test
- Take an occupational history in unexplained breathlessness — farming, sugarcane processing, grain handling and bird keeping each point to a specific hypersensitivity pneumonitis, and removal from exposure is the treatment
- Aflatoxin exposure is largely preventable by post-harvest practice, which is an agricultural intervention with a direct oncological benefit
- Damp housing is a genuine health issue, and remediation reduces both allergy and asthma exacerbations
- Mycotoxicoses are not infections; antifungal drugs have no role, and management is removal of the source with supportive care
Malassezia and Pityriasis Versicolor
- Malassezia furfur (and related species) is a lipophilic yeast and a normal commensal of skin rich in sebaceous glands — scalp, face, chest and back
- It is lipid-dependent and will not grow on ordinary Sabouraud agar; the medium must be overlaid with olive oil, which is a characteristic and examinable laboratory requirement
- Pityriasis (tinea) versicolor — well-demarcated macules on the trunk, neck and upper arms that are HYPOpigmented on dark skin and HYPERpigmented on pale skin (hence "versicolor"), with fine branny scaling brought out by scratching
- The hypopigmentation is caused by azelaic acid produced by the yeast, which inhibits tyrosinase in melanocytes — and it persists for months after the fungus is eradicated, which must be explained or the patient will believe the treatment has failed
- KOH mount shows the classical "spaghetti and meatballs" appearance — short curved hyphae with clusters of round yeast cells. Wood lamp gives a golden-yellow fluorescence
- Favoured by heat, humidity, sweating, oily skin and immunosuppression, so it is extremely common in India and recurs seasonally
- Also causes seborrhoeic dermatitis and dandruff; Malassezia folliculitis (itchy monomorphic follicular papules on the back, often mistaken for acne and made worse by antibiotics); and catheter-related fungaemia in neonates receiving intravenous lipid emulsions, which supply exactly the lipid it requires
- Treatment — topical ketoconazole or selenium sulphide shampoo applied to the whole trunk; oral fluconazole or itraconazole for extensive or recurrent disease. Terbinafine is ineffective orally against it, although topical terbinafine works — a practical point frequently got wrong
CLINICAL PEARL
The pale patches persist for months after successful treatment, and this must be explained before treatment starts. The yeast is gone within days, but the azelaic acid it produced has already inhibited melanin synthesis, and repigmentation requires sun exposure over weeks to months. A patient not warned of this concludes the treatment failed, buys another cream, and often ends up with a steroid combination — which is how a trivial condition becomes a complicated one.
Other Superficial Mycoses
| Condition | Organism | Features |
|---|---|---|
| Tinea nigra | Hortaea werneckii — a dematiaceous fungus | A painless brown-black macule on the palm or sole, resembling a stain. Its importance is that it is regularly mistaken for melanoma and biopsied unnecessarily; a KOH mount showing brown septate hyphae settles it |
| Black piedra | Piedraia hortae | Hard, gritty black nodules firmly attached to the scalp hair shaft; the hair may break. Common in tropical India |
| White piedra | Trichosporon species | Soft, pale, easily detached nodules on facial, axillary and pubic hair. Trichosporon also causes disseminated infection in the neutropenic, and gives a false-positive cryptococcal antigen test |
| Otomycosis | Aspergillus niger, A. Fumigatus, Candida | Itching, blocked ear and discharge; A. Niger gives a characteristic black "wet blotting paper" appearance in the canal. Treated by thorough suction clearance with topical antifungals; common in humid climates |
| Onychomycosis by non-dermatophyte moulds | Scopulariopsis, Fusarium, Aspergillus | Separate these from dermatophyte nail disease, since they respond poorly to terbinafine; repeated isolation is needed to prove significance |
Applied Aspects
- Explain that repigmentation takes months in pityriasis versicolor, and that the persistence of pale patches does not mean treatment failure
- Recurrence is the rule in a humid climate; intermittent prophylactic shampoo use before the hot season is a practical measure
- Do not biopsy a palmar pigmented macule before doing a KOH mount; tinea nigra is a trivial condition that has led to unnecessary excision for suspected melanoma
- Consider Malassezia folliculitis in "acne" on the back that worsens with antibiotics; it responds to antifungals and not to antibacterials
- Ask about intravenous lipid emulsion in a neonate with unexplained fungaemia, and request that the laboratory overlay the culture with oil, or Malassezia will not grow and the blood culture will be reported as negative
- Superficial mycoses cause no tissue reaction and are a cosmetic rather than a medical problem — but they cause real distress, and dismissing them is what drives patients to unregulated combination creams
- Treat the scalp as well as the trunk in pityriasis versicolor; the scalp is the reservoir from which recolonisation occurs, and treating the visible patches alone guarantees recurrence
- Trichosporon causes a false-positive cryptococcal antigen test, which can lead to a patient being treated for cryptococcal meningitis they do not have
Candida Auris
- First described in 2009 from an ear canal in Japan, and now reported worldwide; India has a particularly high burden and was among the first countries to report large hospital outbreaks
- Four distinct clades emerged simultaneously on different continents, which is biologically remarkable and remains unexplained; global warming and agricultural azole use have both been proposed
- Why it matters — it is unique among Candida species in combining several dangerous properties:
| Property | Consequence |
|---|---|
| Multidrug resistance | Most isolates are fluconazole resistant; many resist amphotericin B; and some resist echinocandins, leaving essentially no options. Pan-resistant strains have been reported |
| Persistence in the environment | Unlike other Candida species it survives for weeks on bed rails, mattresses, trolleys, thermometers and blood pressure cuffs, and resists many common disinfectants — so it behaves like a hospital bacterium rather than a yeast |
| Skin colonisation | It colonises the axilla and groin rather than the gut, so it is spread by contact and by shared equipment between patients |
| Misidentification | Conventional biochemical systems frequently report it as C. Haemulonii, Rhodotorula or Saccharomyces; correct identification requires MALDI-TOF or sequencing — so an outbreak may be invisible |
| Thermotolerance and salt tolerance | Grows at 42°C, which most Candida species do not |
CLINICAL PEARL
Candida auris behaves like a resistant hospital bacterium, and must be controlled like one. Other Candida infections are endogenous — the patient's own flora invading through a line. C. Auris spreads patient to patient via hands, equipment and the environment, and persists on surfaces for weeks. So the response is not primarily antifungal stewardship but contact precautions, single rooms or cohorting, dedicated equipment, screening of contacts, and terminal cleaning with a sporicidal agent.
Management and Control
- Echinocandins are first-line pending susceptibility results, since most isolates retain some susceptibility; combination therapy and newer agents where resistance is present
- Always request species identification and susceptibility testing; empirical fluconazole will usually fail
- Remove or replace infected lines and devices, as with other candidaemia
- Infection control — contact precautions, isolation or cohorting, dedicated or thoroughly disinfected equipment, screening of contacts (axilla and groin swabs), and environmental cleaning with hypochlorite or hydrogen peroxide; quaternary ammonium compounds are inadequate
- Notify and investigate a single isolate as a potential outbreak, since by the time several are found, colonisation is usually widespread
Other Emerging and Resistant Fungi
| Organism | Concern |
|---|---|
| Trichophyton indotineae | Emerged in INDIA and spread internationally; causes extensive steroid-modified tinea and carries squalene epoxidase mutations conferring terbinafine resistance |
| Azole-resistant Aspergillus fumigatus | Resistance selected in the environment by agricultural azole fungicides, so patients acquire an already-resistant organism without any previous antifungal exposure — a direct parallel with antibacterial resistance from agriculture |
| Candida glabrata and C. Krusei | Rising as fluconazole use increases; C. Krusei is intrinsically fluconazole resistant, and C. Glabrata is increasingly echinocandin-resistant |
| Fusarium and Scedosporium | Intrinsically resistant to many antifungals; cause keratitis and disseminated disease in the neutropenic |
| Mucormycosis | Surged in India during the COVID-19 pandemic through the combination of diabetes, corticosteroids and the infection itself |
Applied Aspects
- Antifungal resistance is following the same trajectory as antibacterial resistance, and for the same reasons — empirical use, prophylaxis, incomplete courses and agricultural application — but with far fewer drug classes available to lose
- There are only four antifungal classes in common use (polyenes, azoles, echinocandins and flucytosine), against many antibacterial classes, so each loss is proportionally far more serious
- Identify Candida to species level rather than reporting "Candida species"; the species predicts susceptibility and therefore the treatment
- Environmental azole use selects resistant Aspergillus, so a patient may present with azole-resistant invasive aspergillosis having never taken an antifungal — which is an argument for treating agriculture as part of stewardship
- India is central to several of these emergences — C. Auris, T. Indotineae and COVID-associated mucormycosis — reflecting the combination of a large at-risk population, unregulated drug availability and limited mycology laboratory capacity
- Investing in diagnostic mycology is the practical response; resistance cannot be managed without identification and susceptibility testing, and most Indian laboratories currently lack both
Specimen Collection
| Site | Specimen and technique |
|---|---|
| Skin | Scrapings with a blunt scalpel from the active advancing edge, not the cleared centre; clean the site with 70% alcohol first to remove bacteria and ointment; collect onto dark paper, which also allows dry storage for weeks |
| Hair | Plucked with forceps to include the root and follicle — cut hairs are useless, since the fungus is in the base of the shaft. Use a Wood lamp to select fluorescent hairs where available |
| Nail | Clippings taken as proximally as possible together with subungual debris, where the viable fungus lies; the distal free edge contains mostly dead material |
| Respiratory | Early-morning sputum, bronchoalveolar lavage, or a lung biopsy; a 24-hour collection is not used, as it overgrows with bacteria |
| Cerebrospinal fluid | Large volume, since organisms are scanty; process promptly and do not refrigerate |
| Blood | Standard bottles detect most yeasts; lysis-centrifugation improves recovery of dimorphic fungi and moulds; overlay with oil if Malassezia is suspected |
| Tissue | Send fresh and sterile, and not all of it in formalin; for mucormycosis the tissue must be minced rather than ground, since grinding destroys the aseptate hyphae and the culture is then falsely negative |
| Cornea | Scrapings from the base and edge of the ulcer, inoculated directly onto media at the slit lamp |
CLINICAL PEARL
Grinding the tissue is why mucormycosis cultures come back negative. The hyphae are broad and aseptate — a single continuous cytoplasm with no cross-walls — so any disruption kills the whole filament. Routine homogenisation, which is correct for most specimens, destroys exactly this organism. The instruction to MINCE rather than grind is small, easily overlooked, and decides whether the diagnosis is made.
Direct Microscopy
| Method | Use |
|---|---|
| KOH mount (10–20%; 40% for nails) | Digests keratin, cells and debris, leaving the fungal wall intact and visible. Cheap, takes minutes, and is the single most valuable test in mycology |
| Calcofluor white with KOH | Binds chitin and fluoresces bright blue-white under ultraviolet light; far more sensitive than KOH alone |
| INDIA ink / nigrosin | Negative staining for the capsule of Cryptococcus in cerebrospinal fluid |
| Gram stain | Yeasts stain gram-positive; useful for Candida |
| Lactophenol cotton blue | For examining a culture, not a clinical specimen — lactic acid preserves, phenol kills, and cotton blue stains the chitin, allowing the conidia and hyphae to be identified |
| Giemsa | Intracellular Histoplasma and Talaromyces in marrow or blood films |
| Histopathology — PAS and methenamine silver | Demonstrate fungi in tissue and, crucially, whether there is invasion |
Culture and Identification
- Sabouraud dextrose agar is the standard medium — a high sugar concentration at acid pH 5.6, which suits fungi and suppresses bacteria
- Additives — chloramphenicol to suppress bacteria, and cyclohexide to suppress saprophytic moulds. But cycloheximide also inhibits Cryptococcus, Aspergillus, the mucorales and Candida krusei, so a plate without it must always be inoculated in parallel
- Incubate at both 25°C and 37°C to demonstrate dimorphism, for up to 4 weeks; discarding at 48 hours is a common cause of a falsely negative result
- Identification — colony rate of growth, texture, surface and reverse pigment; microscopic morphology of conidia in a lactophenol cotton blue mount; the germ tube test and chlamydospore formation for Candida; urease and CHROMagar; and MALDI-TOF or DNA sequencing for definitive identification
Non-culture Methods and Applied Aspects
- Antigen detection — cryptococcal antigen (CrAg), highly sensitive and specific, available as a lateral flow test usable at the bedside; galactomannan for Aspergillus; Histoplasma antigen in urine and serum
- Beta-D-glucan — a broad "pan-fungal" marker, positive in Candida, Aspergillus and Pneumocystis, but negative in mucormycosis and cryptococcosis, which is a useful discriminator; false positives occur with haemodialysis, some antibiotics, albumin and surgical gauze
- Serology — immunodiffusion and complement fixation for the dimorphic fungi and ABPA; but it is unreliable in the immunosuppressed, who may not produce antibody
- Molecular methods — panfungal and species-specific PCR, and sequencing for identification and resistance
- Antifungal susceptibility testing by broth microdilution or gradient strip, which is increasingly necessary as resistance rises but is available in few Indian laboratories
- Tell the laboratory what is suspected; the medium, the additives, the incubation temperature and the duration all differ between fungi, and a request marked only "fungal culture" will not detect a dimorphic fungus or Malassezia
- Do not put the whole biopsy in formalin — send part fresh for microscopy and culture, or the organism and its susceptibilities are lost
- A positive KOH mount with a negative culture still means fungal infection; culture is insensitive, and treatment should follow the microscopy
- Distinguish colonisation from infection — fungi grown from sputum, wound swabs or catheter urine are frequently passengers, and only isolation from a sterile site or demonstration of tissue invasion proves disease
- Diagnostic mycology is underdeveloped in much of India, and the commonest reason a fungal infection is missed is that nobody looked for it
The Parasite and its Forms
| Form | Features | Significance |
|---|---|---|
| Trophozoite | 10–60 micrometres; a single nucleus with a small central karyosome and fine peripheral chromatin; clear ectoplasm with finger-like pseudopodia giving directional motility; and characteristically ingested red cells in the cytoplasm | The invasive and pathogenic form. Erythrophagocytosis — red cells within the trophozoite — is the one morphological feature that indicates invasive E. Histolytica rather than a commensal amoeba. It dies rapidly outside the body and is not infective |
| Precyst | Rounded, no inclusions | Transitional |
| Cyst | 10–15 micrometres, spherical, with a refractile wall; the mature cyst has four nuclei (quadrinucleate) and may show chromatoid bars with rounded ends and a glycogen mass | The infective form — resistant to gastric acid and chlorination, and surviving in water and on food for weeks. Passed by asymptomatic cyst passers, who are the main source of transmission |
- Man is the only significant host; transmission is faecal-oral through contaminated water, food and hands, and by flies and food handlers. Sexual transmission occurs
- Two morphologically identical but non-pathogenic species exist — Entamoeba dispar (much commoner than E. Histolytica) and E. Moshkovskii. They cannot be distinguished by microscopy, which is why a cyst seen in stool does not by itself justify treatment
Life Cycle and Pathogenesis
Mature quadrinucleate cysts are ingested in contaminated food or water → They resist gastric acid and excyst in the terminal ileum → Each cyst releases eight trophozoites (four nuclei divide once) → Trophozoites colonise the large intestine, chiefly the caecum, ascending colon and rectosigmoid → In most people they remain luminal commensals and encyst — the asymptomatic cyst passer, who excretes millions of cysts daily → In a minority they invade, using the GAL/GalNAc lectin to adhere, amoebapores to lyse cells and cysteine proteases to digest the matrix → Lysis of the mucosa produces the characteristic flask-shaped ulcer — a narrow neck through the mucosa opening into a broad base in the submucosa, where spread occurs laterally → Trophozoites entering portal venules travel to the liver — amoebic liver abscess
CLINICAL PEARL
The flask shape explains why amoebic ulcers bleed and perforate out of proportion to how they look. The trophozoite penetrates the mucosa through a narrow opening and then spreads laterally in the submucosa, so the visible mucosal defect is small while the underlying destruction is wide. Adjacent flasks coalesce, undermining the mucosa, which is why extensive necrosis, haemorrhage and perforation can follow lesions that appear trivial on endoscopy.
Clinical Features
- Asymptomatic infection is much the commonest outcome — about 90% of those infected, most of whom in fact carry E. Dispar
- Amoebic dysentery (intestinal amoebiasis) — gradual onset over days to weeks of abdominal cramps and loose stools containing blood and mucus, with tenesmus. Fever and systemic upset are mild or absent, unlike bacillary dysentery
- Amoeboma — a granulomatous mass in the caecum or ascending colon that mimics carcinoma radiologically and at operation; it responds to medical treatment, so recognising it prevents an unnecessary resection
- Complications — fulminant necrotising colitis with perforation, toxic megacolon, massive haemorrhage, stricture, and a chronic post-amoebic colitis
- Amoebic liver abscess — the commonest extra-intestinal form. Characteristically a single abscess in the right lobe (which receives most of the portal drainage from the right colon), presenting with fever, tender hepatomegaly, right upper quadrant pain and often referred right shoulder-tip pain. It affects adult men disproportionately, and alcohol is a recognised risk factor
- Only a minority give a history of dysentery, and stool examination is usually negative by the time the abscess presents — a point that repeatedly delays the diagnosis
- The pus is "anchovy sauce" — thick, reddish-brown, odourless and sterile on bacterial culture. It consists of necrotic liver, not pus cells. Trophozoites are found at the advancing edge of the abscess, not in the aspirated centre, so aspirate examination is usually negative
- Other sites — rupture into pleura, peritoneum or pericardium (the last being the most dangerous); lung; brain; and cutaneous amoebiasis around the perineum
Laboratory Diagnosis
- Stool microscopy — a fresh, warm specimen examined within 30 minutes in saline and iodine mounts. Motile trophozoites containing red cells indicate invasive disease; cysts indicate infection but not necessarily E. Histolytica
- Three specimens on different days improve the yield, since excretion is intermittent; concentration methods for cysts
- Antigen detection by ELISA for the GAL/GalNAc lectin, which distinguishes E. Histolytica from E. Dispar, and PCR, which is the reference method — this distinction is the central diagnostic problem
- Serology (indirect haemagglutination, ELISA) is positive in over 90% of liver abscess and in most invasive intestinal disease, but is negative in asymptomatic carriers. Its limitation in India is that antibody persists for years after past infection, so it cannot distinguish current from previous disease in an endemic population
- Imaging — ultrasound is the mainstay for liver abscess, showing a round hypoechoic lesion, usually single and in the right lobe
- Sigmoidoscopy with scraping from the ulcer edge (not from the stool), showing the flask-shaped ulcers
- Blood — neutrophil leucocytosis with a raised alkaline phosphatase and a normal or slightly raised bilirubin in liver abscess; eosinophilia is absent, which distinguishes it from helminth infection
Differentiating the Intestinal Amoebae
| Feature | E. Histolytica | E. Coli (non-pathogenic) |
|---|---|---|
| Trophozoite size | 10–60 micrometres | 15–50 micrometres |
| Motility | Active and directional, with finger-like pseudopodia | Sluggish and non-directional, with blunt pseudopodia |
| Ingested red cells | Present in the invasive form — the single most useful marker | Absent; contains bacteria and debris instead |
| Karyosome | Small and central | Large and eccentric |
| Peripheral chromatin | Fine and evenly distributed | Coarse, clumped and irregular |
| Nuclei in the mature cyst | Four | Eight |
| Chromatoid bars | Cigar-shaped with rounded ends | Splintered with irregular ends |
| Significance | Pathogenic — but morphologically identical to E. Dispar, so antigen or PCR is needed to be certain | Harmless commensal; requires NO treatment |
Treatment and Applied Aspects
- Invasive disease requires two drugs — a tissue amoebicide (metronidazole or tinidazole) to kill trophozoites in the bowel wall and liver, followed by a luminal amoebicide (diloxanide furoate or paromomycin) to clear cysts from the gut lumen. Metronidazole alone does not eradicate luminal cysts, and omitting the second drug is the commonest cause of relapse and of continued transmission
- Asymptomatic cyst passers are treated with a luminal amoebicide alone, chiefly to prevent transmission — and, in India, particularly in food handlers
- Liver abscess responds to metronidazole alone in most cases; aspiration is reserved for a large left-lobe abscess (which may rupture into the pericardium), failure to respond within 3 to 5 days, imminent rupture, or diagnostic uncertainty with pyogenic abscess
- Distinguish amoebic from pyogenic liver abscess — amoebic is usually single, right-lobed, in a younger man, with negative blood cultures, sterile pus and positive serology; pyogenic is often multiple, associated with biliary disease or diabetes, with positive blood cultures and frank pus. The treatments differ entirely
- Distinguish amoebic from bacillary dysentery — amoebic is insidious with little fever, few pus cells and motile trophozoites containing red cells; bacillary is acute and febrile with abundant pus cells. Both are common in India and the treatments differ
- Prevention — safe water and sanitation, handwashing, washing and peeling raw vegetables and fruit, and screening food handlers. Cysts resist ordinary chlorination, so filtration or boiling is needed where water quality is uncertain
- Eosinophilia is absent in amoebiasis, as in all protozoal infection; its presence in a patient with a liver lesion should raise hydatid disease or a tissue helminth instead
- Do not aspirate a liver abscess routinely; most respond to metronidazole alone, and aspiration carries a risk of rupture and of introducing bacterial infection
- A left-lobe abscess is the dangerous one, because rupture into the pericardium causes tamponade; it is an indication for aspiration even when the patient is stable
- Amoeboma responds to drugs, so a caecal mass in a patient from an endemic area with positive amoebic serology deserves a trial of metronidazole before resection is considered
- The stool is usually negative when a liver abscess presents, and this must not be taken as evidence against the diagnosis; serology and ultrasound are what establish it
- Treat food handlers who are cyst passers, since a single asymptomatic carrier in a kitchen can infect very large numbers of people
- Metronidazole alone leaves the gut lumen colonised, so the patient remains infectious to others even after the symptoms resolve; the luminal drug is a public health measure as much as an individual one
- Amoebic and bacillary dysentery both occur in India and may coexist; the presence of abundant pus cells favours a bacterial cause but does not exclude amoebiasis
- Sigmoidoscopic scrapings should be taken from the ulcer edge, not from the luminal exudate, where trophozoites are scanty
- Serology stays positive for years in an endemic population, so a positive result supports the diagnosis in a symptomatic patient but proves nothing in an asymptomatic one
- Consider amoebic liver abscess in any Indian adult with fever and right upper quadrant pain; ultrasound is quick, cheap and usually diagnostic
- Referred right shoulder-tip pain reflects diaphragmatic irritation and is a useful pointer that is easily overlooked when the history focuses on the abdomen
The Parasites and the Vector
| Species | Red cells infected | Periodicity | Distinctive features |
|---|---|---|---|
| P. Falciparum | All ages of red cell — hence very high parasitaemia | Malignant tertian (36–48 h), often irregular | The killer. Ring forms with double chromatin dots and applique forms; banana-shaped gametocytes; schizonts are rare in peripheral blood because of sequestration. NO hypnozoites, so no true relapse |
| P. Vivax | Only reticulocytes (young red cells), so parasitaemia stays low | Benign tertian (48 h) | Infected cells are enlarged with schuffner dots; all stages seen in the blood film; hypnozoites cause relapse. Requires the DUFFY antigen to invade, so Duffy-negative West Africans are naturally resistant. The commonest species in much of INDIA |
| P. Ovale | Reticulocytes | Benign tertian (48 h) | Oval cells with fimbriated edges; hypnozoites and relapse; mainly West Africa |
| P. Malariae | Older red cells; low parasitaemia | Quartan (72 h) | Band-form trophozoites and "daisy-head" rosette schizonts; no hypnozoites but very prolonged recrudescence, sometimes for decades; causes immune-complex nephrotic syndrome in children |
| P. Knowlesi | All ages | Quotidian (24 h) — the shortest | A zoonosis from macaques in south-east Asia; resembles P. Malariae on the film but can cause severe disease because of its rapid cycle |
- The vector is the female anopheles mosquito, which bites from dusk to dawn; the male does not take blood meals. In India the principal vectors are An. Culicifacies (rural), An. Stephensi (urban, breeding in overhead tanks and construction sites), An. Fluviatilis and An. Dirus
- The mosquito is the definitive host, because the sexual cycle occurs in it; man is the intermediate host. This is the reverse of what intuition suggests
Life Cycle
- An infected female Anopheles injects sporozoites in saliva while feeding → Sporozoites reach the liver within 30 minutes and invade hepatocytes — pre-erythrocytic (exo-erythrocytic) schizogony → Each liver schizont ruptures to release thousands of merozoites. In P.
- Vivax and P.
- Ovale some sporozoites instead become dormant hypnozoites → Merozoites invade red cells — erythrocytic schizogony: ring → trophozoite → schizont → The schizont ruptures, releasing merozoites that invade fresh red cells.
- synchronous rupture is what produces the paroxysm of fever, and its interval determines the periodicity → Some merozoites develop into male and female gametocytes — the only form infective to the mosquito, and the form responsible for transmission → In the mosquito gut: gametogony and fertilisation → ookinete → OOCYST on the gut wall → sporogony → Sporozoites migrate to the salivary glands, and the mosquito is infective for life
CLINICAL PEARL
Hypnozoites are why vivax malaria comes back months after apparently successful treatment. Chloroquine, artemisinins and every ordinary antimalarial act on the blood stages, and clear the illness completely. But dormant liver forms remain untouched, reactivating weeks to months later — a true relapse, not treatment failure or reinfection. Only primaquine or tafenoquine kills them, which is why "radical cure" is a separate step and why omitting it is the commonest reason vivax malaria recurs.
Pathogenesis
- Fever — caused by the synchronous rupture of schizonts releasing merozoites, malarial pigment (haemozoin) and glycosylphosphatidylinositol, which trigger TNF-alpha and other cytokines. The classical paroxysm has a cold stage (rigor), a hot stage and a sweating stage
- Anaemia — multifactorial and often out of proportion to the parasitaemia: lysis of infected cells, destruction of uninfected cells (the major component), splenic clearance, dyserythropoiesis and marrow suppression, and in P. Falciparum also blackwater fever (massive intravascular haemolysis with haemoglobinuria)
- Splenomegaly from reticuloendothelial hyperplasia; and hyperreactive malarial splenomegaly in chronic exposure
- Sequestration — the key to severe falciparum malaria: infected red cells express PfEMP1 on surface knobs, which binds endothelial receptors (ICAM-1, CD36, chondroitin sulphate A) — cytoadherence. They also bind uninfected cells (rosetting) and each other (autoagglutination)
- The consequences of sequestration — microvascular obstruction with tissue hypoxia and acidosis; it explains cerebral malaria, and it explains why schizonts are absent from the peripheral film in falciparum malaria and why the peripheral parasite count underestimates the true burden
- Placental malaria — sequestration in the placenta through chondroitin sulphate A binding causes maternal anaemia, low birth weight and fetal loss; primigravidae are particularly affected because they lack specific antibody
Genetic Protection and Immunity
| Polymorphism | Mechanism of protection |
|---|---|
| Sickle cell trait (HbAS) | The classical example of balanced polymorphism — infected cells sickle and are cleared, and parasite growth is impaired at low oxygen tension. Gives substantial protection against severe falciparum malaria, which is why the gene persists at high frequency despite the lethal homozygous state |
| Thalassaemia and HbE | Protection against severe disease; both are common in India |
| G6PD deficiency | Infected cells are more susceptible to oxidant stress and are cleared |
| DUFFY negativity | The Duffy antigen is the receptor P. Vivax requires to invade the red cell; Duffy-negative individuals are essentially resistant to vivax malaria, which is why it is almost absent from West Africa |
| Ovalocytosis, HbC, HbF | Reduced invasion or growth |
- Immunity is slow, incomplete and species- and strain-specific, requiring repeated infection over years. It reduces severity rather than preventing infection, and it wanes when exposure ceases
- Premunition — immunity that persists only while a low-grade infection continues
- The practical consequences — in a high-transmission area severe disease is confined to young children and pregnant women; in a low-transmission area all ages are susceptible; and someone who leaves an endemic area and returns after some years has lost their protection
Distinguishing the Species on a Blood Film
| Feature | P. Falciparum | P. Vivax | P. Malariae |
|---|---|---|---|
| Infected red cell | Normal size; may show MAURER clefts | Enlarged and pale, with schuffner dots | Normal or slightly small; Ziemann dots |
| Ring form | Delicate, often with double chromatin dots; multiple rings per cell; applique (accole) forms at the cell margin | Large, thick ring occupying a third of the cell | Compact, dense ring |
| Trophozoite | Rarely seen in peripheral blood | Large, irregular and amoeboid | Characteristic band form across the cell |
| Schizont | Absent from the peripheral film because of sequestration — its presence indicates severe disease | 12 to 24 merozoites, irregularly arranged | 6 to 12 merozoites in a "daisy head" rosette around central pigment |
| Gametocyte | Banana or crescent shaped — diagnostic | Round or oval, filling the enlarged cell | Round, smaller |
| Parasitaemia | High — may exceed 10% | Low, usually under 2% | Very low |
| Stages present | Usually only rings and gametocytes | All stages present together | All stages |
Applied Aspects
- Ask the species before deciding the treatment; vivax needs radical cure with primaquine and falciparum needs an artemisinin combination, and mixed infection is common in India
- Sequestration means the peripheral count understates severity in falciparum malaria; a modest parasitaemia with clinical severity should not be reassuring
- Suspect malaria in any fever in an endemic area, and in a returning traveller for at least a year afterwards; the classical periodicity is often absent early in the illness
- Malaria in pregnancy requires particular vigilance, since placental sequestration may cause severe maternal anaemia and fetal loss with a low or even negative peripheral film
- India has both P. Vivax and P. Falciparum in large numbers, with falciparum predominating in the north-east and in tribal districts; the National Framework aims at elimination
- Screen for G6PD deficiency before primaquine, since the drug causes severe haemolysis in deficient individuals — and G6PD deficiency is itself common in malarious populations for the same evolutionary reason
- The mosquito is the definitive host, which is worth stating explicitly because it is counterintuitive and is a favourite examination point
- Banana-shaped gametocytes identify P. Falciparum even when ring forms are scanty, and they may persist for weeks after cure without indicating treatment failure
- Thrombocytopenia is present in most patients with malaria and is a useful early pointer in an undifferentiated fever, though it is not specific
- Anaemia is often disproportionate to the parasitaemia, because most of the destruction falls on uninfected red cells; so a low count on the film does not explain away a severe anaemia
- Malaria can be transmitted by transfusion and by shared needles, since the blood stages are directly infective; donor screening matters in endemic areas
- Transfusion-transmitted malaria has NO liver stage, so no hypnozoites form and primaquine radical cure is unnecessary even for P. Vivax
- Congenital malaria occurs and should be considered in a neonate with fever, anaemia and jaundice born to a mother from an endemic area
- Sickle trait persists because it protects against malaria, and this balanced polymorphism is the clearest example in human genetics of a lethal gene maintained by selection
- Immunity wanes when exposure stops, so a person who has lived abroad for some years and returns to visit family is at real risk despite having grown up in an endemic area — a group that frequently omits prophylaxis
- Splenomegaly rates in children were historically used to measure endemicity, and the spleen rate remains a simple field index of transmission
- Placental sequestration may give a negative peripheral film in a pregnant woman with significant malaria, so a normal film does not exclude it where suspicion is high
Clinical Features
- Incubation — about 12 days for P. Falciparum, 14 for P. Vivax and P. Ovale, and up to 30 days for P. Malariae; partial prophylaxis prolongs it
- The classical paroxysm has three stages — a cold stage with rigors lasting 15 to 60 minutes; a hot stage with high fever, flushing and headache for 2 to 6 hours; and a sweating stage with defervescence and exhaustion
- Periodicity is often absent in the first days, before the broods synchronise, and is frequently absent altogether in falciparum malaria — so its absence must never be used to exclude the diagnosis
- Other features — headache, myalgia, nausea, cough, and mild jaundice; splenomegaly and hepatomegaly develop over days; anaemia and thrombocytopenia, the latter being present in the great majority and a useful pointer
| Feature of severe falciparum malaria | Comment |
|---|---|
| Cerebral malaria | Unrousable coma not attributable to another cause, with or without seizures; retinal haemorrhages and malarial retinopathy are highly suggestive and are looked for with an ophthalmoscope |
| Severe anaemia | Haemoglobin below 5 g/dL in children or 7 g/dL in adults |
| Acute kidney injury | Oliguria with a rising creatinine; may require dialysis |
| Respiratory distress and ARDS | Acidotic breathing from metabolic acidosis; pulmonary oedema, which may appear after treatment has begun |
| Hypoglycaemia | From parasite consumption, impaired gluconeogenesis, and quinine-induced hyperinsulinaemia; commonest in children and in pregnancy, and easily mistaken for deepening coma — so glucose must be checked repeatedly |
| Metabolic acidosis | Lactic acidosis from microvascular obstruction; one of the strongest predictors of death |
| Shock ("algid malaria"), bleeding, jaundice | Circulatory collapse; disseminated intravascular coagulation; blackwater fever with haemoglobinuria |
| Hyperparasitaemia | Above 5% in a non-immune patient — but the count underestimates the true burden because of sequestration |
CLINICAL PEARL
Check the blood glucose repeatedly in severe malaria, and especially in a patient who is deteriorating on treatment. Hypoglycaemia is common, is a major cause of death, and produces exactly the picture — coma and seizures — that is otherwise attributed to cerebral malaria. Quinine makes it worse by stimulating insulin release. It is entirely reversible and entirely missable, and a glucometer settles it in seconds.
Laboratory Diagnosis
| Method | Value and limitations |
|---|---|
| Thick film | Red cells are lysed, concentrating the parasites about 20-fold. Used for detection and for screening; about 10 to 20 times more sensitive than the thin film, detecting 10 to 50 parasites per microlitre. Species identification is difficult |
| Thin film | Cells remain intact, so morphology is preserved — used for species identification, staging and parasite counting (percentage of infected red cells) |
| Stain | Romanowsky stains — Giemsa (the standard, at pH 7.2), Leishman, Field or JSB. Correct pH is essential or schuffner dots will not appear |
| Timing | Take the film at any time; it is not necessary to wait for a fever spike. A negative film should be repeated 6 to 12 hourly for 48 hours before malaria is excluded |
| Rapid diagnostic tests (RDT) | Immunochromatographic detection of HRP2 (falciparum only) or pLDH and aldolase (pan-species). Need no microscope or electricity, so they are invaluable in the field. HRP2 persists for 2 to 4 weeks after cure, so it cannot be used to assess response; and some parasites have deleted the hrp2 gene, causing false negatives |
| QBC (quantitative buffy coat) | Acridine orange fluorescence of the concentrated buffy coat; sensitive but requires a fluorescence microscope and does not speciate well |
| PCR | The most sensitive; detects mixed and low-level infection and identifies species; used for research, reference and elimination surveillance |
| Serology | NO role in acute diagnosis, since antibody indicates past exposure; used for epidemiology and blood donor screening |
Treatment
- Treatment depends on the species, the severity and the local resistance pattern, and the species must therefore be established
- Uncomplicated P. Falciparum — an artemisinin-based combination therapy (act) for 3 days. India uses artesunate with sulfadoxine-pyrimethamine in most states and artemether-lumefantrine in the north-east because of resistance. A single low dose of primaquine is added as a gametocytocidal measure to block transmission — not to cure the patient
- Uncomplicated P. Vivax — chloroquine for 3 days to clear the blood stages, plus primaquine for 14 days to kill hypnozoites and achieve radical cure. Test for G6PD deficiency first, since primaquine causes severe haemolysis in deficient patients
- Severe malaria of any species — intravenous artesunate is the drug of choice, having been shown to reduce mortality substantially compared with quinine; give it immediately, and switch to a full oral act course once the patient can swallow. Quinine is the alternative where artesunate is unavailable
- Supportive care determines survival as much as the antimalarial — correct hypoglycaemia and check it repeatedly, manage fluids carefully to avoid both dehydration and pulmonary oedema, control seizures, transfuse for severe anaemia, and consider dialysis for renal failure
- Malaria in pregnancy — ACTs are used in the second and third trimesters; quinine with clindamycin in the first; artesunate for severe disease at any stage, since the risk of untreated severe malaria far exceeds any drug risk. Primaquine is contraindicated in pregnancy and in infants under 6 months
- A delayed haemolytic anaemia may follow artesunate by 1 to 3 weeks, as pitted red cells are cleared; patients should be reviewed and the haemoglobin checked
Differential Diagnosis of Acute Undifferentiated Fever
- Malaria must be excluded first in any fever in an endemic area, because it is common, rapidly fatal and treatable; but several other illnesses present identically in the Indian monsoon and each has a specific treatment
| Illness | Pointers | Test |
|---|---|---|
| Malaria | Rigors, splenomegaly, thrombocytopenia, anaemia, jaundice | Thick and thin films; rapid diagnostic test |
| Dengue | Retro-orbital pain, rash, leucopenia with thrombocytopenia, plasma leak at defervescence | NS1 antigen; IgM |
| Enteric fever | Step-ladder fever, relative bradycardia, abdominal symptoms, leucopenia | Blood culture in week 1 |
| Scrub typhus | An eschar, lymphadenopathy, rash; rural or scrub exposure | IgM ELISA; a rapid response to doxycycline is itself informative |
| Leptospirosis | Conjunctival suffusion, calf tenderness, jaundice with renal failure | IgM ELISA; mat |
| Sepsis | A focus of infection; neutrophilia | Blood culture |
- Co-infection occurs, and a positive malaria test does not exclude another treatable illness in a patient who fails to improve as expected
Applied Aspects
- Do not wait for a fever spike to take the film — this is a common and harmful misconception that delays diagnosis by hours
- Repeat a negative film 6 to 12 hourly for 48 hours where suspicion is high; a single negative result does not exclude malaria
- Do not use an HRP2 rapid test to judge response; it remains positive for weeks after successful treatment, and a persistently positive result is not treatment failure
- Give intravenous artesunate immediately in severe malaria rather than arranging transfer first; the first dose is what matters
- Check G6PD status before primaquine, and warn the patient about dark urine; where testing is unavailable, weekly high-dose primaquine for 8 weeks is an alternative regimen
- Complete the radical cure in vivax malaria; patients feel entirely well after 3 days of chloroquine and frequently abandon the 14-day primaquine course, which is why relapse is so common in India
- Look at the fundus in suspected cerebral malaria; malarial retinopathy with retinal whitening and vessel changes is highly specific and distinguishes it from coma of another cause in a patient who happens to be parasitaemic
- Avoid fluid overload; pulmonary oedema in severe malaria may be precipitated by over-enthusiastic resuscitation and carries a very high mortality
- Review the patient a fortnight after artesunate, since delayed haemolysis may cause a significant fall in haemoglobin after apparent recovery
- Treat severe malaria as an emergency wherever the patient presents; the first dose of artesunate should not wait for transfer, admission or a formal parasite count
- Rectal artesunate can be given before referral where intravenous access or transport is delayed, and has been shown to reduce mortality in children in peripheral settings
- Exchange transfusion is no longer recommended in hyperparasitaemia; intravenous artesunate clears parasites rapidly enough that the added risk is not justified
The Parasite and its Transmission
- Leishmania is an obligate intracellular protozoan of the mononuclear phagocyte system, transmitted by the bite of the female sandfly (Phlebotomus argentipes in India)
- Two forms — the amastigote (Leishman-Donovan or LD body), a small round aflagellate form found inside macrophages in man, with a nucleus and a rod-shaped kinetoplast; and the promastigote, an elongated flagellated form in the sandfly gut and in culture
- The kinetoplast is the diagnostic feature — it distinguishes an amastigote from Histoplasma and from other small intracellular organisms
- The sandfly is small, silent and a weak flier, breeding in cracks in mud walls, cattle sheds and organic debris, and biting at night. It passes through ordinary mosquito nets, so fine-mesh or insecticide-treated nets are required
- Culture in NNN (Novy-MacNeal-Nicolle) medium yields promastigotes
| Form of disease | Species and region | Features |
|---|---|---|
| Visceral leishmaniasis (kala-azar) | L. Donovani — India, Bangladesh, Nepal, East Africa. In INDIA man is the only reservoir (anthroponotic), which is what makes elimination feasible | Insidious prolonged fever (classically with two peaks a day), massive splenomegaly with hepatomegaly, pancytopenia, weight loss and darkening of the skin ("kala-azar" means black fever). Fatal in over 95% if untreated |
| Post-kala-azar dermal leishmaniasis (PKDL) | Follows treated visceral disease, months to years later, in a proportion of Indian patients | Hypopigmented macules, papules and nodules, often on the face, which may be mistaken for leprosy. Patients are well. They are a crucial reservoir maintaining transmission between epidemics, so treating them is essential to elimination |
| Cutaneous leishmaniasis (oriental sore) | L. Tropica, L. Major — Rajasthan, and the Middle East | A papule at the bite site enlarging into a chronic painless ulcer with a raised indurated edge, healing over months with a depressed scar |
| Mucocutaneous (espundia) | L. Braziliensis — South America | Destructive ulceration of the nose, palate and pharynx months or years after a cutaneous lesion |
| Diffuse cutaneous | L. Aethiopica, L. Mexicana | Widespread nodules resembling lepromatous leprosy, with anergy |
CLINICAL PEARL
Post-kala-azar dermal leishmaniasis is why kala-azar keeps coming back. These patients are systemically well and have a skin condition that looks like leprosy or vitiligo, so they do not seek treatment — but their skin lesions are full of parasites and infect sandflies. They therefore maintain transmission through the inter-epidemic period. Any elimination programme that treats only the acutely ill will fail, which is why active PKDL case-finding is central to the Indian strategy.
Pathogenesis and Immunology
The sandfly injects promastigotes into the skin → They are phagocytosed by macrophages, which would normally kill them → Inside the phagolysosome they transform into amastigotes and resist killing — they tolerate the acid pH and inhibit the respiratory burst → They multiply until the macrophage ruptures, releasing amastigotes that infect further macrophages → In visceral disease they disseminate to the spleen, liver, bone marrow and lymph nodes → Massive reticuloendothelial hyperplasia gives splenomegaly, and marrow infiltration with hypersplenism gives pancytopenia → Polyclonal B-cell activation produces a marked hypergammaglobulinaemia with a reversed albumin:globulin ratio
- The outcome depends on the T-cell response, exactly as in leprosy — a Th1 response with interferon-gamma activates macrophages and controls the infection, whereas a Th2 pattern permits unchecked multiplication and visceral disease
- The leishmanin (Montenegro) skin test reflects this: it is negative in active visceral disease (anergy) and becomes positive after cure, so it is an epidemiological and prognostic tool rather than a diagnostic one
- HIV co-infection markedly increases the risk of visceral disease, of relapse and of treatment failure, and reduces the sensitivity of serology
Laboratory Diagnosis
- Demonstration of amastigotes (LD bodies) in a Giemsa-stained smear is definitive. splenic aspirate has the highest sensitivity (over 95%) but carries a risk of haemorrhage; bone marrow aspirate is safer and is usually preferred, and lymph node aspirate is an alternative
- Culture in NNN medium showing promastigotes; and PCR, which is the most sensitive and allows species identification
- RK39 rapid immunochromatographic test — a strip test on finger-prick blood with high sensitivity and specificity for Indian L. Donovani. It requires no laboratory and has transformed field diagnosis, being the mainstay of the Indian elimination programme. Its limitation is that antibody persists for years after cure, so it cannot diagnose relapse
- Direct agglutination test and ELISA; the aldehyde (formol-gel) test is an old, cheap and non-specific test that detects the hypergammaglobulinaemia by causing serum to jellify
- Supporting findings — pancytopenia, a very high ESR, hypergammaglobulinaemia with a reversed albumin:globulin ratio
- PKDL is diagnosed by slit-skin smear or biopsy demonstrating amastigotes, together with the history of treated kala-azar
Differential Diagnosis of Fever with Splenomegaly and Pancytopenia
| Condition | Distinguishing features |
|---|---|
| Kala-azar | Massive splenomegaly, prolonged fever with the patient remaining surprisingly well early on, skin darkening, marked hypergammaglobulinaemia with reversed albumin:globulin ratio, very high ESR; endemic area. RK39 positive |
| Malaria (chronic or hyperreactive splenomegaly) | Paroxysmal fever, anaemia; blood film or rapid test positive; responds to antimalarials |
| Disseminated tuberculosis | Weight loss, night sweats, choroid tubercles, miliary shadowing; marrow granulomas and CBNAAT |
| Enteric fever | Moderate splenomegaly, relative bradycardia, positive blood culture |
| Leukaemia and lymphoma | Blasts or lymphoma cells in blood or marrow; lymphadenopathy |
| Disseminated histoplasmosis | In HIV; intracellular yeasts in marrow without a kinetoplast — the kinetoplast is what distinguishes Leishmania |
| Haemophagocytic lymphohistiocytosis | Very high ferritin and triglycerides; haemophagocytosis in the marrow; may be triggered by kala-azar itself |
- A bone marrow aspirate answers several of these at once — amastigotes, granulomas, malignant cells and haemophagocytosis are all sought on the same specimen, which is why it is the pivotal investigation
Treatment, Control and Applied Aspects
- Liposomal amphotericin B is the treatment of choice for Indian visceral leishmaniasis, given as a single infusion in the national programme — effective, well tolerated and, crucially, requiring only one hospital visit
- Miltefosine is the first oral antileishmanial, but is teratogenic, requiring contraception for months, and resistance has emerged with its unsupervised use; paromomycin is also used
- Pentavalent antimonials (sodium stibogluconate) were the mainstay for decades but have been abandoned in Bihar because of widespread resistance — a clear instance of resistance rendering a drug class useless in a whole region
- Vector control — indoor residual spraying with insecticide, plastering of cracked mud walls, insecticide-treated nets with a fine mesh, and separating cattle sheds from dwellings
- India's kala-azar elimination programme targets Bihar, Jharkhand, West Bengal and Uttar Pradesh, aiming for fewer than 1 case per 10,000 population per block. It rests on active case detection with the rK39 test, single-dose liposomal amphotericin B, indoor residual spraying, and active search for PKDL. India has come close to elimination
- Elimination is feasible in India specifically because man is the only reservoir; in East Africa the disease is zoonotic and cannot be eliminated by treating people alone
- Distinguish PKDL from leprosy — both give hypopigmented patches, but PKDL lesions have normal sensation and there is a history of kala-azar; testing sensation settles it at the bedside
- The rK39 test cannot diagnose relapse, since antibody persists for years; recurrence must be confirmed parasitologically by marrow or splenic aspirate
- The sandfly passes through an ordinary mosquito net, so a fine-mesh or insecticide-treated net is required — a specific piece of advice that is often given wrongly
- Screen for HIV in visceral leishmaniasis; co-infection is increasing in Bihar, causes frequent relapse, and requires a different and longer regimen
- Kala-azar is a disease of poverty, concentrated in mud-walled housing with cattle nearby; plastering walls and separating cattle sheds reduce transmission without any drug
- Look for PKDL actively among treated patients; they feel well and will not present, yet they sustain transmission and their treatment is the key to elimination
- Miltefosine is teratogenic, so effective contraception must be assured in women of childbearing age for the duration of treatment and for months afterwards
- Antimonial resistance in Bihar shows how a drug class can be lost regionally through decades of unsupervised and incomplete treatment — a warning that applies equally to the drugs now replacing it
- The amastigote is distinguished from Histoplasma by its kinetoplast, which is the single feature to look for when both are possible in an HIV-positive patient with pancytopenia
- Splenic aspirate is the most sensitive test but carries real risk; marrow aspiration is preferred in routine practice and the rK39 test has made both unnecessary in most Indian cases
- Single-dose liposomal amphotericin B transformed the programme, because a treatment requiring one visit can be delivered in a district hospital to patients who cannot afford repeated travel
- The leishmanin test is negative in active disease and becomes positive after cure, so it is useless for diagnosis and useful for surveys and for assessing response
- Man is the only reservoir in India, which is precisely why elimination is achievable here and is not in East Africa — a point that explains the whole strategy
- Cutaneous leishmaniasis occurs in Rajasthan, and a chronic painless ulcer with a raised edge in a patient from there should prompt a slit-skin smear rather than repeated antibiotics
Toxoplasma Gondii — Parasite and Life Cycle
- An obligate intracellular coccidian protozoan with three forms — the tachyzoite (rapidly dividing, in acute infection), the bradyzoite within a tissue cyst (dormant, in chronic infection, in muscle and brain), and the OOCYST (shed in cat faeces)
- The cat is the definitive host — the only animal in which the sexual cycle occurs and the only source of oocysts. Man and other mammals are intermediate hosts
- Oocysts require 1 to 5 days in the environment to sporulate and become infective — which is why daily emptying of a litter tray prevents infection, and why fresh cat faeces are harmless
| Route of human infection | Detail |
|---|---|
| Ingesting tissue cysts | In undercooked or raw meat, especially pork and mutton — in practice the commonest route in most populations |
| Ingesting oocysts | From soil, unwashed vegetables, or contaminated water, following contamination by cat faeces; also from gardening without gloves |
| Transplacental | Tachyzoites crossing to the fetus, but only when the mother acquires primary infection during that pregnancy |
| Transplantation and transfusion | A seropositive donor to a seronegative recipient |
Clinical Disease
- In the immunocompetent it is usually asymptomatic; about 10% develop a self-limiting illness with fever and painless cervical lymphadenopathy resembling infectious mononucleosis but with a negative heterophile test. It requires no treatment
- Infection is lifelong, with bradyzoites persisting in tissue cysts, held in check by cell-mediated immunity
- Congenital toxoplasmosis — the risk of transmission rises through pregnancy (about 15% in the first trimester to 60% in the third), but the severity falls. So early infection is rare but devastating, and late infection is common but usually subclinical at birth. The classical triad is chorioretinitis, hydrocephalus and diffuse intracranial calcification; most affected infants are however normal at birth and develop chorioretinitis and learning difficulty later
- In the immunosuppressed it is nearly always reactivation of latent infection, not new acquisition. cerebral toxoplasmosis is the commonest focal brain lesion in advanced HIV (CD4 below 100), presenting with headache, fever, focal deficits and seizures, and showing multiple ring-enhancing lesions with oedema in the basal ganglia and at the grey-white junction
- Ocular toxoplasmosis — a necrotising chorioretinitis, either congenital and reactivating in adolescence or acquired; the classical appearance is a "headlight in the fog" — an active white lesion adjacent to an old pigmented scar
CLINICAL PEARL
Only a mother who acquires toxoplasmosis during pregnancy can transmit it to her fetus. A woman already seropositive before conception has immunity and her baby is not at risk — which is why a positive IgG before pregnancy is reassuring rather than alarming, and why the whole difficulty lies in establishing whether a positive result is old or new. IgG avidity answers this: high avidity indicates infection more than 4 months earlier and effectively excludes risk in the first trimester.
Diagnosis and Treatment
- Serology is the mainstay — IgM suggests recent infection but may persist for over a year, so it is unreliable alone; a fourfold rise in IgG in paired sera; and IgG avidity to date the infection, which is the decisive test in pregnancy
- PCR on amniotic fluid for fetal infection, and on cerebrospinal fluid, aqueous humour or blood; histology showing tachyzoites or cysts
- In HIV, serology is of limited use — IgG merely confirms latent infection, and a negative IgG makes cerebral toxoplasmosis unlikely, which is its main value. The diagnosis is usually made by a therapeutic trial: characteristic imaging plus clinical and radiological improvement within 10 to 14 days of treatment. Failure to respond suggests primary CNS lymphoma and prompts biopsy
- Treatment — pyrimethamine with sulfadiazine and folinic acid (the folinic acid protects the marrow without rescuing the parasite); co-trimoxazole is an effective and far cheaper alternative widely used in India. Clindamycin replaces sulfadiazine in sulphonamide allergy
- In pregnancy — spiramycin is given to reduce transplacental transmission (it concentrates in the placenta but crosses poorly), and pyrimethamine-sulfadiazine is used if fetal infection is confirmed, after the first trimester
- Prophylaxis — co-trimoxazole in HIV with a CD4 below 100 and positive IgG; this also prevents Pneumocystis
The Intestinal Coccidia
| Parasite | Features | Diagnosis and treatment |
|---|---|---|
| cryptosporidium | Zoonotic and waterborne; oocysts are shed already sporulated and infective, permitting person-to-person spread; a very low infecting dose; and they are resistant TO chlorination, so they cause large waterborne outbreaks including from treated municipal water and swimming pools | Self-limiting watery diarrhoea in the immunocompetent, but severe, protracted and life-threatening in AIDS with CD4 below 100. Modified ZIEHL-neelsen (acid-fast) stain of stool shows small round pink oocysts 4–6 micrometres across. Treated with nitazoxanide, but the definitive treatment in HIV is immune restoration with antiretroviral therapy |
| cyclospora cayetanensis | Oocysts require days to sporulate, so person-to-person spread does not occur; associated with imported fresh produce and berries, and with the rainy season in Nepal and India | Prolonged relapsing watery diarrhoea with marked fatigue. Acid-fast oocysts 8–10 micrometres (larger than Cryptosporidium) that autofluoresce blue under ultraviolet light. Responds to CO-trimoxazole |
| cystoisospora (Isospora) belli | Human only; large ellipsoidal oocysts 20–30 micrometres | Chronic diarrhoea in AIDS, characteristically with eosinophilia — unusual for a protozoan. Responds to CO-trimoxazole |
| Microsporidia | Now classified as fungi; tiny spores | Chronic diarrhoea and keratoconjunctivitis in AIDS; modified trichrome stain; albendazole |
- All are stained by the modified (cold) ZIEHL-neelsen method, which is not part of routine stool examination — so the laboratory must be asked for it specifically, and this is the commonest reason these parasites are missed
The Torch Infections in Pregnancy
| Infection | Timing of risk | Characteristic features |
|---|---|---|
| Toxoplasmosis | Primary maternal infection during the pregnancy only | Chorioretinitis, hydrocephalus, diffuse intracranial calcification |
| Rubella | Highest risk under 11 weeks (about 90%); negligible after 20 | Deafness, cataract, patent ductus arteriosus |
| Cytomegalovirus | Primary infection carries the highest risk, but reactivation can also transmit | Microcephaly, periventricular calcification, sensorineural deafness which may appear late |
| Herpes simplex | Chiefly acquired at delivery, not in utero | Neonatal herpes — localised or disseminated, with high mortality |
| Syphilis | Any stage of pregnancy; risk greatest with early maternal infection | Snuffles, rash, osteochondritis, Hutchinson teeth; entirely preventable by antenatal screening and penicillin |
| Others | — | Varicella (limb hypoplasia, cicatricial scarring), parvovirus B19 (hydrops without malformation), Zika (microcephaly), HIV (chiefly perinatal) |
- Two general rules run through the group — IgM in the infant indicates its own infection, because IgM does not cross the placenta, whereas IgG may be maternal; and calcification pattern distinguishes the two protozoal and viral lookalikes, being diffuse in toxoplasmosis and periventricular in cytomegalovirus infection
Applied Aspects
- A positive toxoplasma IgG before pregnancy is reassuring, and the woman can be told her fetus is not at risk; the anxiety generated by unexplained positive serology is considerable and avoidable
- Use IgG avidity rather than IgM alone when a pregnant woman tests positive; false-positive and long-persistent IgM has led to unnecessary terminations
- Advise pregnant women practically — cook meat thoroughly, wash vegetables, wear gloves for gardening, and have someone else empty the litter tray daily; they need not give away the cat, which is a common and needless distress
- Give co-trimoxazole prophylaxis in advanced HIV, which covers Toxoplasma, Pneumocystis, Cyclospora and Cystoisospora together at negligible cost
- Ask for a modified acid-fast stain in any patient with HIV and chronic diarrhoea; routine stool microscopy will not detect the coccidia
- Cryptosporidium resists chlorination, so a waterborne outbreak may occur from properly chlorinated municipal water; filtration or boiling is required, and this is a genuine concern for Indian urban water supplies
- The calcification pattern distinguishes the two commonest congenital infections — diffuse in toxoplasmosis and periventricular in cytomegalovirus disease
- Reactivation, not new infection, causes cerebral toxoplasmosis in HIV, which is why a negative IgG makes the diagnosis unlikely and why prophylaxis is given to those who are seropositive
- A therapeutic trial is a legitimate diagnostic step in cerebral toxoplasmosis; failure to improve within a fortnight should prompt biopsy for primary CNS lymphoma
- Cryptosporidiosis in AIDS is cured by restoring immunity, not by antiparasitic drugs; antiretroviral therapy is the definitive treatment
- Empty the litter tray daily if a cat cannot be avoided; oocysts need at least a day to sporulate, so fresh faeces are not infective and daily removal eliminates the risk
- Eosinophilia with chronic diarrhoea in HIV suggests Cystoisospora, which is the one coccidian that produces it, and it responds to co-trimoxazole
- Ocular toxoplasmosis may present decades after congenital infection, so a young adult with chorioretinitis should be asked about birth history and examined for an old pigmented scar
- Undercooked meat is the commonest source in most populations, not cats — a point worth making, since the cat takes most of the blame
- Spiramycin reduces transmission but does not treat the fetus; once fetal infection is confirmed, pyrimethamine and sulfadiazine are needed instead
- Most congenitally infected infants are normal at birth and develop chorioretinitis or learning difficulty later, so follow-up and repeated ophthalmic examination are essential
The Parasite
- Giardia lamblia (also called G. Intestinalis or G. Duodenalis) is a flagellate protozoan and one of the commonest intestinal parasites worldwide
- Trophozoite — pear- or heart-shaped, bilaterally symmetrical, with two nuclei giving a characteristic "face with two eyes" or monkey-face appearance, four pairs of flagella, and a ventral sucking disc by which it attaches to the duodenal mucosa. Its motility is described as "falling leaf"
- Cyst — oval, thick-walled, with four nuclei when mature; the infective form, resistant to chlorination and surviving in cold water for weeks
- Transmission — faecal-oral through contaminated water (the commonest), food, and person to person. The infecting dose is very low (as few as 10 cysts), which is why it spreads readily in nurseries and among household contacts. It is a zoonosis as well, with beavers, dogs and livestock as reservoirs
Pathogenesis and Clinical Features
- It does not invade — trophozoites attach to the duodenum and jejunum by the sucking disc, and the damage is caused by mechanical coverage of the absorptive surface, villous atrophy with crypt hyperplasia, disaccharidase deficiency and bile salt deconjugation
- Malabsorption is the hallmark — foul-smelling, greasy, bulky stools that float (steatorrhoea), with abdominal distension, flatulence, cramps and weight loss. There is NO blood, NO mucus, NO pus and NO fever, which distinguishes it from dysentery
- Secondary lactose intolerance is common and may persist for weeks after the parasite is cleared, so continuing diarrhoea does not necessarily mean treatment failure
- In children it causes failure to thrive and, with repeated infection, stunting — a significant contributor to childhood malnutrition in India
- Predisposing factors — IgA deficiency and common variable immunodeficiency (in whom infection is severe and persistent), hypochlorhydria and proton pump inhibitors, malnutrition, and cystic fibrosis
CLINICAL PEARL
Giardia causes malabsorption without invading anything. There is no ulceration, no blood, no fever and no inflammatory infiltrate of consequence — the trophozoites simply carpet the duodenal surface and blunt the villi. This is why the illness is steatorrhoea rather than dysentery, why the stool contains no pus cells, and why the presentation is bloating and weight loss rather than the acute febrile picture of an invasive organism.
Diagnosis and Treatment
- Stool microscopy — cysts in formed stool and trophozoites in watery stool; but excretion is intermittent, so three specimens on alternate days are needed, and even then sensitivity is only about 70%
- Concentration methods improve the yield
- Duodenal sampling where stools are repeatedly negative — aspirate, biopsy, or the ENTERO-test ("string test"), in which a weighted gelatin capsule containing a nylon string is swallowed and withdrawn after some hours with adherent trophozoites
- Stool antigen detection by ELISA or immunochromatography is more sensitive than microscopy and is now widely used; PCR is the most sensitive
- Treatment — metronidazole or a single dose of tinidazole; nitazoxanide and albendazole are alternatives, and paromomycin is used in pregnancy
- Treat symptomatic household contacts, and consider treating asymptomatic carriers in a household with a young child or an immunodeficient member
Applied Aspects
- Consider giardiasis in chronic diarrhoea with weight loss and no blood, particularly in a child, a traveller or a patient with recurrent infections suggesting IgA deficiency
- Send three stool samples, not one; a single negative specimen is the commonest reason the diagnosis is missed
- Cysts resist chlorination, so treated municipal water may still transmit it; filtration or boiling is required, which matters for both outbreak investigation and travel advice
- Explain that lactose intolerance may persist after successful treatment, so that continuing symptoms are not mistaken for failure and treated with repeated courses
- Check immunoglobulins in recurrent or refractory giardiasis; selective IgA deficiency and common variable immunodeficiency both present this way
- Prevention is water and sanitation — safe drinking water, handwashing, and food hygiene; in India it is among the commonest parasitic causes of childhood diarrhoea and growth faltering
The Parasite
- Trichomonas vaginalis is a flagellate protozoan that exists only as a trophozoite — there is NO cyst stage
- This single fact determines its epidemiology: without a resistant cyst it cannot survive drying or the environment, so transmission must be direct — almost exclusively sexual
- Morphology — pear-shaped, about the size of a leucocyte, with a single nucleus, four anterior flagella and a fifth running along an undulating membrane that extends only half the body length, together with a stiffening axostyle. Motility is characteristically jerky and twitching
- It is the commonest non-viral sexually transmitted infection worldwide
- It raises the vaginal pH above 4.5 and adheres to and damages the squamous epithelium
Clinical Features
| Group | Features |
|---|---|
| Women | A profuse, frothy, yellow-green, offensive discharge with vulval itching, soreness and dysuria. The cervix may show punctate haemorrhages — the "strawberry cervix" — which is characteristic but present in only a minority. Vaginal pH is raised above 4.5 |
| Men | Usually asymptomatic, which is why men act as a silent reservoir and why treating the woman alone guarantees reinfection. May cause urethritis, prostatitis and epididymitis |
| In pregnancy | Associated with preterm labour, premature rupture of membranes and low birth weight |
| Association with HIV | The mucosal inflammation and microulceration increase both acquisition and transmission of HIV, so treating it has a public health value beyond the symptoms themselves |
CLINICAL PEARL
The absence of a cyst stage explains everything about trichomoniasis. No cyst means no environmental survival, so it cannot be waterborne or food-borne and must pass by direct contact — hence it is a sexually transmitted infection while its intestinal flagellate relatives are faecal-oral. It also means the specimen must be examined fresh and warm, because the trophozoite dies and stops moving within minutes, and motility is what identifies it.
Diagnosis and Treatment
- Wet mount of vaginal discharge in warm saline — examined immediately at the bedside, showing the characteristic jerky twitching motility. It is cheap and rapid, but only about 60 to 70% sensitive and falls rapidly with delay
- Culture in Diamond or Feinberg-Whittington medium is more sensitive; nucleic acid amplification tests are the most sensitive and are now the reference method, usable on urine and self-collected swabs
- Rapid antigen tests are available for point-of-care use
- It is frequently an incidental finding on a cervical smear, which is not a sensitive test but is a common route to diagnosis
- Distinguish the three causes of vaginal discharge — and the bedside pH is what separates them
| Feature | Trichomoniasis | Bacterial vaginosis | Candidiasis |
|---|---|---|---|
| Discharge | Profuse, frothy, yellow-green, offensive | Thin, homogeneous, grey-white, fishy odour | Thick, white, "cottage cheese" |
| Vaginal pH | Raised, above 4.5 | Raised, above 4.5 | Normal, below 4.5 |
| Itching | Present | Usually absent | Intense |
| Whiff (amine) test with KOH | May be positive | Positive | Negative |
| Microscopy | Motile trophozoites and many pus cells | Clue cells; few pus cells | Budding yeasts and pseudohyphae |
| Partner treatment | Essential | Not required | Not usually required |
Treatment and Applied Aspects
- Metronidazole or tinidazole — a single 2 g dose or a 7-day course; it is effective and cheap
- Treat the partner, always and simultaneously, whether or not he has symptoms; failure to do so is the commonest cause of apparent treatment failure, which is in fact reinfection
- Avoid alcohol during and for 48 hours after metronidazole because of the disulfiram-like reaction
- Topical treatment is inadequate, since the organism also infects the urethra and periurethral glands, which topical agents do not reach
- Screen for other sexually transmitted infections — gonorrhoea, chlamydia, syphilis and HIV; the presence of one implies risk of the others
- Treat in pregnancy, since the association with preterm birth and low birth weight makes it worth treating even when symptoms are mild
- Syndromic management is used in India where laboratory facilities are limited, treating vaginal discharge for trichomoniasis and bacterial vaginosis together at the first visit — a pragmatic approach that also requires partner notification
Naegleria Fowleri
- A free-living amoeboflagellate found in warm fresh water — ponds, lakes, poorly chlorinated swimming pools, hot springs and warm water pipes. It thrives at temperatures up to 45°C, so infection peaks in summer
- Three forms — the amoeboid trophozoite (the invasive form), a transient flagellate form, and a cyst
- Entry is through the nose during swimming, diving or nasal irrigation with contaminated water, including ritual ablution and neti pot use with tap water. The amoeba penetrates the cribriform plate and travels along the olfactory nerves directly to the brain
- Primary amoebic meningoencephalitis (PAM) — a fulminant, rapidly progressive purulent meningoencephalitis in a previously healthy young person, beginning with severe headache, fever and disturbance of smell or taste (reflecting the olfactory route), and progressing to coma and death within 3 to 7 days
- Mortality exceeds 95%, with only a handful of documented survivors worldwide
- Diagnosis — cerebrospinal fluid resembles bacterial meningitis (neutrophils, high protein, low glucose) but with NO organisms on Gram stain and a sterile culture. The diagnosis is made by seeing motile amoebae in a wet mount of fresh, uncentrifuged, unrefrigerated cerebrospinal fluid — which requires that someone thinks to look
- Treatment — amphotericin B with miltefosine, rifampicin and azoles; and targeted temperature management. Outcomes remain poor
CLINICAL PEARL
Neutrophilic meningitis with no organisms and a sterile culture in a healthy young swimmer should prompt a wet mount of fresh cerebrospinal fluid. The picture is indistinguishable from partially treated bacterial meningitis, which is what it is nearly always called. Naegleria is only found by looking for movement in an unspun, unchilled specimen — centrifugation and refrigeration both destroy the amoebae, so the routine handling of the sample is what conceals the diagnosis.
Acanthamoeba and Balamuthia
| Feature | Acanthamoeba | Balamuthia mandrillaris |
|---|---|---|
| Habitat | Ubiquitous — soil, dust, fresh and salt water, air conditioning units, contact lens solutions and tap water | Soil and dust |
| Forms | Trophozoite with spiny acanthopodia; a double-walled polygonal cyst | Trophozoite and cyst |
| Route | Through the cornea, or by inhalation and haematogenous spread — not through the cribriform plate | Haematogenous from skin or lung |
| Host | Immunocompetent for keratitis; immunosuppressed for encephalitis | May affect the immunocompetent |
| Disease | Acanthamoeba keratitis — a severe, exquisitely painful, sight-threatening corneal infection with a ring infiltrate, seen almost entirely in contact lens wearers who use tap water or homemade saline. Also granulomatous amoebic encephalitis — a subacute illness over weeks to months | Granulomatous amoebic encephalitis, often with a preceding skin lesion |
| Diagnosis | Corneal scraping with culture on non-nutrient agar seeded with E. Coli, on which the amoebae leave visible tracks as they feed; confocal microscopy; PCR | Biopsy and PCR |
| Treatment | Prolonged topical biguanides (polyhexamethylene biguanide) and diamidines; keratoplasty if it fails | Multidrug regimens; poor outcome |
Comparison and Applied Aspects
| Feature | Naegleria (PAM) | Acanthamoeba (GAE) |
|---|---|---|
| Host | Healthy young person | Immunosuppressed, chronically ill, or diabetic |
| Route of entry | Nose, through the cribriform plate along olfactory nerves | Lung or skin, then haematogenous |
| Onset and course | Fulminant — death in 3 to 7 days | Subacute or chronic — weeks to months |
| CSF picture | Neutrophilic, resembling bacterial meningitis | Lymphocytic, resembling tuberculous meningitis |
| Cysts in tissue | Absent — trophozoites only | Present — both trophozoites and cysts |
| Exposure | Swimming or nasal irrigation in warm fresh water | Contact lenses (keratitis); often none identified |
- Never rinse contact lenses or their cases in tap water, and never use homemade saline; this single instruction prevents most Acanthamoeba keratitis, and it must be given explicitly to every new lens wearer
- Suspect Acanthamoeba in a contact lens wearer with keratitis and pain out OF proportion to the signs, particularly one not responding to antibacterial or antifungal drops; delay leads to corneal destruction
- Use only boiled, distilled or sterile water for nasal irrigation and for ritual ablution; deaths have followed the use of tap water in a neti pot
- Ask about swimming in warm fresh water in a young patient with fulminant meningitis, and request a wet mount of fresh unspun cerebrospinal fluid
- These are free-living organisms that infect man incidentally, so there is no person-to-person transmission and no need for isolation — but the environmental source may affect others and should be identified
- Chlorination at swimming pool levels kills Naegleria, so adequately maintained pools are safe; the risk lies in natural warm water and in poorly maintained facilities
African Trypanosomiasis (sleeping Sickness)
- Caused by Trypanosoma brucei, transmitted by the TSETSE fly (Glossina), which bites by day and in which the parasite also multiplies
- The trypomastigote is a slender flagellate with an undulating membrane running the full length of the body and a kinetoplast — found extracellularly in blood, lymph and cerebrospinal fluid
| Feature | T. B. Gambiense (West African) | T. B. Rhodesiense (East African) |
|---|---|---|
| Reservoir | Man — anthroponotic | Wild animals and cattle — a zoonosis |
| Course | Chronic — months to years | Acute — weeks to months, and rapidly fatal |
| Parasitaemia | Low; hard to find | High; readily found |
| Proportion of cases | About 95% | About 5% |
| Lymphadenopathy | Posterior cervical — winterbottom sign | Less prominent |
- Stage 1 (haemolymphatic) — a chancre at the bite site, then intermittent fever, lymphadenopathy, headache and pruritus
- Stage 2 (meningoencephalitic) — invasion of the central nervous system with headache, personality change, reversal OF the sleep-wake cycle (daytime somnolence with nocturnal insomnia, which gives the disease its name), tremor, ataxia and finally coma and death
- Antigenic variation of the variant surface glycoprotein allows the parasite to evade antibody indefinitely, producing successive waves of parasitaemia and making vaccine development effectively impossible
- Diagnosis — thick and thin blood films, lymph node aspirate, and concentration methods; the CATT card agglutination test for screening in gambiense; and lumbar puncture to stage the disease, since the treatment differs entirely between stages
- Treatment — stage 1 uses pentamidine or suramin, which do not cross the blood-brain barrier; stage 2 requires drugs that DO cross — melarsoprol (an arsenical causing a fatal reactive encephalopathy in about 5%), eflornithine, and the newer oral fexinidazole, which treats both stages and has transformed management
CLINICAL PEARL
Staging by lumbar puncture is what determines the treatment, and getting it wrong is lethal in either direction. Stage 1 drugs do not cross the blood-brain barrier, so treating stage 2 disease with them leaves the patient to die of encephalitis. Stage 2 drugs are far more toxic — melarsoprol itself kills about 5% — so treating stage 1 disease with them causes avoidable deaths. The cerebrospinal fluid cell count and the presence of trypanosomes in it decide the question.
American Trypanosomiasis (chagas Disease)
- Caused by Trypanosoma cruzi in Central and South America
- The vector is the reduviid or "kissing" bug (Triatoma), which bites at night around the face and then defaecates beside the bite. Transmission is by the faeces, not the bite — the parasite is rubbed into the wound or the conjunctiva when the sleeper scratches. This is stercorarian transmission, in contrast to the salivarian transmission of African trypanosomes
- It is intracellular in man, existing as an amastigote in cardiac and smooth muscle and in glial cells, with trypomastigotes in the blood — unlike the African species, which remain extracellular
- Acute phase — often in children; a chagoma at the inoculation site, or ROMAÑA sign (unilateral painless periorbital oedema) when the conjunctiva is the portal; fever, lymphadenopathy and occasionally acute myocarditis
- Indeterminate phase — asymptomatic, seropositive, lasting decades; most infected people remain here
- Chronic phase in 20 to 30% — cardiomyopathy with heart failure, arrhythmia, apical aneurysm and sudden death; and MEGA-syndromes (megaoesophagus and megacolon) from destruction of the autonomic myenteric plexus
- Also transmitted by transfusion, transplantation, orally in contaminated juice, and congenitally; blood donor screening is now routine in endemic countries and in migrant populations
- Diagnosis — blood film and concentration in the acute phase; serology (two different tests) in the chronic phase, when parasites are scanty; PCR; xenodiagnosis is historical
- Treatment — benznidazole or nifurtimox, which are effective in the acute and early chronic phases but of limited value once cardiomyopathy is established; management is then that of heart failure
Applied Aspects
- Neither disease is endemic in India, but both must be considered in travellers, migrants and returning workers, and Chagas disease can be transmitted by transfusion and transplantation from an infected donor anywhere
- Stage African trypanosomiasis before treating; the lumbar puncture is not optional, since the two stages require different and differently toxic drugs
- Antigenic variation prevents both immunity and vaccination in African trypanosomiasis — the same mechanism that operates in relapsing fever and in malaria, and a recurring theme in parasitology
- Chagas cardiomyopathy is irreversible, so the value of treatment lies in the acute and indeterminate phases — which argues for screening rather than waiting for symptoms
- Vector control is the mainstay in Chagas disease — improving housing, since the reduviid bug lives in cracks in mud walls and thatch, and spraying with residual insecticide
- Both are WHO-designated neglected tropical diseases, and both have seen genuine progress through donated drugs, active case-finding and vector control
Balantidium Coli
- The largest protozoan parasite of man and the only ciliate that causes human disease
- Trophozoite — 50 to 200 micrometres, oval, covered in cilia giving rapid rotatory motility, with a cytostome (mouth), a large kidney-shaped macronucleus and a small micronucleus, and two contractile vacuoles
- Cyst — the infective form, spherical, thick-walled
- The pig is the natural reservoir, so the disease is a zoonosis and occurs in pig handlers, abattoir workers and communities living close to pigs — which includes parts of India and the north-east
- Pathology — it invades the colonic mucosa with the aid of hyaluronidase, producing ulcers that closely resemble the flask-shaped ulcers of amoebiasis
- Clinical features — most infections are asymptomatic; symptomatic disease gives dysentery with blood and mucus, indistinguishable clinically from amoebiasis. Perforation and, rarely, extraintestinal spread may occur
- Diagnosis — the trophozoite is so large and so actively motile that it is readily seen in a wet mount of fresh stool; excretion is intermittent, so repeated specimens are needed
- Treatment — tetracycline is the drug of choice, with metronidazole as an alternative
CLINICAL PEARL
Balantidiasis looks exactly like amoebiasis until you look down the microscope. The dysentery is similar and the ulcers are similar — but Balantidium is enormous, ciliated and unmistakable in a wet mount, and the treatment is tetracycline rather than metronidazole. The clue in the history is contact with pigs, which should prompt the request and the stool examination.
Non-pathogenic Intestinal Protozoa
| Organism | Distinguishing features | Why it matters |
|---|---|---|
| Entamoeba dispar and E. Moshkovskii | Morphologically identical to E. Histolytica; distinguished only by antigen detection or PCR | The most important non-pathogen — E. Dispar is about 10 times commoner than E. Histolytica, so most "amoebic cysts" reported on microscopy represent harmless infection and do not warrant treatment |
| Entamoeba coli | Larger; a cyst with up to eight nuclei when mature; an eccentric karyosome and coarse irregular peripheral chromatin; chromatoid bars with splintered ends; sluggish non-directional motility and it does not ingest red cells | Commonly reported and regularly mistaken for E. Histolytica, leading to unnecessary treatment |
| Entamoeba hartmanni | Resembles E. Histolytica but is smaller (under 10 micrometres); careful measurement distinguishes it | Non-pathogenic |
| Endolimax nana, Iodamoeba butschlii | Small; Iodamoeba has a large iodine-staining glycogen vacuole | Non-pathogenic commensals |
| Chilomastix mesnili | A flagellate with a lemon-shaped cyst and a spiral groove | Non-pathogenic; confused with Giardia |
| Blastocystis hominis | Vacuolated forms of variable size | Pathogenicity remains disputed; commonly found in both symptomatic and asymptomatic people, and treatment is controversial |
| Dientamoeba fragilis | A flagellate without flagella, usually binucleate; NO cyst stage; may be transmitted within pinworm eggs | Increasingly accepted as a genuine cause of chronic diarrhoea and abdominal pain, and easily missed on routine microscopy |
Applied Aspects
- Do not treat "amoebic cysts" reported on stool microscopy without further evidence; most represent E. Dispar, and reflexive treatment of every positive report is a major source of unnecessary metronidazole use in India
- Nuclear detail and chromatoid body shape are what distinguish the Entamoeba species, and a report should describe them rather than simply saying "cysts seen"
- Erythrophagocytosis in a trophozoite is the one reliable morphological marker of invasive E. Histolytica, and should be looked for and reported specifically
- Ask about pig contact in dysentery that does not respond to metronidazole, and request a wet mount looking for Balantidium
- The finding of a non-pathogenic protozoan is still informative, because it proves faecal-oral exposure — and therefore that the patient may also have acquired something that matters
- Correlate the laboratory finding with the clinical picture; a parasite in the stool of a patient whose symptoms do not fit is more likely a passenger than the cause, and continuing to search may be more useful than treating it
Stool Examination
- Collect in a clean, dry, wide-mouthed container free of urine, water and disinfectant, all of which destroy trophozoites
- Examine within 30 minutes for trophozoites, which are motile and fragile; cysts and ova survive longer. A specimen that must travel should go in a preservative — 10% formalin for ova and cysts, or polyvinyl alcohol for permanent staining
- Three specimens on alternate days, because excretion of most parasites is intermittent; a single negative stool examination is the commonest reason a parasitic infection is missed
- Macroscopic examination — consistency (trophozoites are found in liquid stool, cysts in formed stool), blood, mucus, and adult worms or proglottids visible to the naked eye
- Direct wet mounts — saline for motility and for red and pus cells; iodine for nuclear and glycogen detail in cysts, which kills the organism but reveals structure
| Technique | Principle and use |
|---|---|
| Concentration — formol-ether sedimentation | The standard method; concentrates cysts, ova and larvae by sedimentation after fat is removed into the ether layer. Suitable for all parasites and preserves morphology |
| Saline (zinc sulphate) flotation | Light eggs and cysts float and are collected from the surface. Does not work for heavy or operculated eggs such as those of the trematodes and Taenia, which sink |
| Modified (cold) ZIEHL-neelsen | For the coccidia — Cryptosporidium, Cyclospora, Cystoisospora. It is not part of routine examination and must be requested specifically |
| Trichrome and iron haematoxylin | Permanent stained smears for detailed nuclear morphology, which is what distinguishes the Entamoeba species |
| Modified trichrome | Microsporidia |
| NIH swab / cellophane tape (Graham) test | Applied to the perianal skin first thing in the morning before washing or defaecation, for the eggs of Enterobius and Taenia, which are deposited outside the anus and are not found in stool |
| Egg counting — Kato-Katz, Stoll | Quantifies the worm burden, which determines whether treatment is needed and is used in community surveys and deworming programmes |
| Larval culture — Harada-Mori | Distinguishes hookworm from Strongyloides larvae, and detects light infections |
CLINICAL PEARL
The right technique depends on what is being looked for, which is why the request form matters more in parasitology than in almost any other laboratory discipline. A routine stool examination will not detect Cryptosporidium (which needs a modified acid-fast stain), Enterobius (which needs a perianal tape), or Strongyloides (which may need larval culture). A form marked only "stool for ova and cysts" quietly excludes all three.
Blood and Other Specimens
- Thick and thin blood films stained with Giemsa — thick for detection (concentrating the parasites about 20-fold), thin for species identification and counting. For malaria, and also for Babesia, trypanosomes and microfilariae
- Timing of blood collection matters — malaria films may be taken at any time; but microfilariae of Wuchereria bancrofti show nocturnal periodicity and must be collected between about 10 pm and 2 am, which is a practical constraint on filariasis surveys
- Concentration methods for blood — the KNOTT technique and membrane filtration for microfilariae; buffy coat and the QBC for trypanosomes and malaria
- Tissue and aspirates — bone marrow and splenic aspirate for Leishmania amastigotes; lymph node aspirate; skin snips for Onchocerca; muscle biopsy for Trichinella
- Other specimens — duodenal aspirate or the string test for Giardia and Strongyloides; sputum for Paragonimus and Strongyloides larvae; urine (a terminal, midday specimen) for Schistosoma haematobium; and cerebrospinal fluid, examined fresh and unspun for free-living amoebae
Immunological and Molecular Methods
- Antigen detection — the most useful development, since it indicates current infection: malaria rapid diagnostic tests (HRP2, pLDH), Entamoeba histolytica lectin antigen (which distinguishes it from E. Dispar), Giardia and Cryptosporidium antigen, and filarial circulating antigen
- Antibody detection — useful where the parasite is inaccessible: amoebic liver abscess, hydatid disease, cysticercosis, toxoplasmosis, Strongyloides, filariasis and the rK39 test for kala-azar. Its limitation in an endemic population is that antibody persists for years, so it cannot distinguish current from past infection
- Molecular methods — PCR and multiplex panels are the most sensitive and can distinguish morphologically identical species; loop-mediated isothermal amplification (lamp) needs no thermocycler and is suited to field use
- Culture is used for few parasites — NNN medium for Leishmania, Diamond medium for Trichomonas, and non-nutrient agar with E. Coli for Acanthamoeba
- Eosinophilia is a useful pointer — it accompanies tissue-invading helminths (and is greatest during larval migration) but is absent in protozoal infection and in worms confined to the gut lumen. Its one protozoal exception is Cystoisospora
Applied Aspects
- State the suspected parasite on the request form; the stain, the concentration method, the specimen and the timing all differ, and a generic request yields a generic and often falsely negative answer
- Send three stool specimens, and send them promptly or in preservative; this single practice raises the diagnostic yield more than any laboratory technique
- Collect blood for microfilariae at night, and consider the diethylcarbamazine provocation test where a daytime sample is unavoidable
- Interpret serology against the local background; in an endemic Indian population a positive antibody test may reflect exposure years earlier
- An unexplained eosinophilia warrants a search for helminths, including in returning travellers, and its absence argues against a tissue helminth but not against a protozoan
- Parasitology remains a microscopy-based discipline, and its accuracy depends on trained technologists; the decline of this skill is a real problem, and antigen and molecular tests are increasingly filling the gap
Mechanisms of Antimalarial Resistance
Antimalarial resistance is the ability of a parasite strain to survive or multiply despite the administration and absorption of a drug in doses equal to or higher than those usually recommended, provided drug exposure is adequate.
| Drug | Molecular basis of resistance | Consequence |
|---|---|---|
| Chloroquine | Mutations in the pfcrt transporter (and pfmdr1), which pump the drug out of the food vacuole where it acts | Widespread falciparum resistance from the 1970s; chloroquine abandoned for falciparum malaria, though it remains effective for P. Vivax in most of India |
| Sulfadoxine-pyrimethamine | Point mutations in dhfr and dhps, accumulating stepwise | Resistance developed rapidly because a single mutation confers a measurable advantage; now used only as a partner drug within a combination |
| Artemisinins | Mutations in the kelch13 (K13) propeller domain, allowing ring stages to enter a quiescent state and survive the drug | Manifests as delayed parasite clearance rather than outright treatment failure. First detected on the Cambodia-Thailand border and now reported in east Africa — the most serious current threat, since artemisinins underpin all first-line treatment |
| Mefloquine, lumefantrine | pfmdr1 amplification | Reduces the effectiveness of partner drugs |
| Atovaquone | cytochrome b mutation | Arises rapidly, so it is never used alone |
- Resistance arises by spontaneous mutation and is then selected by drug pressure — the drug does not create it. Selection is favoured by monotherapy, subtherapeutic dosing, poor adherence, counterfeit and substandard drugs, and mass drug administration
- Drugs with a long half-life leave a "selective window" of subtherapeutic concentration during which only resistant parasites can establish — which is why partner drug choice matters
CLINICAL PEARL
Artemisinin resistance shows itself as slow clearance rather than as outright failure, which is exactly why it spread before it was noticed. Patients still recover, because the partner drug finishes the job — so nothing looks wrong clinically. Detection requires measuring the parasite clearance half-life or sequencing kelch13. By the time treatment failures become obvious, the partner drug is also failing and the combination has been lost.
WHY Combination Therapy Works
Resistance to drug A arises by mutation at a frequency of roughly 1 in 1012 parasites → Resistance to drug B arises independently at a similar frequency → A parasite resistant to both requires both mutations, at a probability of about 1 in 1024 → A heavily infected patient carries at most about 1012 parasites → So a doubly resistant parasite essentially cannot arise within one patient → The artemisinin rapidly reduces the parasite burden by several logs within hours; the partner drug, with a longer half-life, eliminates the remainder → Each drug therefore protects the other — which is why artemisinin monotherapy is banned and why oral artemisinin alone is a regulatory offence in India
Malaria Control and Elimination in India
- India's programme — the National Vector Borne Disease Control Programme, with the National Framework for Malaria Elimination targeting elimination, and substantial reductions already achieved
- Case management — early diagnosis by microscopy or rapid test and prompt complete treatment; ASHA workers provide rapid tests and treatment at village level, which has transformed access
- Vector control — long-lasting insecticidal nets (LLINs), indoor residual spraying, larval source reduction, larvivorous fish (Gambusia), and environmental management. Both are limited by insecticide resistance in Anopheles and by the fact that some vectors bite outdoors and early in the evening, escaping nets entirely
- Personal protection — nets, repellents, screening and clothing
- Chemoprophylaxis for travellers and non-immune visitors to endemic areas
- Surveillance — as incidence falls, every case must be investigated and classified as indigenous or imported, and foci must be actively sought; this is the defining activity of an elimination programme
- Vaccines — RTS,S/AS01 and R21/Matrix-M (the latter developed with the Serum Institute of India) are the first malaria vaccines recommended by the WHO; efficacy is partial and they supplement rather than replace existing measures
Applied Aspects
- Never use an artemisinin alone; oral artemisinin monotherapy is banned in India precisely to protect the drug class on which all treatment now depends
- Give the full course and confirm adherence; patients feel well within a day or two and frequently stop, which is exactly the exposure that selects resistance
- Substandard and counterfeit antimalarials are a genuine problem in parts of Asia and Africa, and deliver subtherapeutic doses that select resistance while appearing to be correct treatment
- Complete radical cure in vivax malaria with 14 days of primaquine; relapse is not treatment failure but the consequence of untreated hypnozoites
- Report and investigate treatment failures; therapeutic efficacy monitoring at sentinel sites is how national policy is revised, and it depends on clinicians reporting
- Elimination requires attention to the asymptomatic reservoir and to imported cases; as transmission falls, the remaining infections are increasingly low-density and silent, and active surveillance rather than passive case-finding is what will finish the task
General Features and Classification
Helminths are multicellular, bilaterally symmetrical metazoa (worms). Unlike protozoa they are macroscopic, and — with three exceptions — they do not multiply within the human host.
| Phylum | Class | Features |
|---|---|---|
| Platyhelminthes (flatworms) | Cestoda (tapeworms) | Dorsoventrally flattened, ribbon-like and segmented into proglottids; a head (scolex) with attachment organs; NO alimentary canal at all — nutrition is absorbed through the tegument; hermaphrodite |
| Trematoda (flukes) | Leaf-shaped and unsegmented, with oral and ventral suckers; an incomplete gut ending blindly, with no anus; hermaphrodite except the schistosomes, which have separate sexes; all require a snail as first intermediate host | |
| Nemathelminthes (roundworms) | Nematoda | Cylindrical, unsegmented, tapering at both ends; a complete alimentary canal with mouth and anus; separate sexes, the female being larger and the male having a curved tail |
- Helminths do not multiply in man, so the worm burden depends on the number of infective stages ingested — which means repeated exposure determines severity, and a single exposure rarely causes heavy infection
- The three exceptions are Strongyloides stercoralis (internal autoinfection, permitting infection for decades and hyperinfection in immunosuppression), Hymenolepis nana (internal autoinfection) and Capillaria philippinensis
- Eosinophilia accompanies tissue-invading helminths, and is greatest during the phase of larval migration. It is absent or minimal in worms confined to the gut lumen (adult Ascaris, tapeworms, Enterobius), and is absent in protozoal infection. This single observation directs the entire investigation of a patient with eosinophilia
- Immunity is IgE-mediated, with mast cells and eosinophils; it is partial, so reinfection is the rule in an endemic setting
CLINICAL PEARL
Because worms do not multiply inside us, deworming actually works. A bacterial infection can regrow from a few survivors, but a person cured of Ascaris stays cured until they swallow more eggs. This is why mass drug administration is a coherent strategy against helminths in a way it is not against most bacteria, and why the worm burden in a community falls predictably with periodic treatment even without any improvement in sanitation.
The Intestinal Tapeworms
| Feature | TAENIA solium (pork tapeworm) | TAENIA saginata (beef tapeworm) |
|---|---|---|
| Intermediate host | Pig | Cattle |
| Length and proglottids | 2–4 metres; about 1,000 proglottids | 5–10 metres; 1,000–2,000 proglottids — the larger worm |
| Scolex | Armed — four suckers plus a rostellum bearing a double row of hooks | Unarmed — four suckers only, NO rostellum and NO hooks |
| Uterine branches in the gravid proglottid | Few — 7 to 13, thick and dendritic | Many — 15 to 30, thin and dichotomous |
| Gravid segments | Passed passively in the stool, usually in chains | Actively motile — they crawl out of the anus spontaneously, which is often how the patient discovers the infection |
| Eggs | Identical in both — spherical, brown, radially striated embryophore containing a six-hooked oncosphere (hexacanth embryo) | Cannot be distinguished from T. Solium on microscopy, so proglottid or scolex examination or PCR is required |
| Are the eggs infective to man? | Yes — ingestion of eggs causes cysticercosis, in which man becomes an accidental intermediate host. This is the crucial difference | NO — man can only be the definitive host, so beef tapeworm causes no larval disease |
| Larval stage in the animal | Cysticercus cellulosae | Cysticercus bovis |
CLINICAL PEARL
The pork tapeworm is dangerous not because of the worm but because of its eggs. The adult T. Solium in the gut causes little more than mild discomfort — as does T. Saginata, which is bigger. But only T. Solium eggs can infect man, turning him into an accidental intermediate host and producing cysticercosis. So a tapeworm carrier is a hazard chiefly to the people around him, and to himself by autoinfection — which is why the carrier must be found and treated.
Life Cycle and Clinical Features
Eggs or gravid proglottids are passed in human faeces → Ingested by the intermediate host — pig or cattle → The oncosphere hatches, penetrates the intestinal wall and reaches skeletal and cardiac muscle by the bloodstream → It develops into a cysticercus — a fluid-filled bladder containing an invaginated scolex. Infected pork is called "MEASLY pork" → Man eats undercooked pork or beef containing the cysticercus → The scolex evaginates and attaches to the jejunal mucosa → It matures into an adult tapeworm over 2 to 3 months and may live for years to decades, shedding gravid proglottids daily
- Adult tapeworm infection (taeniasis) is usually mild — vague abdominal discomfort, altered appetite, nausea, and occasionally weight loss. The commonest presentation is the passage OF proglottids, which is alarming to the patient and is what brings them to a doctor
- Complications are uncommon — appendicitis or biliary obstruction from a migrating proglottid, and intestinal obstruction with a heavy burden
- The important consequence of T. Solium is cysticercosis, in the carrier and in the household
Other Tapeworms
| Tapeworm | Source and features |
|---|---|
| diphyllobothrium latum (fish tapeworm) | The longest human tapeworm, up to 10 metres. Acquired from raw or undercooked freshwater fish; two intermediate hosts (a copepod, then a fish). The scolex has slit-like grooves (bothria) instead of suckers, and the egg is operculated. It competitively absorbs vitamin B12, causing megaloblastic anaemia with subacute combined degeneration — the only helminth to do so |
| hymenolepis nana (dwarf tapeworm) | The smallest (2–4 cm) but the commonest human tapeworm, and the commonest in Indian children. It needs NO intermediate host — the egg is directly infective — and it undergoes internal autoinfection, so heavy burdens accumulate and infection persists. Spreads directly from person to person in institutions |
| Hymenolepis diminuta | Rat tapeworm; accidental infection of children by ingesting infected grain beetles |
| dipylidium caninum | Dog tapeworm; children infected by swallowing an infected flea; the proglottids resemble cucumber seeds |
| echinococcus granulosus | A tiny adult (3–6 mm, only 3 proglottids) in the dog; man is an accidental intermediate host and develops hydatid disease |
Identification of Helminth Eggs
| Egg | Distinguishing appearance |
|---|---|
| ascaris (fertilised) | Round or oval, thick-shelled with a mamillated bile-stained albuminous coat; unsegmented ovum |
| Hookworm | Oval, thin colourless shell with a clear space between the shell and a segmented ovum; the two species are indistinguishable |
| trichuris | Barrel or lemon-shaped and bile-stained, with a translucent mucous plug at each pole — unmistakable |
| enterobius | Oval and PLANO-convex (flattened on one side), thin-shelled, containing a coiled larva; found on perianal tape, not in stool |
| TAENIA | Spherical with a thick radially striated brown embryophore enclosing a six-hooked oncosphere; identical in both species |
| diphyllobothrium | Oval and operculated, with a small knob at the opposite pole |
| hymenolepis nana | Spherical with an oncosphere and characteristic polar filaments arising from the inner membrane |
| schistosoma | Non-operculated with a spine — terminal in S. Haematobium (urine) and lateral in S. Mansoni (stool) |
| Most other trematodes | Operculated — a lid at one end; this single feature separates the flukes from the nematodes and cestodes at a glance |
Diagnosis, Treatment and Applied Aspects
- Stool microscopy for eggs — but Taenia eggs are identical between the two species, so species identification requires examination of a gravid proglottid (counting uterine branches after India ink injection) or of the scolex recovered after treatment, or PCR and coproantigen testing
- Perianal tape (Graham) test is useful for Taenia as well as Enterobius, because proglottids rupture at the anal margin
- Treatment — praziquantel as a single dose, or niclosamide; albendazole is an alternative. Cure requires passage of the scolex, since a retained scolex regenerates the entire worm — so the stool is examined and the patient is followed up at 1 to 3 months
- A caution in known or suspected neurocysticercosis — treating the intestinal tapeworm is still necessary, but praziquantel also acts on cerebral cysts and may provoke an inflammatory reaction, so the brain should be considered before treatment
- Prevention — thorough cooking of pork and beef (cysticerci are killed at 60°C or by prolonged freezing); meat inspection at abattoirs; sanitation and the prevention of pigs having access to human faeces, which is the link that sustains the cycle; and handwashing
- Find and treat the tapeworm carrier when a case of cysticercosis is diagnosed — the source is often a household member or a food handler, and treating them prevents further cases
- Health education about undercooked meat and about pig rearing is the practical measure in the endemic parts of India, where pigs are commonly free-ranging and open defaecation persists
- A patient passing proglottids is frightened but rarely ill, and reassurance is part of the consultation; the real work is establishing the species and considering cysticercosis
- Cure is judged by passage of the scolex, not by the disappearance of symptoms; a retained scolex regenerates the whole worm within months
- Freezing kills cysticerci, so commercially frozen pork is safe; the risk lies in freshly slaughtered village pork eaten undercooked
- Hymenolepis nana spreads directly between children without any intermediate host, so institutional outbreaks require treating the whole group and attention to hand hygiene
Cysticercosis — Pathogenesis
Cysticercosis is infection of man by the larval stage (Cysticercus cellulosae) of Taenia solium, acquired by ingesting the eggs. Man becomes an accidental intermediate host.
- Routes of infection — ingesting eggs in food or water contaminated by the faeces of a tapeworm carrier (heteroinfection, the commonest route); external autoinfection by faecal-oral transfer in a carrier with poor hygiene; and internal autoinfection by reverse peristalsis carrying proglottids into the stomach, which is debated
- The crucial epidemiological point — cysticercosis is acquired from human faeces, not from eating pork. A vegetarian can develop cysticercosis from food handled by a carrier, while eating pork causes only intestinal taeniasis. This is counterintuitive and is regularly misunderstood
- Sites — brain (neurocysticercosis, about 60 to 90% of symptomatic cases), skeletal muscle, subcutaneous tissue, and the eye
| Stage of the cyst | Appearance and host response |
|---|---|
| Vesicular (viable) | A living larva; a thin-walled fluid-filled cyst with an eccentric scolex visible as a mural nodule. Little inflammation and NO enhancement, because the live parasite actively suppresses the host response — so it is usually asymptomatic |
| Colloidal vesicular (degenerating) | The larva dies and antigen is released; intense inflammation with ring enhancement and surrounding oedema. This is when seizures occur — symptoms arise from the death of the parasite, not from its life |
| Granular nodular | The cyst retracts; a nodular enhancing lesion with less oedema |
| Calcified (inactive) | A small calcified nodule with no enhancement; may still be an epileptogenic focus and remains visible for life |
CLINICAL PEARL
Cysticercosis is a disease of the parasite’s death, not its life. A living cyst suppresses inflammation and sits silently in the brain, often for years. Symptoms begin when the larva dies and its antigens provoke inflammation and oedema. Two consequences follow: many cysts are incidental findings needing no treatment; and anthelminthic drugs make patients worse before better by killing cysts, which is why corticosteroids and antiepileptics are started first.
Cysticercosis — Clinical Features and Management
- Neurocysticercosis is the commonest cause of acquired epilepsy in India and worldwide, accounting for a large proportion of adult-onset seizures in endemic areas
- Presentations — seizures (much the commonest, usually focal); raised intracranial pressure and hydrocephalus, particularly with intraventricular or racemose cysts in the basal cisterns; focal deficits; and "cysticercal encephalitis", a severe reaction to many simultaneously degenerating cysts, seen chiefly in children and young women
- Ocular cysticercosis — a cyst in the vitreous or subretinal space; and subcutaneous and muscular cysts, which may be palpable and calcify to give the classical "rice grain" calcification on a soft tissue radiograph
- Diagnosis — CT and MRI are the mainstay; seeing the scolex within a cyst is pathognomonic and is best shown on MRI. Serology by enzyme-linked immunoelectrotransfer blot (EITB) is specific but insensitive with a single lesion; biopsy of a subcutaneous nodule may confirm it
- The key differential in India is tuberculoma, which also gives a ring-enhancing lesion. Points favouring cysticercosis are a visible scolex, a smaller lesion (under 20 mm), a regular thin ring and less surrounding oedema; a tuberculoma is usually larger with an irregular thick wall and marked oedema, and there may be evidence of tuberculosis elsewhere
- Management principles — (1) examine the fundus first, because killing an intraocular cyst can destroy the eye; (2) control seizures with antiepileptics, which is the main determinant of quality of life; (3) give corticosteroids before and during anthelminthic treatment to contain the inflammatory response; (4) albendazole (with praziquantel in heavy infection) for viable cysts; and (5) surgery or shunting for hydrocephalus
- Calcified lesions need NO anthelminthic — the parasite is already dead; treatment is directed at the seizures alone
- Treat the tapeworm carrier in the household, and improve sanitation and handwashing
Hydatid Disease
- Caused by the larval stage of echinococcus granulosus. The dog (and other canines) is the definitive host, harbouring the tiny adult worm; sheep, goats and cattle are the intermediate hosts; and man is an accidental dead-end intermediate host, infected by ingesting eggs from dog faeces, on vegetables, or from handling dogs
- Man does not transmit the infection, which is why human hydatid disease is epidemiologically a veterinary problem
- Sites — liver in about 60 to 70% (chiefly the right lobe, the first capillary bed encountered), lung in 20 to 25% (the second filter), and then spleen, kidney, bone, brain and heart
- Structure of the cyst — three layers: the pericyst (compressed fibrous host tissue), the ectocyst (an acellular laminated membrane, characteristic and diagnostic), and the endocyst (the germinal layer, the only living part, which produces brood capsules)
- Hydatid sand — the sediment of protoscolices and hooklets liberated into the cyst fluid; brood capsules and daughter cysts form within it
- Clinical features — cysts grow slowly over years and are often asymptomatic, discovered incidentally. Symptoms arise from pressure, from secondary bacterial infection, or from rupture, which causes anaphylaxis and seeding of daughter cysts throughout the cavity
- Echinococcus multilocularis causes alveolar echinococcosis, in which the larva grows invasively like a malignancy without a limiting cyst wall; the fox is the definitive host and the prognosis is far worse
CLINICAL PEARL
Never aspirate an undiagnosed cystic liver lesion in an endemic area. Puncturing a hydatid cyst can cause fatal anaphylaxis from released antigen and disseminates protoscolices, seeding daughter cysts throughout the peritoneum — converting a curable single lesion into incurable disseminated disease. Imaging and serology come first. Where drainage is needed it is done as the pair procedure, under antihelminthic cover with a scolicidal agent instilled.
Cysticercosis Compared with Hydatid Disease
| Feature | Cysticercosis | Hydatid disease |
|---|---|---|
| Parasite (larval stage of) | Taenia solium | Echinococcus granulosus |
| Definitive host | Man | Dog |
| Source of infection | Human faeces — eggs from a tapeworm carrier; not from eating pork | Dog faeces — eggs on vegetables or from handling dogs |
| Chief site | Brain, muscle, eye | Liver (right lobe), then lung |
| Size and number | Small (about 1 cm) and usually multiple | Large (often many centimetres) and usually solitary |
| Cyst wall | Thin, with a mural scolex | Three layers, with a characteristic acellular laminated membrane |
| Aspiration | Not usually relevant | Dangerous — anaphylaxis and seeding; done only as pair under cover |
| Treatment | Albendazole with steroids and antiepileptics; many need no anthelminthic at all | Albendazole; pair or surgery for large cysts |
| Prevention | Sanitation; treating the tapeworm carrier; cooking pork | Deworming dogs; denying dogs raw offal |
Hydatid Disease — Diagnosis and Treatment
- Imaging is the mainstay — ultrasound shows the double-layered wall, daughter cysts giving a "water lily" sign when the membrane detaches, septations and hydatid sand; the WHO ultrasound classification (CE1 to CE5) guides management. CT and MRI define anatomy and detect extrahepatic cysts
- Serology — ELISA and indirect haemagglutination, with immunoblot for the Arc-5 antigen. Sensitivity is good for hepatic cysts but poorer for pulmonary and calcified cysts, and a negative result does not exclude the diagnosis
- The CASONI intradermal test is obsolete — poorly standardised, insensitive and non-specific, and it may itself sensitise; it should be mentioned as history rather than practice
- Eosinophilia in about a quarter, and greater after leakage; demonstration of protoscolices, hooklets or laminated membrane in sputum or a surgical specimen is definitive
- Treatment — small, inactive or calcified cysts may simply be observed; albendazole alone for small cysts and always as cover for intervention; pair (Puncture, Aspiration, Injection of a scolicidal agent, Re-aspiration) under albendazole cover for suitable cysts; and surgery (pericystectomy or, where necessary, resection) for large, complicated or superficial cysts
- Surgical precautions — the field is packed with hypertonic saline-soaked swabs and a scolicidal agent is instilled before opening, to prevent spillage and secondary hydatidosis; anaphylaxis must be anticipated
- Prevention — deworming of dogs, preventing dogs from eating raw offal from slaughtered sheep (which is the step that breaks the cycle), safe disposal of carcasses, meat inspection, handwashing after handling dogs, and washing vegetables. Hydatid disease is common in the sheep-rearing regions of India, particularly Jammu and Kashmir, Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu
- Examine the fundus before treating neurocysticercosis; an intraocular cyst killed by albendazole can destroy the eye, and this step is easily forgotten in a patient presenting with seizures
- Most calcified lesions need no anthelminthic — the parasite is dead, and treatment is directed at seizure control alone
- Distinguish a cysticercus from a tuberculoma on size, wall thickness, oedema and the presence of a scolex; in India both are common and the treatments differ entirely
- Trace and treat the tapeworm carrier whenever cysticercosis is diagnosed, since the source is usually a household member or food handler and further cases are otherwise inevitable
- Hydatid cysts grow over years, so an incidental small inactive cyst may reasonably be watched rather than operated on, guided by the WHO ultrasound stage
- A vegetarian can get cysticercosis but not taeniasis — the eggs come from human faeces and the worm from pork, and stating this clearly prevents a great deal of confusion in counselling
- Anticipate anaphylaxis during hydatid surgery; the field is packed and a scolicidal agent instilled precisely because spillage is both immediately and permanently dangerous
- Serology may be negative in pulmonary and calcified hydatid cysts, so a negative result never excludes the diagnosis where the imaging is characteristic
- Symptoms come from the dying cyst, so many cysticerci are incidental and need only observation; treating every lesion found on imaging causes harm
Ascaris Lumbricoides
- The largest intestinal nematode — the female is 20 to 35 cm long — and the commonest helminth infection worldwide, with a very large burden in India
- Transmission — ingestion of embryonated eggs from soil-contaminated food, water or hands. Eggs require 2 to 4 weeks in soil to embryonate, so freshly passed eggs are not infective and direct person-to-person spread does not occur
- The eggs are remarkably resistant, surviving in soil for years and withstanding disinfectants; the fertilised egg has a thick mamillated albuminous coat
Embryonated eggs are ingested and hatch in the small intestine → Larvae penetrate the intestinal wall and enter the portal circulation → They pass through the liver, the right heart, and reach the lungs → They break into the alveoli, causing loeffler syndrome — a transient pneumonitis with cough, wheeze, fleeting radiographic shadows and marked eosinophilia → They migrate up the bronchi and trachea, are swallowed, and return to the small intestine → They mature into adults in about 2 to 3 months and live for 1 to 2 years → The female lays up to 200,000 eggs per day, passed in the faeces
- Most infections are asymptomatic; heavy burdens cause abdominal pain, malabsorption, protein-energy malnutrition and growth retardation in children, and impaired cognitive development
- Complications reflect the size and the mobility of the worm — intestinal obstruction by a bolus of worms (a classical cause of obstruction in Indian children); migration into the biliary tree causing biliary colic, cholangitis and pancreatitis; appendicitis; intestinal perforation; and emergence from the mouth, nose or anus, which is how many patients present
- Migration is provoked by fever, anaesthesia and some anthelminthics, so obstruction may follow treatment
- Diagnosis — eggs in stool, which are abundant; adult worms passed or seen on imaging (a linear filling defect with a central "double tramline" of the worm's own gut on ultrasound is characteristic); eosinophilia during migration but not during the intestinal phase
- Treatment — albendazole or mebendazole single dose; pyrantel pamoate. Obstruction is usually managed conservatively first, with anthelminthics given after decompression
Hookworm
- Two species — ancylostoma duodenale (the Old World hookworm, predominant in northern India) and necator americanus (predominant in southern India). Ancylostoma has cutting teeth and Necator has cutting plates
- Infection is percutaneous — filariform (L3) larvae in warm moist shaded soil penetrate the skin of the bare foot, causing "ground itch". A. Duodenale can also infect by ingestion and through breast milk
- Migration — skin, blood, lungs, alveoli, up the bronchi, swallowed, and thence to the duodenum — the same route as Ascaris
- The clinical problem IS iron deficiency anaemia. The adult worm attaches to the mucosa and sucks blood, secreting anticoagulant; blood is lost from the worm itself and from the bleeding site after it moves on. A. Duodenale takes about 0.15 mL and N. Americanus about 0.03 mL per worm per day, so Ancylostoma causes anaemia with a much smaller burden
- Hookworm is a leading cause of iron deficiency anaemia in India, particularly in women and children, with consequent effects on pregnancy outcome and child development; heavy chronic infection also causes hypoproteinaemia with oedema
- Diagnosis — characteristic oval, thin-shelled eggs with a clear space around a segmented ovum; the eggs of the two species are indistinguishable, and species identification requires larval culture. If the stool is left standing the eggs hatch, so a delayed specimen shows larvae and may be confused with Strongyloides
- Treatment — albendazole or mebendazole, together with iron replacement, which is as important as the anthelminthic
CLINICAL PEARL
Deworming a hookworm patient without giving iron treats the parasite and leaves the disease. The worms are cleared in a day; the iron deficit accumulated over years takes months of replacement to correct. In an anaemic child or pregnant woman the anaemia is what causes the harm — the growth failure, the poor birth outcome, the fatigue — so albendazole and iron go together, and this is exactly how India’s anaemia and deworming programmes are designed.
Trichuris and Strongyloides
| Parasite | Features |
|---|---|
| trichuris trichiura (whipworm) | A whip-shaped worm with a thin anterior threaded into the mucosa and a thick posterior; lives in the caecum and colon. Infection is by ingesting embryonated eggs, which are barrel-shaped with a mucus plug at each pole — unmistakable on microscopy. There is NO lung migration. Heavy infection causes trichuris dysentery syndrome with chronic bloody diarrhoea, growth failure, finger clubbing and rectal prolapse in children, with worms visible on the prolapsed mucosa. Mebendazole is more effective than albendazole against it |
| strongyloides stercoralis | Unique among the intestinal nematodes in undergoing autoinfection, so infection persists for decades without further exposure — it has been found in prisoners of war 40 years after exposure. Infection is percutaneous; only the female is parasitic, reproducing by parthenogenesis. Diagnosis rests on finding rhabditiform larvae (not eggs) in stool, which is insensitive, so serology, agar plate culture or repeated specimens are needed |
- Strongyloides hyperinfection and dissemination is the reason this parasite matters disproportionately. corticosteroids (and HTLV-1 infection, transplantation and malignancy) suppress the response that limits autoinfection, allowing massive larval multiplication and spread to lung, liver and brain, with gram-negative sepsis and meningitis as the larvae carry gut bacteria with them. Mortality approaches 80%
- Eosinophilia is characteristically absent in hyperinfection, because the steroids that caused it also suppress the eosinophil response — so its absence is falsely reassuring
- Larva currens — a rapidly migrating serpiginous urticarial rash around the buttocks and trunk, moving several centimetres per hour, which is pathognomonic of autoinfection
- Screen and treat before immunosuppression — anyone from an endemic area who is to receive corticosteroids, chemotherapy or a transplant should be screened serologically or given empirical ivermectin, which is the drug of choice
Comparison of the Intestinal Nematodes
| Feature | Ascaris | Hookworm | Trichuris | Strongyloides |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| Route of entry | Ingested egg | Skin penetration | Ingested egg | Skin penetration |
| Lung migration | Yes | Yes | NO | Yes |
| Site of adult | Jejunum, free in the lumen | Duodenum, attached to mucosa | Caecum and colon | Duodenal mucosa |
| Found in stool | Eggs (abundant) | Eggs | Eggs | Larvae — not eggs |
| Autoinfection | No | No | No | Yes — infection persists for decades |
| Chief morbidity | Malnutrition; obstruction | Iron deficiency anaemia | Dysentery, rectal prolapse | Hyperinfection with steroids — often fatal |
| Preferred drug | Albendazole | Albendazole plus iron | Mebendazole (more effective than albendazole) | Ivermectin |
Applied Aspects
- Give iron with the anthelminthic in hookworm anaemia; the worm is the cause but the iron deficit is the disease
- Ask about steroids before treating, and treat before giving steroids, wherever Strongyloides is possible; steroid-precipitated hyperinfection is usually fatal and entirely preventable
- Do not rely on eosinophilia to exclude helminth infection in an immunosuppressed patient, since immunosuppression abolishes it
- Footwear prevents hookworm and strongyloidiasis, and sanitation prevents both these and Ascaris and Trichuris; these are the interventions that produce lasting change, deworming being a holding measure
- Consider ascariasis in a child with intestinal obstruction in an endemic area, and in biliary colic or pancreatitis with no gallstones
- Examine the stool promptly; hookworm eggs hatch on standing and the resulting larvae may be misreported as Strongyloides, which has entirely different implications
- Mebendazole is preferred for Trichuris and albendazole for the others, which is worth knowing when a child with rectal prolapse fails to respond
- Larva currens is pathognomonic of strongyloidiasis — a track advancing centimetres per hour around the buttocks — and indicates active autoinfection requiring ivermectin
- Loeffler syndrome resolves without treatment, and anthelminthics during the migratory phase are ineffective since the worms are not yet in the gut
- Rectal prolapse in an Indian child should prompt a stool examination; heavy whipworm infection is a classical and readily treatable cause
- Deworming improves growth and school performance measurably in heavily infected children, which is the justification for treating whole populations rather than individuals
- Ivermectin, not albendazole, is the drug for Strongyloides, and getting this wrong in a patient about to receive steroids can be fatal
- Ascaris migrates when provoked by fever, anaesthesia or certain drugs, so obstruction and biliary migration may follow treatment and the worms are best cleared before elective surgery
- Repeated infection is the norm in an endemic setting, and cure of the individual is temporary without sanitation — which is why programmes are periodic and why footwear and toilets are the durable answer
- Eosinophilia appears during migration and disappears once the adults settle in the lumen, so its timing is informative and its absence in established infection is expected
- Hookworm anaemia depends on species and burden — Ancylostoma takes five times as much blood per worm as Necator, so it causes anaemia with a far smaller worm load
- Screen before transplantation and chemotherapy in anyone from an endemic area; empirical ivermectin is cheap insurance against a hyperinfection that kills most of those who develop it
- Ascaris eggs need weeks in soil before becoming infective, so a patient is not infectious to household contacts — a reassurance worth giving explicitly
- Ground itch and a cough weeks later in a barefoot agricultural worker is the classical hookworm history, and the anaemia follows months afterwards
The Parasites and Their Vectors
| Parasite | Vector | Disease and distribution |
|---|---|---|
| wuchereria bancrofti | CULEX quinquefasciatus, which breeds in dirty stagnant water, drains and cesspits — hence its association with poor urban sanitation | Lymphatic filariasis; over 95% of Indian cases. Endemic across Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Jharkhand, Odisha, Andhra Pradesh, Tamil Nadu and West Bengal |
| BRUGIA malayi | Mansonia, which breeds in ponds with aquatic vegetation such as Pistia | Lymphatic filariasis, chiefly below the knee; Kerala, Tamil Nadu and coastal areas |
| onchocerca volvulus | Blackfly (Simulium), breeding in fast-flowing rivers | "river blindness" — subcutaneous nodules, severe itching and keratitis; Africa, not India |
| Loa loa | Deer fly (Chrysops) | Calabar swellings; the adult worm visibly crosses the conjunctiva; West Africa |
| Dracunculus medinensis | Cyclops in water | Guinea worm — eradicated from India in 2000 |
- Man is the only definitive host of W. Bancrofti, and there is no animal reservoir — which is exactly what makes elimination feasible
- Nocturnal periodicity — microfilariae appear in the peripheral blood between about 10 pm and 2 am and are sequestered in the pulmonary capillaries by day. This coincides with the biting habit of Culex, and it dictates that blood for microfilariae must be collected at night — a major practical constraint on surveys
- The adult worms live in the lymphatics, particularly the lower limb, inguinal and scrotal vessels, for 5 to 10 years, releasing microfilariae into the blood
- wolbachia, an endosymbiotic bacterium within the worm, is essential to its fertility and survival, and contributes to the inflammatory response. This is why doxycycline — an antibiotic — is an effective antifilarial, killing the symbiont and sterilising the adult worm
CLINICAL PEARL
An antibiotic kills a worm because the worm cannot live without its bacterium. Wolbachia lives inside the filarial worm and is required for its fertility and long-term survival. A course of doxycycline therefore sterilises and eventually kills the adult worm — something no conventional antifilarial does well — and does so gradually, avoiding the violent reaction that follows rapid microfilarial death.
Clinical Features
| Stage | Features |
|---|---|
| Asymptomatic microfilaraemia | The commonest state by far. The person is well but is the reservoir that infects mosquitoes. Subclinical lymphatic damage is already present and demonstrable by lymphoscintigraphy |
| Acute adenolymphangitis (ADL) | Recurrent episodes of fever with painful lymphadenitis and retrograde lymphangitis — spreading down the limb from the node, unlike bacterial lymphangitis which spreads UP. Funiculitis, epididymo-orchitis and orchitis. Most acute episodes are in fact precipitated by secondary bacterial infection of damaged skin |
| Chronic obstructive disease | Develops after years: lymphoedema progressing to elephantiasis of the leg, scrotum, arm or breast; hydrocele, which is the commonest chronic manifestation of W. Bancrofti; chyluria from rupture of lymphatics into the urinary tract; and lymph scrotum |
| Tropical pulmonary eosinophilia (TPE) | A hypersensitivity response to microfilariae trapped in the lungs. Nocturnal cough and wheeze mimicking asthma, with massive eosinophilia (often above 3,000/mm3), very high IgE and filarial antibody, and miliary mottling on the chest radiograph. Microfilariae are absent from the blood, because they are all being destroyed in the lung. It responds dramatically to diethylcarbamazine, which is diagnostic in itself |
- Elephantiasis is caused by the host response, not by the worm obstructing the vessel — repeated inflammation, lymphangiectasia, incompetent valves and secondary bacterial infection produce progressive fibrosis. This is why killing the worms does not reverse established elephantiasis, and why management of the chronic stage is hygiene and physiotherapy rather than drugs
Laboratory Diagnosis
- Blood film for microfilariae, taken at night; a thick film stained with Giemsa. Distinguishing the species depends on the sheath and the arrangement of nuclei in the tail: W. Bancrofti is sheathed with NO nuclei in the tail tip, whereas B. Malayi is sheathed with two separate terminal nuclei
- Concentration methods — the KNOTT technique (centrifugation in 2% formalin) and membrane filtration, both far more sensitive than a direct film
- DEC provocation test — a small daytime dose of diethylcarbamazine draws microfilariae into the peripheral blood within an hour, allowing a daytime specimen
- Circulating filarial antigen (ICT card test, Og4C3) — detects adult worm antigen, is positive whether or not microfilariae are present, and can be done at any time of day. It has replaced night blood surveys in the elimination programme and is the most important practical advance
- Ultrasound — the "filarial dance sign", the characteristic writhing movement of live adult worms within a dilated scrotal lymphatic, which is diagnostic and allows treatment to be monitored
- Other — PCR; lymphoscintigraphy; eosinophilia and raised IgE; demonstration of microfilariae in hydrocele fluid, chylous urine or a node aspirate
Differentiating the Microfilariae
| Feature | W. Bancrofti | B. Malayi | Onchocerca |
|---|---|---|---|
| Sheath | Present | Present, staining pink with Giemsa | Absent |
| Nuclei in the tail tip | Absent — the tail tip is free of nuclei | Two distinct terminal nuclei, separated from the rest | Absent |
| Body curve | Graceful, sweeping curves | Kinked, with secondary crinkles | Sharply bent tail |
| Periodicity | Nocturnal | Nocturnal (a subperiodic form exists) | None — found in skin snips, not blood |
| Vector | Culex | Mansonia | Simulium blackfly |
| Site of adult | Lymphatics | Lymphatics | Subcutaneous nodules (onchocercomas) |
Treatment, Control and Applied Aspects
- Diethylcarbamazine (DEC) is the mainstay in India, killing microfilariae rapidly and adults partially; ivermectin is microfilaricidal; albendazole is added for its effect on adults; and doxycycline for 4 to 6 weeks kills Wolbachia and with it the adult worm
- Rapid microfilarial death provokes a reaction — the mazzotti reaction with fever, headache, itching and lymphadenitis; it is managed with antihistamines and analgesics and is not an allergy to the drug
- DEC is contraindicated where onchocerciasis or loiasis may coexist, because rapid microfilarial death causes blindness in the former and fatal encephalopathy in the latter — which is why African programmes use ivermectin instead
- Mass drug administration (MDA) — annual single-dose DEC plus albendazole to the entire population at risk, for at least 5 years, aiming to suppress microfilaraemia below the level that sustains transmission. This is the core of India's National Filaria Elimination Programme, together with DEC-fortified salt in some areas
- Morbidity management is the other half of the programme, and it is what helps those already affected: washing the limb daily with soap and water, careful skin and nail care, treating entry lesions and fungal infection, elevation, exercise and compression — all of which reduce acute attacks substantially, because most attacks are bacterial. Hydrocelectomy is offered surgically
- Vector control — improving drainage and sanitation to deny Culex its breeding sites, and removing aquatic weed for Mansonia; personal protection with nets and repellents
- Elimination is achievable because man is the only host, an effective single-dose regimen exists, and a field antigen test allows mapping; India has made substantial progress and many districts have stopped mass drug administration after passing transmission assessment surveys
- Limb hygiene reduces acute attacks more than any drug, because most acute episodes are bacterial infections of damaged skin rather than filarial activity — and washing with soap and water costs nothing
- Killing the worms does not reverse elephantiasis; patients must be told this honestly, and offered morbidity management rather than repeated courses of DEC
- The antigen test can be done by day, which removed the single greatest practical obstacle to filariasis surveys and made mapping feasible at scale
- Consider tropical pulmonary eosinophilia in nocturnal asthma with a very high eosinophil count and no microfilariae; the response to DEC is dramatic and confirms the diagnosis
- Hydrocele is the commonest chronic manifestation in India and is surgically curable, so filariasis programmes include hydrocelectomy alongside drug distribution
- Retrograde lymphangitis distinguishes filarial from bacterial lymphangitis — the filarial streak spreads down the limb from the node, the bacterial one spreads UP toward it
- DEC must not be used where onchocerciasis or loiasis is possible, which matters for Indians returning from work in Africa; ivermectin is used instead
- Collect night blood or use the antigen card; a daytime blood film for microfilariae is a wasted specimen unless the DEC provocation test is used
- The filarial dance sign on scrotal ultrasound shows living adult worms and is both diagnostic and a way of confirming that treatment has worked
- Doxycycline works by killing the worm’s bacterial symbiont, and is the only widely available agent that reliably kills adult worms — slowly enough to avoid a severe reaction
- Asymptomatic microfilaraemic people are the reservoir, which is why mass drug administration treats everyone rather than only those with symptoms
- The Mazzotti reaction is not a drug allergy but the response to dying microfilariae; it is managed symptomatically and does not contraindicate future treatment
- Culex breeds in dirty stagnant water, so filariasis control is a sanitation and drainage problem as much as a drug problem
- Five annual rounds of mass drug administration with adequate coverage are needed before transmission assessment surveys can be attempted, so programme continuity matters more than intensity in any single year
General Features of the Trematodes
- Flukes are leaf-shaped, unsegmented flatworms with an oral and a ventral SUCKER, and a blind-ending gut with no anus
- All are hermaphrodite except the schistosomes, which have separate sexes, the slender female lying permanently in the gynaecophoric canal of the stouter male
- All trematodes require a snail as the first intermediate host, which is why their distribution is determined entirely by the distribution of particular snails — and why snail control is a central control measure
- The larval sequence is egg → miracidium → sporocyst → redia → cercaria (released from the snail) → metacercaria (the encysted infective stage on vegetation or in a second intermediate host)
- The mode of human infection divides the group cleanly — the schistosomes penetrate the skin as free-swimming cercariae, whereas all the others are ingested as metacercariae on water plants, or in fish or crustaceans
| Fluke | Second intermediate host / source | Site in man and disease |
|---|---|---|
| schistosoma | None — cercariae penetrate the skin directly from fresh water | Blood vessels — mesenteric or vesical; see below |
| fasciola hepatica (sheep liver fluke) | Metacercariae on watercress and aquatic plants | Bile ducts — a painful acute migratory hepatitis phase with fever and marked eosinophilia, then biliary obstruction. Responds to triclabendazole, not to praziquantel — the one important exception |
| clonorchis sinensis and Opisthorchis | Raw or undercooked freshwater fish | Bile ducts — cholangitis, biliary stones, and a strong causal link with cholangiocarcinoma (a WHO Group 1 carcinogen) |
| fasciolopsis buski | Metacercariae on water chestnut and water caltrop | The largest human fluke (up to 7 cm); small intestine — diarrhoea, malabsorption and obstruction. Endemic in ASSAM, Bihar and West Bengal |
| paragonimus westermani (lung fluke) | Raw or pickled freshwater crabs and crayfish | Lung — chronic cough with rusty-brown or blood-stained sputum, closely mimicking pulmonary tuberculosis. Endemic in Manipur, Nagaland and Arunachal Pradesh, where it is regularly misdiagnosed and treated as tuberculosis. Eggs are found in sputum and in swallowed stool |
| Heterophyids | Raw fish | Small intestine; eggs may embolise to heart and brain |
CLINICAL PEARL
A patient in Manipur with chronic cough and blood-stained sputum who does not respond to antitubercular treatment may have a lung fluke. Paragonimus produces exactly the tuberculous picture — chronic cough, haemoptysis, cavitary shadows, weight loss — and is acquired from the raw and pickled crab eaten in the north-east. The distinguishing findings are eosinophilia and operculated eggs in the sputum, and the treatment is praziquantel for a few days rather than six months of antitubercular drugs.
Schistosomiasis
| Species | Distribution and vein | Egg and disease |
|---|---|---|
| S. Haematobium | Africa and the Middle East; vesical plexus around the bladder | Terminal spine. Causes haematuria (classically terminal), bladder fibrosis, obstructive uropathy, and squamous cell carcinoma of the bladder — a Group 1 carcinogen. Eggs are found in urine, in a midday terminal specimen |
| S. Mansoni | Africa, South America, Caribbean; inferior mesenteric vein | Lateral spine. Intestinal disease and, characteristically, periportal "pipe-stem" fibrosis with portal hypertension, splenomegaly and variceal bleeding but preserved liver function — a presinusoidal block |
| S. Japonicum | China, Philippines; superior mesenteric vein; a zoonosis with animal reservoirs, which makes elimination far harder | Small lateral knob. The most prolific egg-layer and the most severe; hepatic and cerebral disease |
| India | Schistosomiasis is not endemic in India apart from a small focus of S. Nasale-type infection reported from Ratnagiri, Maharashtra; cases are seen in returning travellers and migrant workers | — |
- The pathology is caused by the eggs, not the worms. The adult flukes are coated with host antigen and provoke little response; but eggs trapped in tissue induce a granulomatous, T-cell mediated reaction followed by fibrosis, which is what produces every chronic manifestation
- Clinical stages — swimmer's itch at cercarial penetration; katayama fever 4 to 8 weeks later, an acute serum-sickness reaction as egg-laying begins, with fever, urticaria, hepatosplenomegaly and marked eosinophilia; then chronic organ disease over years
- Diagnosis — eggs in urine (S. Haematobium, midday terminal specimen) or stool; rectal or bladder biopsy showing eggs; serology (useful in travellers but not in an endemic population); circulating antigen assays; and PCR
- Treatment is praziquantel, which is effective against all species; corticosteroids are added in Katayama fever and in cerebral or spinal disease
- Control — mass treatment with praziquantel, snail control, safe water supply and sanitation, and health education against urinating and defaecating in water
Diagnosis and Treatment of the Trematodes
- Most fluke eggs are operculated — they have a lid at one end — which distinguishes them at a glance from nematode and cestode eggs. The schistosomes are the exception, having a spine instead
- The specimen depends on the fluke — stool for the intestinal and liver flukes, urine for S. Haematobium, and sputum (and stool, from swallowed sputum) for Paragonimus; requesting the wrong one accounts for many missed diagnoses
- Eosinophilia is prominent, particularly during the migratory phase, and is often the finding that prompts the search
- Praziquantel treats almost all trematodes — with the important exception of fasciola, which requires triclabendazole
Larval Stages of the Trematodes
Egg passed in faeces, urine or sputum reaches fresh water → The miracidium hatches — a ciliated free-swimming larva that must find a snail within hours or die → It penetrates the snail and becomes a sporocyst → The sporocyst produces REDIAE (absent in the schistosomes, which produce daughter sporocysts instead) → These produce large numbers of cercariae — so one miracidium yields thousands of cercariae, which is the asexual multiplication that compensates for the improbability of finding a snail → Cercariae leave the snail. In the schistosomes they are fork-tailed and penetrate human skin directly → In all others they encyst as metacercariae on water plants or in a second intermediate host — fish, crab or crayfish — and are ingested
Applied Aspects
- Consider paragonimiasis in "sputum-negative tuberculosis" in the north-east, especially with eosinophilia and a history of eating raw or pickled crab; the treatment is short and effective
- Ask for eggs in the right specimen; a routine stool examination will not find S. Haematobium or Paragonimus
- Take a travel and residence history in unexplained haematuria or portal hypertension; schistosomiasis is not endemic in India but is common among Indians who have worked in Africa and the Gulf
- Praziquantel is the answer for almost every fluke, but not for Fasciola — an exception worth remembering, since the drug is otherwise so uniformly effective
- Fluke infections are strongly linked to cancer — Clonorchis and Opisthorchis with cholangiocarcinoma, S. Haematobium with squamous bladder carcinoma; treating the infection is therefore cancer prevention
- Food habits drive the epidemiology, so control is dietary and cultural as much as pharmacological — cooking fish, crab and water plants breaks every one of these cycles
- The snail is the obligatory first host of every trematode, so snail control and avoidance of snail-infested water interrupt the whole class
- Asexual multiplication in the snail is why a single egg matters — one miracidium yields thousands of cercariae, so even light faecal contamination of water sustains transmission
- Katayama fever is a hypersensitivity reaction to the onset of egg-laying, not to the worms themselves, and it responds to corticosteroids alongside praziquantel
- Terminal-spined eggs go with urine and lateral-spined with stool, which is the practical rule for requesting the right specimen in schistosomiasis
- Fascioliasis is the exception to praziquantel, and a patient with biliary flukes who fails to respond should be reconsidered for triclabendazole
- Schistosome eggs cause the disease, not the worms, which is why the pathology is granulomatous and fibrotic and why it continues long after the worms are killed
- Pipe-stem fibrosis gives portal hypertension with preserved liver function, so a patient may bleed from varices while their synthetic function remains normal — a presinusoidal block, unlike cirrhosis
- Liver flukes are Group 1 carcinogens, so treating Clonorchis and Opisthorchis infection is a cancer-prevention measure as much as a symptomatic one
- Fasciolopsiasis is endemic in Assam, Bihar and West Bengal, acquired from raw water chestnut, and is a genuine Indian problem rather than a textbook curiosity
- Look for operculated eggs to recognise a fluke at a glance; the schistosomes, with their spines instead, are the only exception
- Schistosomes are the only trematodes with separate sexes and the only ones that penetrate skin rather than being eaten — two exceptions that go together and are worth remembering as a pair
- Cercarial dermatitis ("swimmer’s itch") may be caused by avian schistosomes that cannot mature in man, producing an itchy rash without any subsequent infection
- Praziquantel is remarkably safe and single-dose, which is what makes mass treatment of schistosomiasis feasible in the way that mass deworming is
- Snail control alone rarely succeeds; it works in combination with mass treatment, sanitation and safe water, as with most parasitic control programmes
- Ask where a patient has worked; schistosomiasis in an Indian patient is almost always imported, and haematuria in a returning migrant worker should raise it
- Bladder cancer from S. Haematobium is squamous, not transitional, which is a useful pointer when the histology is unexpected
- Cooking is the single intervention that prevents most fluke infection, since all except the schistosomes are acquired by eating an infective stage
The Parasite and its Transmission
- Enterobius vermicularis (pinworm, threadworm) is a small white nematode — the female about 10 mm and the male 3 mm — living in the caecum, appendix and adjacent colon
- It is the commonest helminth infection in temperate countries and is very common in Indian children, particularly in crowded households, schools and institutions. It is not related to poor sanitation in the way the soil-transmitted helminths are, and occurs in every social class
- The gravid female migrates out of the anus at night and deposits thousands of eggs on the perianal skin, then dies. The eggs become infective within about 6 hours — far faster than any other helminth egg
- Modes of transmission — autoinfection by scratching the perianal area and transferring eggs to the mouth on fingers and under nails, which is why infection persists indefinitely in one child; direct person-to-person spread; and inhalation or ingestion of eggs from bedding, clothing and household dust, where they remain viable for up to 2 to 3 weeks. retroinfection, in which larvae hatch on the perianal skin and migrate back into the anus, also occurs
- The egg is characteristic — oval and PLANO-convex (flattened on one side), thin-shelled and containing a coiled larva
CLINICAL PEARL
Pinworm is a household infection, not a patient’s infection. Eggs become infective within hours, survive for weeks in bedding and dust, and pass readily between family members — so treating one child while leaving the rest untreated guarantees reinfection within weeks. The correct approach is to treat the entire household simultaneously, repeat at 2 weeks to catch newly matured worms, and wash all bedding and nightclothes on the same day.
Clinical Features and Diagnosis
- Perianal pruritus, worst at night, is the cardinal symptom, caused by the migrating female and the local reaction to eggs. It leads to scratching, excoriation, secondary bacterial infection, disturbed sleep, irritability and restlessness in a child
- Vulvovaginitis and dysuria in girls, from worms migrating forward into the genital tract; enuresis
- Uncommon complications — appendicitis (worms are frequently found in appendicectomy specimens, though a causal role is debated), and ectopic granulomas in the peritoneum, fallopian tube or elsewhere
- Most infections are asymptomatic, and eosinophilia is absent, since the worm does not invade tissue
- Diagnosis is by the cellophane tape (Graham) test — clear adhesive tape is pressed against the perianal skin first thing IN the morning, before washing or defaecation, then mounted on a slide and examined for eggs. Three consecutive morning specimens detect about 90% of infections
- Stool examination is useless — eggs are deposited on the perianal skin, not passed in faeces, and are found in fewer than 5% of stool specimens. This is the single most important practical point, and a request for "stool for ova and parasites" will miss the diagnosis
- Adult worms may be seen on the perianal skin at night or on the surface of stool, and are what parents commonly describe
Treatment and Applied Aspects
- Albendazole, mebendazole or pyrantel pamoate as a single dose, repeated after 2 weeks to kill worms that have matured from eggs ingested since — because the drugs do not act on the eggs
- Treat the whole household at the same time, symptomatic or not; this is what determines success
- Hygiene measures on the day of treatment — wash all bedclothes, nightwear and towels; damp-dust rather than sweeping, which raises eggs into the air; cut the child's nails short; discourage nail-biting and thumb-sucking; morning bathing or showering to remove eggs deposited overnight; and handwashing before meals and after using the toilet
- Close-fitting nightwear reduces contamination of the hands and bedding during sleep
- Reassure the family; pinworm is harmless, extremely common, and carries no implication of neglect — parents frequently feel blamed, which matters when their cooperation with household measures is what determines the outcome
- Consider it in an irritable child sleeping badly, and in a girl with recurrent vulvovaginitis; both presentations are commonly investigated at length before anyone applies a piece of tape
- Do not send a stool sample; it will be negative in over 95% of infections and its negativity is then wrongly taken to exclude the diagnosis
- Repeat the dose at 2 weeks in every case; the drugs are not ovicidal, and a single dose leaves the eggs already swallowed to mature
- Damp-dust rather than sweep on the day of treatment, since sweeping raises eggs into the air where they can be inhaled
- Pinworm is harmless but genuinely distressing, and the sleeplessness and irritability it causes in a child are reason enough to treat it properly rather than dismissively
Cutaneous Larva Migrans
Cutaneous larva migrans ("creeping eruption") is a self-limiting dermatosis caused by the larvae of animal hookworms — chiefly Ancylostoma braziliense and A. Caninum of dogs and cats — which penetrate human skin but cannot complete their life cycle in man.
- Man is a dead-end host. The larva lacks the collagenase needed to penetrate the human basement membrane, so it is trapped in the epidermis and wanders aimlessly until it dies after weeks to months
- Acquired by skin contact with soil or sand contaminated by dog or cat faeces — classically on beaches, and on the feet, buttocks and back of those who sit or lie on contaminated ground
- Clinical features — an intensely itchy, serpiginous, raised, erythematous track advancing a few millimetres to a couple of centimetres per day, with vesiculation and secondary bacterial infection from scratching. The itch is often severe enough to prevent sleep
- The diagnosis is clinical; biopsy is unhelpful because the larva lies ahead of the visible track and is usually missed
- Treatment — ivermectin as a single dose, or albendazole for 3 days; topical thiabendazole for limited lesions. It is self-limiting but treatment relieves severe symptoms promptly
- Prevention — footwear, avoiding sitting directly on damp sand or soil, using a mat or towel, deworming pets and excluding dogs from beaches and playgrounds
CLINICAL PEARL
The larva you can see is not where the larva is. The visible track is the inflammatory reaction left behind; the living larva lies 1 to 2 cm ahead of the advancing end. This is why biopsy and cryotherapy aimed at the visible lesion fail, and why freezing the track — still occasionally attempted — damages the skin while leaving the parasite untouched.
Visceral Larva Migrans (toxocariasis)
- Caused by toxocara canis (dog) and T. Cati (cat), whose eggs are ingested from soil contaminated with animal faeces. Again man is an accidental dead-end host
- Affects young children with pica, and those in close contact with puppies; playgrounds and sandpits are a recognised source, and eggs survive in soil for years
- The larvae hatch, penetrate the gut and migrate through the tissues — liver, lung, muscle, eye and brain — but cannot mature, so they wander and eventually die, provoking eosinophilic granulomas
- Visceral larva migrans — fever, hepatomegaly, cough and wheeze, with marked and persistent eosinophilia (often above 30%), leucocytosis and hypergammaglobulinaemia. It is a recognised cause of prolonged unexplained eosinophilia in a child
- Ocular larva migrans — a single larva reaching the eye produces a retinal granuloma, usually in an older child with little or no eosinophilia, causing unilateral visual loss, strabismus or leukocoria. It is characteristically mistaken for retinoblastoma, and has led to unnecessary enucleation
- Covert toxocariasis — non-specific abdominal pain, cough and wheeze with eosinophilia; and an association with asthma and with epilepsy
- Diagnosis — serology by ELISA for Toxocara excretory-secretory antigen, since the larva never matures and NO eggs are ever passed — so stool examination is always negative. Ocular disease may need aqueous or vitreous antibody
- Treatment — albendazole with corticosteroids to contain the inflammation caused by dying larvae; ocular disease is managed with steroids, laser and vitrectomy, since killing a larva in the eye is itself damaging
Other Migrating Larvae and Applied Aspects
| Condition | Parasite and features |
|---|---|
| Angiostrongyliasis | Angiostrongylus cantonensis, the rat lungworm, from raw snails, slugs and contaminated salad; the commonest cause of eosinophilic meningitis |
| Gnathostomiasis | From raw freshwater fish; migratory subcutaneous swellings and eosinophilic meningitis with a tendency to haemorrhage |
| Anisakiasis | From raw marine fish; acute abdominal pain with a gastric or intestinal granuloma, often mimicking appendicitis |
| Strongyloides — larva currens | A rapidly moving track advancing several centimetres per hour (far faster than cutaneous larva migrans), around the buttocks and trunk; indicates autoinfection |
| Cutaneous myiasis | Fly larvae in the skin — not a helminth, but a differential for a moving cutaneous lesion |
- Consider toxocariasis in a child with unexplained persistent eosinophilia, and ask about pica and about puppies; the stool will be negative and only serology will establish it
- Do not enucleate for suspected retinoblastoma without considering ocular toxocariasis; the distinction is made by serology, imaging and the clinical context, and the consequence of error is the loss of a healthy eye
- Deworm pets regularly, particularly puppies and kittens, which carry the heaviest burdens; and dispose of animal faeces properly
- Cover sandpits and exclude dogs from playgrounds; Toxocara eggs persist in soil for years and are the reason these measures exist
- The speed of the track distinguishes the two creeping eruptions — centimetres per day in cutaneous larva migrans, centimetres per hour in larva currens, and the latter demands treatment for Strongyloides
- These are all diseases of animal parasites in the wrong host, and the severity comes precisely from the larva being unable to complete its cycle — it wanders instead of settling, and the wandering is the disease
The Parasite and its Life Cycle
- Trichinella spiralis is a small nematode with a unique feature among human helminths: the same animal serves as both the definitive and the intermediate host, so the entire life cycle is completed in one host
- Transmission is by eating raw or undercooked meat containing encysted larvae — classically pork, and also wild boar, bear and horse meat
- It is a zoonosis maintained in a domestic cycle (pigs fed on uncooked scraps and offal, and rats) and a sylvatic cycle (wild carnivores). Man is a dead-end host, since human flesh is not eaten by pigs
- Trichinellosis is uncommon in India, partly because pork is less widely eaten and is usually well cooked, but outbreaks have been reported from the north-east and from communities that eat undercooked pork
Encysted larvae in undercooked meat are ingested → Gastric acid and pepsin digest the cyst wall, releasing larvae in the small intestine → Larvae mature into adult worms within about 2 days and burrow into the mucosa → The female is viviparous — it releases live larvae, not eggs, over several weeks → Larvae enter the lymphatics and blood and are carried throughout the body — the migratory phase → They can only develop further in striated skeletal muscle, which they penetrate → The muscle cell is transformed into a nurse cell supporting the coiled larva; the cyst calcifies over months to years → The cycle continues only if that muscle is eaten by another animal
Clinical Features
| Phase | Timing | Features |
|---|---|---|
| Intestinal (enteral) | First week | Nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain and diarrhoea as adults invade the mucosa; often mistaken for food poisoning or gastroenteritis |
| Migratory (parenteral) | Weeks 2 to 6 — the symptomatic phase | The classical triad of fever, periorbital and facial oedema, and myalgia. Also splinter haemorrhages, subconjunctival haemorrhage, urticarial rash and marked eosinophilia. Myalgia is worst in the most active muscles — diaphragm, masseters, tongue, extraocular and intercostal — so there may be difficulty in chewing, swallowing, breathing and eye movement |
| Severe complications | Weeks 3 to 6 | Myocarditis (the commonest cause of death), encephalitis, and pneumonitis — all caused by migrating larvae and the hypersensitivity response, not by encystment |
| Encystment (convalescent) | From about week 6 | Symptoms subside as larvae encyst; myalgia and weakness may persist for months. Calcified cysts remain visible on radiographs for life |
CLINICAL PEARL
Periorbital oedema with fever, myalgia and a very high eosinophil count is trichinellosis until proved otherwise. The combination is unusual and distinctive: nephrotic syndrome and angio-oedema give facial swelling but no eosinophilia or myositis; polymyositis gives myalgia but no oedema or eosinophilia. The question that settles it is what the patient ate 2 to 4 weeks ago, and whether anyone who shared the meal is also unwell — the illness is characteristically a family or group outbreak.
Diagnosis, Treatment and Applied Aspects
- Eosinophilia is marked, often 20 to 50%, appearing in the second week and peaking around the third to fourth; its absence in severe disease is a bad prognostic sign
- Raised muscle enzymes — creatine kinase, aldolase and lactate dehydrogenase, reflecting the myositis
- Serology by ELISA, which becomes positive from about the third week; a rising titre is confirmatory, but early serology is often negative, so a negative test in the first fortnight does not exclude the diagnosis
- Muscle biopsy from the deltoid or gastrocnemius, taken after week 3, showing encysted coiled larvae within nurse cells; it is definitive but is rarely needed and is invasive
- Examination of the suspect meat by trichinoscopy or digestion is often the fastest way to confirm an outbreak, and should be pursued
- Stool examination is useless — no eggs are produced, since the female is viviparous, and adults are present only briefly
- Treatment — albendazole or mebendazole, most effective in the intestinal phase before larvae have migrated; corticosteroids for severe disease, myocarditis and neurological involvement, to suppress the hypersensitivity reaction; and supportive care with analgesia and rest
- Prevention — thorough cooking of pork to at least 71°C throughout (curing, smoking and salting do not reliably kill larvae); freezing at −15°C for 3 weeks, which is effective for T. Spiralis but not for the freeze-resistant Arctic species; not feeding uncooked waste to pigs; rodent control; and meat inspection
- Investigate the group when a case is diagnosed — trichinellosis almost always occurs as a cluster, and identifying the shared meal allows early treatment of others still in the intestinal phase, when treatment works best
- Curing and smoking do not make pork safe; only adequate cooking throughout, or prolonged freezing, kills the larvae, and this is a common and dangerous misconception
- Treat early or not at all for the parasite — anthelminthics work on the adults in the gut, and by the time the patient is symptomatic the larvae are already in muscle, so steroids matter more than albendazole
- A normal stool examination means nothing here, since no eggs are ever produced; serology and the clinical picture carry the diagnosis
The Parasite and its Life Cycle
- Dracunculus medinensis, the guinea worm, is the longest nematode infecting man — the gravid female reaches 70 to 120 cm, though it is only 2 mm thick
- Transmission is by drinking water containing infected cyclops (a water flea), which is the intermediate host. This is the critical point: infection is acquired only by swallowing water, never by skin contact or from food
- The classical source is the step-well or pond that people enter to draw water — a design that allows an infected person to stand in the very water others will drink
Cyclops containing infective larvae are swallowed in drinking water → Gastric acid digests the cyclops, releasing larvae → Larvae penetrate the intestinal wall and migrate to the retroperitoneal and subcutaneous tissues, where they mate → The male dies; the gravid female migrates over about a year to the subcutaneous tissue of the lower limb, usually the foot or ankle → She induces a painful blister in the skin, which ulcerates → The burning pain drives the person to immerse the limb in water for relief → On contact with water the worm discharges hundreds of thousands of larvae → Larvae are ingested by cyclops, and the cycle is complete
CLINICAL PEARL
The worm makes the patient do exactly what the worm needs. It creates an ulcer that burns intolerably and is relieved only by cold water — so the sufferer wades into the pond, and the worm releases its larvae into the community water supply at the precise moment they can be taken up by cyclops. Break that single behaviour — by filtering water and keeping ulcers away from ponds — and the parasite has no route forward at all. That is why eradication required no drug and no vaccine.
Clinical Features and Management
- The infection is silent for about a year while the worm matures and migrates; there may be a prodrome of fever, urticaria, nausea and periorbital oedema as the female approaches the skin, from an allergic reaction to her secretions
- A painful blister forms, usually on the foot, ankle or leg (about 90% below the knee), and ruptures into an ulcer from which the white worm protrudes
- Complications — secondary bacterial infection, cellulitis, abscess, septic arthritis, tetanus (a significant cause of death), and permanent contractures and disability if a joint is involved
- The disability is the main burden — a person is incapacitated for weeks to months, and because the emergence coincides with the planting and harvesting season, it was known as "the disease of the empty granary"
- There is NO effective drug and NO vaccine — a crucial point, since eradication was achieved entirely by interrupting transmission
- Management is the traditional slow extraction — the emerging worm is wound a few centimetres each day onto a stick or gauze roll over 1 to 3 weeks, with wound care and antibiotics. The worm must not be broken, as the released fluid provokes intense inflammation and secondary infection. Metronidazole reduces inflammation and eases extraction but does not kill the worm
Eradication
- INDIA was certified free OF guinea worm IN february 2000, the last case having occurred in Jodhpur district, Rajasthan, in 1996. The National Guinea Worm Eradication Programme began in 1983 in the endemic states of Rajasthan, Gujarat, Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh, Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh
- The measures were entirely non-pharmacological:
- (1) Provision of safe drinking water — bore wells and hand pumps replacing step-wells and ponds, which was the decisive intervention
- (2) filtration of drinking water through fine nylon or cloth filters, which remove cyclops; this is cheap, simple and immediately effective
- (3) Chemical treatment of water with temephos (Abate) to kill cyclops
- (4) Preventing patients from entering water sources — case containment, with active surveillance, and management of ulcers away from ponds
- (5) Health education and community mobilisation, and a cash reward for reporting cases, which sustained surveillance as numbers fell
- Globally, dracunculiasis is on the verge of eradication — only a handful of human cases remain, in Chad, South Sudan, Ethiopia and Mali. It would be only the second human disease ever eradicated after smallpox, and the first parasitic disease
- The remaining obstacle is unexpected — infection in dogs, particularly in Chad, has created an animal reservoir that was not part of the original picture and that complicates the final stage
Applied Aspects
- Guinea worm was eradicated from India with NO drug and NO vaccine, purely by understanding the life cycle and breaking it — the clearest demonstration in parasitology that knowing the biology is itself an intervention
- The vulnerable point was chosen deliberately: the parasite has a single obligatory intermediate host, a long and predictable one-year cycle, and no animal reservoir in India — so one year of interrupted transmission in a village ended it there permanently
- Filtering drinking water through cloth is enough to prevent it, which made the intervention affordable at national scale
- Surveillance had to intensify as cases fell, not relax; the cash reward scheme existed because the last few cases are the hardest to find and the most important to contain
- Give tetanus prophylaxis to any patient with an emerging worm, since tetanus complicating the ulcer was a major cause of death
- Never break the worm during extraction; slow winding over days is tedious but is the correct technique, and rupture converts a manageable lesion into a severely inflamed and infected one
The Soil-transmitted Helminths
Soil-transmitted helminths (STH) are intestinal nematodes transmitted through soil contaminated with human faeces. They require a period of development IN soil before becoming infective, so direct person-to-person spread does not occur.
| Parasite | Route of infection | Chief consequence |
|---|---|---|
| ascaris lumbricoides | Ingestion of embryonated eggs | Malnutrition, growth and cognitive impairment; intestinal and biliary obstruction |
| Hookworm (Ancylostoma, Necator) | Skin penetration by filariform larvae — the bare foot | Iron deficiency anaemia and hypoproteinaemia |
| trichuris trichiura | Ingestion of embryonated eggs | Trichuris dysentery syndrome, rectal prolapse, growth failure |
| Strongyloides stercoralis | Skin penetration; also autoinfection | Chronic infection; hyperinfection with steroids |
- Enterobius is not a soil-transmitted helminth, despite being an intestinal nematode — its eggs are infective within hours and spread directly, which is why it occurs in every social class and is not addressed by these programmes
- The burden in India is very large — a substantial proportion of children aged 1 to 14 are estimated to be at risk, with the heaviest burdens in states with poor sanitation
- The harm is chronic and cumulative rather than acute — iron deficiency anaemia, protein-energy malnutrition, impaired growth, reduced school attendance and measurably poorer cognitive performance. Deaths are few; the loss is in development
- Worm burden determines morbidity, and the distribution is overdispersed — most infected people carry few worms while a small minority carry very heavy burdens and account for most of the disease and most of the transmission
CLINICAL PEARL
Mass deworming treats a community, not a patient. Because worm burden is overdispersed, treating everybody removes the heavy burdens that cause both the morbidity and most of the egg output — and it does so without the cost of diagnosing anyone. The drugs are cheap, single-dose and safe enough to give without examination. Treating only those found positive would cost far more in laboratory work than in medicine, and would miss the point.
The National Deworming Programme
- India's national deworming day (NDD) is held on 10 february each year, with a mop-up round about a week later for children missed. It is among the largest public health campaigns in the world by number of people reached
- Target group — all children and adolescents aged 1 to 19 years, delivered through schools and anganwadi centres, which reaches the age group most affected at negligible cost and without a separate delivery system
- The drug is albendazole 400 mg as a single dose (200 mg for children aged 1 to 2), given chewed or crushed, and after a meal, not on an empty stomach
- Frequency — once or twice yearly depending on the local prevalence, in line with WHO recommendations: annual treatment where prevalence exceeds 20%, and twice yearly where it exceeds 50%
- Expected mild adverse effects — nausea, abdominal pain, vomiting, and occasionally the passage of worms; these are commoner in heavily infected children and reflect worm death rather than drug toxicity. Anticipating and explaining them is essential, since a cluster of children feeling unwell after a campaign readily becomes a rumour that stops the programme
- Complementary measures — iron and folic acid supplementation, since deworming without iron leaves the anaemia; the Swachh Bharat Mission for sanitation; safe water; handwashing with soap; and footwear, which is the specific measure against hookworm and Strongyloides
Applied Aspects
- Deworming alone does not solve the problem — reinfection occurs within months where sanitation is unchanged, which is why the programme is periodic and why it must run alongside sanitation rather than instead of it
- Give iron with deworming in anaemic populations; the two together address the parasite and the deficit it caused
- Albendazole is avoided in the first trimester of pregnancy but is given in the second and third in endemic areas, where the benefit to maternal anaemia and birth weight is well established
- Watch for resistance; benzimidazole resistance is already widespread in veterinary practice from exactly this pattern of use, and monitoring of cure rates in human programmes is a stated concern
- Explain the expected side effects in advance to teachers and parents; programme failures have followed rumours after entirely predictable mild reactions
- Footwear and toilets are the durable interventions, and deworming is a holding measure that buys a generation of children better growth and schooling while those are built
The Basis of Helminth-associated Eosinophilia
Eosinophilia is an absolute eosinophil count above 500/mm3. It is graded as mild (500–1,500), moderate (1,500–5,000) and severe (above 5,000).
- The response is a Th2 response — helminth antigens drive IL-5 (which is the specific eosinophil growth, differentiation and survival factor), together with IL-4 and IL-13 driving IgE production and mast cell activation
- Eosinophils kill helminths by antibody-dependent cellular cytotoxicity — they cannot phagocytose an organism far larger than themselves, so they bind to IgE- or IgG-coated larvae and degranulate onto the surface, releasing major basic protein, eosinophil cationic protein and peroxidase
- This is why worms provoke eosinophilia and protozoa do not — the response evolved against a target too big to swallow, and protozoa are dealt with by phagocytosis and cell-mediated killing instead
| Situation | Eosinophilia | Reason |
|---|---|---|
| Tissue-invading helminths during larval migration | Marked — the highest counts seen | Maximal antigen exposure to tissue immune cells; e.g. Loeffler syndrome, Katayama fever, visceral larva migrans, trichinellosis, tropical pulmonary eosinophilia |
| Established tissue helminths | Moderate | Filariasis, schistosomiasis, strongyloidiasis, hydatid disease with leakage |
| Luminal helminths (adults in the gut lumen) | Absent or minimal | The worm lies in the lumen with no tissue contact — adult Ascaris, tapeworms, Enterobius, Trichuris. So a normal count does not exclude worms |
| Protozoa | Absent — including malaria, amoebiasis, giardiasis, leishmaniasis | The one exception is cystoisospora belli |
| Intact hydatid cyst | Absent or mild | The larva is sequestered behind the laminated membrane; eosinophilia rises sharply after leakage or rupture |
| Immunosuppressed host | Suppressed — falsely reassuring | Corticosteroids abolish eosinophilia; this is why Strongyloides hyperinfection characteristically has a normal count |
CLINICAL PEARL
The absence of eosinophilia is most misleading exactly when it matters most. Corticosteroids suppress the eosinophil response — and corticosteroids are also what precipitates Strongyloides hyperinfection. So the patient with the most dangerous helminth infection in the ward is precisely the one whose count looks normal. Eosinophilia is a useful positive finding and a worthless negative one in anyone immunosuppressed.
Approach to a Patient with Eosinophilia
- Confirm it is real and persistent with an absolute count, and repeat it; transient eosinophilia is common and often needs no pursuit
- The differential beyond parasites — remembered as "CHINA": Connective tissue disease (eosinophilic granulomatosis with polyangiitis, polyarteritis); Helminths; Idiopathic hypereosinophilic syndrome; Neoplasia (Hodgkin lymphoma, leukaemia, solid tumours); Allergy, Asthma, Atopy and Adrenal insufficiency. Also drugs — a very common cause and the first thing to review — and fungal disease (ABPA), skin disease and, among infections, Cystoisospora and the convalescent phase of scarlet fever
- Take a travel, residence, dietary and occupational history, which in practice narrows the parasitic possibilities faster than any test — raw fish, raw crab, undercooked pork, freshwater swimming, barefoot work, pets and pica
- Investigate — three stool specimens for ova and parasites; night blood for microfilariae; serology directed by the history (Strongyloides, Toxocara, Trichinella, hydatid, schistosomes, filaria); chest radiograph; total IgE; and imaging as indicated
- Remember that the stool is negative in several important ones — Toxocara (never matures), Trichinella (viviparous), filariasis, hydatid disease and tropical pulmonary eosinophilia. In these, serology is the only route
- Always exclude or empirically treat Strongyloides before corticosteroids in anyone with eosinophilia and any possible exposure
Applied Aspects
- Eosinophilia with a compatible history is an indication to look for a helminth, and its degree indicates the phase — the highest counts occur during larval migration, not in established infection
- A normal count does not exclude worms, particularly luminal ones, so stool examination is still worthwhile in a symptomatic patient
- Review the drug chart first; drug hypersensitivity is a commoner cause of eosinophilia in hospital practice than any parasite
- Persistent unexplained severe eosinophilia damages organs — eosinophil granule proteins cause endomyocardial fibrosis, neuropathy and thrombosis — so hypereosinophilic syndrome needs prompt haematological assessment rather than indefinite parasite hunting
- Tropical pulmonary eosinophilia responds dramatically to DEC, and the response is itself diagnostic; it should be considered in any Indian patient with nocturnal asthma-like symptoms and a very high count
- Empirical albendazole or ivermectin is reasonable in an appropriate setting where investigation is limited, particularly before immunosuppression — the drugs are cheap and safe, and the risk of missing Strongyloides is not
Eosinophilic Meningitis
Eosinophilic meningitis is defined by more than 10 eosinophils per microlitre in the cerebrospinal fluid, or eosinophils exceeding 10% of the cells. It is parasitic until proved otherwise.
| Cause | Features |
|---|---|
| angiostrongylus cantonensis (rat lungworm) | Much the commonest cause worldwide. Acquired from raw or undercooked snails and slugs, from freshwater prawns and crabs, and from unwashed salad contaminated by slug slime. Rats are the definitive host and molluscs the intermediate host; man IS A dead-end host, and the larvae migrate to the brain but cannot mature. Endemic in south-east Asia, the Pacific and increasingly reported from India |
| gnathostoma spinigerum | From raw freshwater fish; causes migratory subcutaneous swellings and, in the nervous system, a characteristically haemorrhagic radiculomyelitis with severe radicular pain — the presence of blood in the cerebrospinal fluid distinguishes it |
| Neurocysticercosis | Particularly when cysts degenerate or rupture into the ventricles or subarachnoid space |
| Others | Toxocariasis, schistosomiasis, paragonimiasis, baylisascariasis; and non-parasitic causes — coccidioidal meningitis, lymphoma, drugs (NSAIDs, ciprofloxacin, contrast media) and ventricular shunts |
- Clinical features of angiostrongyliasis — incubation of 1 to 3 weeks, then severe headache (often described as the worst the patient has had), neck stiffness, and characteristically paraesthesiae and hyperaesthesiae in a migratory distribution; cranial nerve palsies, especially the sixth and seventh; and visual disturbance. Fever is often mild or absent, which distinguishes it from bacterial meningitis
- The cerebrospinal fluid is under raised pressure, with eosinophils, moderately raised protein and normal or slightly reduced glucose; the parasite itself is very rarely seen
- Diagnosis — the combination of eosinophilic cerebrospinal fluid, peripheral eosinophilia and a dietary history; serology and PCR where available
- Treatment — the illness is usually self-limiting over weeks. corticosteroids shorten the headache and are the mainstay; repeated therapeutic lumbar puncture relieves the pressure and the headache directly. Anthelminthics are controversial, because killing larvae in the brain worsens the inflammation, and if used they are always given under steroid cover
CLINICAL PEARL
Killing a worm inside the central nervous system can be more dangerous than leaving it there. Dying larvae release antigen, and the inflammatory response occurs inside a rigid skull. This is why steroids come first in every CNS helminth infection — neurocysticercosis, angiostrongyliasis, cerebral schistosomiasis — and why in angiostrongyliasis, a self-limiting illness, many authorities give no anthelminthic at all and simply manage the pressure and the inflammation.
Zoonotic Helminths and Food Safety
| Food or exposure | Parasite acquired |
|---|---|
| Undercooked pork | Taenia solium (taeniasis), trichinella |
| Undercooked beef | Taenia saginata |
| Raw or undercooked freshwater fish | Diphyllobothrium, clonorchis, Opisthorchis, Gnathostoma, heterophyids |
| Raw or pickled crabs and crayfish | paragonimus (lung fluke), Angiostrongylus |
| Raw snails and slugs; unwashed salad | angiostrongylus |
| Water plants — watercress, water chestnut | fasciola, Fasciolopsis buski |
| Contact with dog faeces or dogs | echinococcus (hydatid), Toxocara canis, Dipylidium |
| Soil contact and bare feet | Hookworm, Strongyloides, cutaneous larva migrans |
| Freshwater swimming | schistosoma; and the free-living amoebae |
| Drinking unfiltered pond water | Dracunculus (eradicated from India) |
Applied Aspects
- Take a dietary history in unexplained eosinophilia or neurological illness; the food eaten weeks earlier is frequently the whole diagnosis, and it is rarely volunteered unless asked about specifically
- Eosinophilic meningitis is parasitic until proved otherwise, and it is regularly treated as partially treated bacterial meningitis or as tuberculous meningitis before the differential count is looked at
- Give corticosteroids before or with any anthelminthic in CNS disease, and consider whether an anthelminthic is needed at all in a self-limiting infection
- Most of these parasites reach man through a single avoidable step — cooking the food, washing the salad, wearing footwear, filtering the water — so dietary and behavioural advice prevents more helminth disease than any drug
- Regional food habits determine the local parasitology: raw crab in the north-east for Paragonimus, undercooked pork in tribal areas for T. Solium, water chestnut in Bihar and Bengal for Fasciolopsis; knowing the local diet is part of knowing the local differential diagnosis
- Man is a dead-end host in many of these, and it is precisely because the larva cannot complete its cycle that it wanders into brain, eye and skin — so the most damaging helminth infections are often those in which we are the wrong host
Definition
A healthcare-associated infection (HAI), formerly called a nosocomial infection, is an infection acquired in a healthcare facility that was neither present nor incubating at the time of admission.
- Operationally — an infection appearing more than 48 hours after admission; within 30 days of surgery (or 90 days where an implant was inserted); or within 3 days of discharge
- The 48-hour rule is a convention, not a biological fact — it is chosen because most community-acquired infections have declared themselves by then, but an organism with a longer incubation acquired on admission would still be counted as hospital-acquired
- The term "healthcare-associated" replaced "nosocomial" because much care now happens outside hospitals — dialysis units, day-care surgery, nursing homes and home infusion — and infections acquired there behave identically
- Magnitude — roughly 5 to 10% of admissions in high-income countries and 15 to 25% in low- and middle-income countries, with Indian intensive care units reporting device-associated rates several times those of Western units
- Consequences — prolonged stay, additional cost, permanent disability, increased antimicrobial resistance, excess mortality, and loss of public confidence; a substantial proportion are preventable, which is what makes them a quality-of-care indicator rather than an inevitability
The Four Major Sites
| Infection | Share and setting | Chief organisms |
|---|---|---|
| Catheter-associated urinary tract infection (CAUTI) | Historically the commonest HAI overall; almost always related to an indwelling catheter | E. Coli, Klebsiella, Proteus, Pseudomonas, Enterococcus, Candida |
| Surgical site infection (SSI) | The commonest HAI in surgical patients and, in many Indian series, the commonest overall | Staphylococcus aureus (including MRSA), coagulase-negative staphylococci, and gut flora after abdominal surgery |
| Ventilator-associated pneumonia (VAP) | The commonest HAI in intensive care and the one with the highest mortality | Pseudomonas aeruginosa, Acinetobacter baumannii, Klebsiella, S. Aureus |
| Central line-associated bloodstream infection (CLABSI) | The most costly per episode | Coagulase-negative staphylococci, S. Aureus, Candida, gram-negative bacilli |
| Others | — | clostridioides difficile colitis; gastroenteritis (norovirus, rotavirus); hepatitis B and C and HIV from needlestick; tuberculosis; aspergillosis after building work; and outbreaks of scabies and conjunctivitis |
- The great majority of HAIs are device-associated, which is the single most useful organising fact: a catheter, a tube or a line breaches a natural barrier and provides a surface for biofilm, and removing the device is often the most effective treatment
Sources and Routes of Transmission
| Source | Detail |
|---|---|
| Endogenous (autogenous) | The patient's own flora — skin, gut, nose, perineum — displaced to a normally sterile site by a device or an operation. This accounts for the majority of HAIs, which is why hand hygiene alone cannot eliminate them and why device care and skin preparation matter so much |
| Exogenous — cross-infection | From other patients, chiefly on the hands of staff — much the commonest exogenous route |
| Staff as carriers | Nasal carriage of S. Aureus; staff working while unwell with diarrhoea or a respiratory infection |
| Environment | Contaminated surfaces (C. Difficile spores, Acinetobacter, norovirus), water (Pseudomonas, Legionella in tanks and taps), air (Aspergillus during construction, M. Tuberculosis, measles, varicella) |
| Equipment and materials | Inadequately reprocessed endoscopes and bronchoscopes, ventilator circuits, nebulisers, contaminated infusions and multi-dose vials, thermometers and blood pressure cuffs |
CLINICAL PEARL
Most hospital infections come from the patient, not from the hospital. The organism is usually the patient’s own gut or skin flora moved somewhere it does not belong — E. Coli from the perineum up a urinary catheter, skin staphylococci down a central line. This explains why the most effective interventions are about devices — insert fewer, insert them aseptically, and remove them the day they are no longer needed — rather than about cleaning the ward harder.
Risk Factors and Prevention
- Host factors — extremes of age, malnutrition, diabetes, obesity, malignancy, immunosuppression, burns, and severity of underlying illness
- Treatment factors — invasive devices and their duration (much the most important modifiable factor), surgery and its duration, broad-spectrum antibiotics (which select resistant flora), corticosteroids, and prolonged length of stay
- Organisational factors — overcrowding, understaffing, inadequate nurse-to-patient ratios, poor ward design, shortage of isolation facilities and of handwashing points — all of which are prominent in Indian public hospitals and are not solved by exhorting individuals
| Level of prevention | Measures |
|---|---|
| Standard measures for all patients | Hand hygiene at the WHO 5 moments; personal protective equipment appropriate to the task; safe injection practice; safe sharps handling; respiratory hygiene; environmental cleaning; and correct waste segregation |
| Device care bundles | Small groups of evidence-based steps applied together and audited — CAUTI, CLABSI, VAP and SSI bundles. Their effectiveness comes from all steps being done every time, which is why compliance is measured rather than assumed |
| Antimicrobial stewardship | Reducing selection pressure, which is what determines whether the organisms causing HAIs are treatable |
| Isolation and cohorting | Transmission-based precautions for specific organisms and syndromes |
| Surveillance with feedback | Measuring rates and returning them to the clinical teams; this by itself reduces infection, because what is measured and reported improves |
| Staff health | Immunisation (especially hepatitis B), exclusion when infectious, and management of exposures |
| Structural | Adequate staffing and spacing, sufficient sinks and hand-rub dispensers, isolation rooms, and safe water and ventilation |
The Chain of Infection
Infectious agent — the organism, with its virulence, dose and resistance → reservoir — where it lives and multiplies: the patient, staff, contaminated water, equipment or the environment → portal OF exit — respiratory secretions, urine, faeces, blood, wound exudate → mode OF transmission — contact (direct or on hands), droplet, airborne, common vehicle (food, water, infusion) or vector → portal OF entry — a device breaching a barrier, a surgical wound, mucous membrane or inhalation → susceptible host — the immunosuppressed, the very young and old, the critically ill
- Control works by breaking the chain at its weakest link, and different measures act at different points — sterilisation removes the agent, isolation blocks transmission, hand hygiene interrupts the commonest mode, aseptic technique closes the portal of entry, and immunisation reduces host susceptibility
- The mode of transmission is usually the most vulnerable link in a hospital, which is why hand hygiene has such disproportionate value
Applied Aspects
- Ask every day whether each device is still needed, and remove it if not; this single habit prevents more infection than any antiseptic, because duration of device use is the dominant modifiable risk
- Treat colonisation and infection differently — a positive culture from a catheter, a drain or a tracheal aspirate in a patient without clinical signs is usually colonisation, and treating it selects resistance without benefit
- HAI rates are a measure of the system, not of individual carelessness; sustained reduction comes from redesigning the process (checklists, bundles, sufficient sinks, adequate staffing) rather than from blaming staff
- India has a national programme — hospital infection control committees are mandatory for accreditation, and surveillance networks now collect device-associated infection and resistance data nationally
- Report and investigate clusters early; two or three infections with the same unusual organism on one unit is an outbreak until proved otherwise
- An HAI is not merely a complication — it has medico-legal and ethical dimensions, since a preventable infection acquired in hospital represents harm caused by the care itself
- Overcrowding and understaffing drive infection rates more than any individual lapse; a nurse caring for too many patients cannot perform hand hygiene at every moment however willing they are
- Antibiotic use and infection control are two halves of one problem — stewardship limits the emergence of resistant organisms, infection control limits their spread, and neither works alone
- Most HAIs arise from the patient’s own flora, so aseptic insertion and skin preparation matter as much as environmental cleaning
- Bundles work because they are all-or-nothing; performing four of five steps reliably is scored as failure, and this is deliberate, since partial compliance produces partial protection
- Newborn and burns units carry the highest risk in Indian hospitals, and deserve disproportionate infection control attention
- Visitors and attendants are part of the picture in Indian wards, where family members provide much of the nursing care; they need instruction in hand hygiene as much as staff do
- Rates are a system measure, not a scorecard for individuals, and using them punitively destroys the reporting on which they depend
- An outbreak of two or three unusual isolates is still an outbreak, and acting at that point is what prevents a ward-wide problem
- Deaths from HAI are largely deaths from resistant organisms, which is why the two problems must be measured and addressed together
- Device-days, not admissions, are the right denominator, because the device is the exposure that carries the risk
Hand Hygiene
- Hands are the single most important vehicle of cross-infection in healthcare, and hand hygiene is the single most effective preventive measure — cheap, quick and applicable to every organism
- Semmelweis demonstrated this in Vienna in 1847, showing that handwashing in chlorinated lime reduced puerperal sepsis mortality dramatically. His work was rejected in his lifetime, which is a lasting caution about how slowly institutions accept evidence that implies their own practice is harmful
- Types of hand hygiene — routine handwashing with plain soap (removes transient flora and dirt); hygienic hand rub or wash with an antiseptic (removes and kills transient flora, and is the standard for clinical care); and surgical hand preparation, which additionally reduces resident flora and has a persistent effect
Moment 1 — before touching a patient, to protect the patient from organisms on your hands → moment 2 — before a clean or aseptic procedure, to protect the patient from organisms including their own → moment 3 — after body fluid exposure risk, to protect yourself and the environment → moment 4 — after touching a patient, to protect yourself and the next patient → moment 5 — after touching patient surroundings, even without touching the patient, because the immediate environment is contaminated with their flora
| Method | Agent and duration | When to use |
|---|---|---|
| Alcohol-based hand rub | 60–80% alcohol; 20 to 30 seconds; the WHO six-step technique | The preferred method for routine care — faster, more effective against most organisms, better tolerated by the skin, and usable at the bedside without a sink, which is why it improves compliance |
| Soap and water | Plain or antiseptic soap; 40 to 60 seconds | Required when hands are visibly soiled; after using the toilet; and after contact with clostridioides difficile or norovirus, because alcohol does not kill spores or naked viruses — the mechanical action of washing is what removes them |
| Surgical hand preparation | Chlorhexidine or povidone-iodine scrub, or an alcohol-based surgical rub; 2 to 5 minutes to the elbows | Before any surgical procedure; chlorhexidine is preferred for its persistent (residual) activity |
CLINICAL PEARL
Alcohol rub is better than soap for almost everything, and useless for the two things that cause hospital outbreaks. C. Difficile forms spores and norovirus is a naked virus — neither has a lipid envelope for alcohol to dissolve. In an outbreak of either, staff diligently using hand rub are transferring the organism between patients while believing themselves protected. The switch to soap and running water is the specific control measure.
Standard Precautions
Standard precautions apply to all patients at all times, regardless of diagnosis or presumed infection status, and treat all blood, body fluids, secretions, excretions (except sweat), non-intact skin and mucous membranes as potentially infectious.
- The principle is universality — precautions are applied to everyone rather than to those known to be infected, because most infectious patients are not known to be infectious at the time of contact. Selective precautions based on a known diagnosis protect against the patients who are least dangerous
- Components — hand hygiene; personal protective equipment chosen by the anticipated exposure (gloves, apron or gown, mask, eye protection); safe injection practice (one needle, one syringe, one patient, one time; single-dose vials preferred); sharps safety, with NO recapping and immediate disposal into a puncture-proof container by the user; respiratory hygiene and cough etiquette; safe handling of linen and of specimens; environmental cleaning; and correct waste segregation
- Gloves do not replace hand hygiene — they leak, they are contaminated on removal, and wearing them for prolonged periods across several patients is a well-documented route of transmission. Hands are cleaned before and after glove use
Transmission-based Precautions
| Category | Basis and requirements | Examples |
|---|---|---|
| Contact | Direct or indirect contact. Single room or cohorting; gloves and gown for all contact; dedicated equipment; thorough environmental cleaning — with hypochlorite for spores and naked viruses | MRSA, VRE, carbapenem-resistant organisms, C. Difficile, norovirus, scabies, RSV, conjunctivitis |
| Droplet | Large droplets (over 5 micrometres) that travel about 1 metre and settle. Single room or a 1-metre separation; a surgical mask within a metre; the patient masked when moved. NO special ventilation is required, because droplets do not remain airborne | Influenza, meningococcus, diphtheria, pertussis, mumps, rubella, group A streptococcus |
| Airborne | Droplet nuclei under 5 micrometres remaining suspended and travelling on air currents. Airborne infection isolation room with negative pressure and 6 to 12 air changes per hour, exhausted outside or HEPA-filtered; an N95 respirator (fit-tested) for staff; door kept closed | Tuberculosis, measles, varicella and disseminated zoster |
| Protective (reverse) isolation | Protects the patient rather than others — positive pressure with HEPA filtration | Severe neutropenia, stem cell transplantation |
- Transmission-based precautions are added to standard precautions, never substituted for them
- Some conditions need more than one category — varicella and disseminated zoster require airborne and contact precautions, and severe acute respiratory infections may need droplet with airborne precautions during aerosol-generating procedures
- Aerosol-generating procedures — intubation, suction, bronchoscopy, nebulisation, non-invasive ventilation, dental drilling and cardiopulmonary resuscitation — convert a droplet risk into an airborne one and require respirator-level protection
Personal Protective Equipment
| Item | Indication and points of technique |
|---|---|
| Gloves | Anticipated contact with blood, body fluids, mucous membranes, non-intact skin or contaminated items. Sterile for aseptic procedures. Changed between patients and between a dirty and a clean site on the same patient. They do not replace hand hygiene |
| Gown or apron | When clothing or skin may be soiled; a fluid-repellent gown for major splash risk; removed before leaving the area |
| Surgical mask | Protects against droplets and protects the patient from the wearer; used within a metre of a coughing patient and during sterile procedures. Does not protect against airborne particles |
| N95 / FFP2 respirator | Required for airborne precautions and for aerosol-generating procedures. Must be fit-tested, and a seal check performed each time; facial hair prevents an adequate seal |
| Eye protection or face shield | Where splashing is anticipated — the conjunctiva is a portal of entry for HIV, hepatitis and respiratory viruses and is routinely forgotten |
- The order matters — putting on: gown, mask or respirator, eye protection, gloves. Taking off: gloves and gown first (the most contaminated), then hand hygiene, then eye protection, then the mask, then hand hygiene again
- Most self-contamination happens during removal, not during use, which is why doffing is the step that is practised and observed
Applied Aspects
- Compliance with hand hygiene is typically around 40% even where it is measured, and is lowest among doctors and highest among nurses. Improving it requires accessible dispensers at the point of care, education, audit with feedback, reminders, and visible leadership — the WHO multimodal strategy
- Place hand rub where the work happens; compliance falls sharply with every metre between the bedside and the dispenser, which makes this an architectural question as much as a behavioural one
- Use soap and water in C. Difficile and norovirus outbreaks, and change the environmental disinfectant to hypochlorite; continuing with alcohol rub is a common and consequential error
- Do not wear gloves from patient to patient, and clean hands after removing them; gloved hands give false reassurance and transmit organisms as readily as bare ones
- Bare below the elbows — no wrist watches, bracelets or long sleeves during clinical care, since these prevent adequate hand and forearm hygiene
- Isolation has costs — isolated patients are examined less often, have more anxiety and depression and more non-infectious adverse events; precautions should therefore be applied for a defined indication and discontinued when no longer needed
- Cohorting is an acceptable substitute for single rooms, and is often the only realistic option in Indian public hospitals; patients with the same organism are nursed together with dedicated staff and equipment
- Fit-test the respirator; an unfitted N95 worn over a beard gives little protection and considerable false confidence
- Doff carefully — most self-contamination occurs while removing protective equipment, and the sequence should be practised rather than improvised
- Do not wear gloves for tasks that do not need them; unnecessary glove use is strongly associated with missed hand hygiene moments
- Respiratory hygiene applies at the front door — masks, tissues and separation for coughing patients in waiting areas prevent transmission before any diagnosis has been made
- The five moments are about the patient zone, not about tasks; moving from the bed to the chart and back is two moments, which is why the count seems high until the logic is understood
- Hand rub must be rubbed until dry; wiping it off or waving hands defeats the contact time on which its activity depends
- Artificial nails and chipped varnish harbour organisms and are prohibited in clinical areas, particularly in intensive care and theatre
- Airborne precautions need an engineered room, and where none exists the realistic substitutes are natural cross-ventilation, distancing and respirators — which is the practical Indian situation for tuberculosis
- Semmelweis was right and was ignored, which is worth remembering whenever evidence implies that current practice is causing harm
- Alcohol rub fails against spores and naked viruses, and this single exception accounts for a large share of ward outbreaks
- Wash after using the toilet regardless; alcohol rub is not a substitute for soap and water in that situation, for staff as much as for anyone else
- Precautions are stopped as well as started; leaving a patient in isolation after the indication has passed causes measurable harm and wastes a scarce side room
- Aerosol-generating procedures upgrade the precaution level even in a droplet-spread infection, and this must be anticipated before intubation or suction rather than during it
- Standard precautions exist because most infectious patients are unidentified — protection applied selectively to known cases protects against the least dangerous patients
- Bare below the elbows is not a dress code but a technical requirement, since sleeves and wristwear prevent adequate cleaning of the hands and forearms
Mechanisms of Resistance
Antimicrobial resistance (AMR) is the ability of a microorganism to survive exposure to an antimicrobial to which it was previously susceptible. It may be intrinsic (a natural property of the species) or acquired (by mutation or by gene transfer).
| Mechanism | How it works | Examples |
|---|---|---|
| Enzymatic inactivation | The organism destroys or modifies the drug | Beta-lactamases — penicillinase, extended-spectrum beta-lactamases (ESBL), AmpC, and carbapenemases (NDM-1, OXA-48, KPC); aminoglycoside-modifying enzymes; chloramphenicol acetyltransferase |
| Altered target | The binding site is modified so the drug no longer fits | MRSA — the mecA gene encodes an altered penicillin-binding protein PBP2a; VRE — the vanA gene changes the peptidoglycan terminus from D-ala-D-ala to D-ala-D-lactate; ribosomal methylation for macrolides; DNA gyrase mutation for quinolones; RNA polymerase mutation for rifampicin |
| Reduced permeability | Loss or alteration of porins, so the drug cannot enter | Carbapenem resistance in Klebsiella and Pseudomonas; the intrinsic resistance of gram-negative bacteria to many agents |
| Efflux pumps | The drug is actively pumped out faster than it enters; often multidrug pumps, conferring resistance to several unrelated classes at once | Tetracyclines, macrolides, fluoroquinolones; Pseudomonas and Acinetobacter |
| Bypass or overproduction of target | An alternative pathway or excess target | Sulphonamide and trimethoprim resistance |
| Biofilm | A polysaccharide matrix on a surface within which organisms are metabolically slow and physically shielded — giving tolerance rather than true genetic resistance | All device-associated infections; the reason removing the device is usually necessary |
- Genetic basis — mutation (vertical, and important for rifampicin, quinolones and the artemisinins) or horizontal gene transfer by conjugation (plasmids), transduction (bacteriophage) or transformation
- Horizontal transfer is what makes resistance a public health problem rather than a laboratory curiosity — a resistance gene can pass between unrelated species, and integrons and transposons assemble several resistance genes into a single cassette, so one conjugation event transfers resistance to many drug classes at once
CLINICAL PEARL
Antibiotics do not create resistance; they select for it. The mutations and genes exist already, at low frequency, in populations that have never met the drug — resistance genes have been recovered from permafrost and from isolated caves. What an antibiotic does is kill the susceptible majority and leave the resistant few to multiply without competition. This is why unnecessary antibiotic use is harmful even when it does no direct harm to the patient, and why reducing total consumption is the only measure that addresses the cause.
The Important Resistant Organisms
| Organism | Resistance and significance |
|---|---|
| MRSA | Methicillin-resistant S. Aureus; the mecA gene confers resistance to all beta-lactams. Treated with vancomycin, teicoplanin, linezolid or daptomycin. Nasal carriage is the reservoir |
| VRE | Vancomycin-resistant enterococci; intrinsically resistant to many agents and now to glycopeptides |
| ESBL producers | E. Coli and Klebsiella hydrolysing third-generation cephalosporins; carbapenems are the usual treatment, which drives carbapenem resistance in turn. Very common in India, including in the community |
| Carbapenem-resistant Enterobacterales (CRE) | The most serious gram-negative threat. NDM-1 (New Delhi metallo-beta-lactamase) is plasmid-borne and widespread in India; OXA-48 and KPC elsewhere. Treatment falls back on colistin, tigecycline and newer combinations, all with significant toxicity or limited evidence |
| acinetobacter baumannii | Survives on dry surfaces for weeks, tolerates disinfectants, and is often resistant to everything except colistin; a characteristic cause of Indian ICU outbreaks |
| Pseudomonas aeruginosa | Intrinsic resistance plus efflux and porin loss; grows in water, sinks and disinfectant solutions |
| MDR and XDR tuberculosis | Resistance to isoniazid and rifampicin (MDR), with additional resistance to a fluoroquinolone and an injectable (XDR); a very large Indian burden |
| Candida auris and azole-resistant fungi | Multidrug-resistant, environmentally persistent, and frequently misidentified |
- The mnemonic ESKAPE covers the organisms that "escape" antimicrobial action — Enterococcus faecium, Staphylococcus aureus, Klebsiella pneumoniae, Acinetobacter baumannii, Pseudomonas aeruginosa and Enterobacter
Drivers of Resistance
- In human medicine — unnecessary prescription for viral illness; overuse of broad-spectrum agents where a narrow one would serve; over-the-counter sale without prescription, which remains widespread in India despite the Schedule H1 restrictions; incomplete courses; substandard and counterfeit drugs; and inadequate infection control, which spreads the resistant strain once it exists
- In agriculture — antibiotics used as growth promoters and for routine prophylaxis in poultry, livestock and aquaculture, which accounts for a very large share of total global consumption; and environmental azole fungicides selecting azole-resistant Aspergillus
- In the environment — pharmaceutical manufacturing effluent, which has been documented at very high antibiotic concentrations around Indian production sites, and inadequate sewage treatment
- India is a global epicentre because of high infectious disease burden, easy access to antibiotics without prescription, large-scale manufacturing, and variable infection control — but also a global leader in documenting the problem
Antimicrobial Stewardship
Antimicrobial stewardship is a coordinated programme to optimise antimicrobial use — the right drug, right dose, right route, right duration, for the right indication — to improve outcomes while minimising toxicity, cost and resistance.
- Core strategies — a hospital antibiotic policy based on local antibiogram data; restriction of reserve agents with pre-authorisation; prospective audit with feedback to prescribers; and formulary control
- DE-escalation — starting broad in a septic patient, then narrowing at 48 to 72 hours once cultures are available. This is the central clinical discipline, and the step most often omitted, since the patient is improving and nobody wants to change a winning treatment
- Send cultures before the first dose — without them de-escalation is impossible and every subsequent decision is guesswork
- Shorten duration; most common infections need far shorter courses than tradition suggests, and duration is the easiest parameter to reduce safely
- Intravenous-to-oral switch once the patient is stable and absorbing, which also removes a cannula and its risk
- Use narrow-spectrum agents where the organism is known; avoid treating colonisation, contaminants and asymptomatic bacteriuria; and use surgical prophylaxis correctly — a single dose within 60 minutes of incision, not continued for days afterwards, which is one of the commonest sources of unnecessary antibiotic exposure in Indian hospitals
- WHO AWaRe classification — access (first-line, widely available, to be used freely), watch (higher resistance potential, to be used selectively) and reserve (last resort, to be protected). The target is a high proportion of Access-group prescribing
- India's national action plan ON AMR, ICMR surveillance, the Red Line campaign marking prescription-only antibiotics, and Schedule H1 record-keeping requirements
Applied Aspects
- Do not prescribe an antibiotic for a viral illness; this is the single largest source of unnecessary use, and the pressure to prescribe is social rather than clinical — which means the remedy is explanation and a safety-net plan rather than a prescription
- Review every antibiotic at 48 to 72 hours and record a decision: stop, narrow, switch to oral, or continue with a stated duration. An unexamined prescription continues by default
- Treat the patient, not the culture report; a positive culture from a non-sterile site in a well patient usually means colonisation
- Infection control and stewardship are inseparable — stewardship reduces the emergence of resistant organisms and infection control prevents their spread, and either alone is insufficient
- Resistance is reversible at population level where consumption falls, as has been shown in several countries; the problem is not irretrievable, but it does require sustained collective restraint
- The pipeline of new antibiotics is thin, because they are commercially unattractive — used briefly, priced low, and reserved on principle. This is why conserving existing agents matters more than waiting for new ones
- Use the local antibiogram, not a textbook; resistance patterns differ between hospitals and between units within a hospital, and empirical choices based on anything else are guesses
- Stop surgical prophylaxis within 24 hours; prolonged prophylaxis is among the largest and most easily corrected sources of unnecessary antibiotic exposure
- Explain rather than prescribe in viral illness, and offer a safety net — a delayed prescription or a review appointment satisfies the concern that drives most inappropriate prescribing
- Colistin was abandoned for toxicity and has been resurrected as a last-line agent against carbapenem-resistant organisms, which is a measure of how far the problem has progressed — and plasmid-mediated colistin resistance (mcr) has already appeared
- Agricultural use is part of medical resistance, and stewardship that ignores it addresses only a fraction of total antibiotic consumption
- Send cultures before the first dose; without them, de-escalation is impossible and the patient stays on broad-spectrum treatment by default
- Record a stop date or a review date for every antibiotic prescribed; an unexamined prescription continues indefinitely
- Biofilm is tolerance, not resistance, and it explains why a device-associated infection may fail to clear despite a fully sensitive organism — the answer is removing the device
- Resistance is reversible at population level when consumption falls, which makes restraint worthwhile rather than merely delaying an inevitable defeat
- Horizontal gene transfer is what makes this a public health problem; a resistance plasmid moves between species and can carry several resistance genes at once
- Over-the-counter antibiotic sale remains widespread in India despite Schedule H1, and no hospital stewardship programme can offset a community supply that requires no prescription
Definition and Importance
Biomedical waste (BMW) is any waste generated during the diagnosis, treatment or immunisation of human beings or animals, in research activities, or in the production or testing of biologicals.
- Only about 15% of hospital waste is hazardous; the remaining 85% is ordinary general waste. segregation AT source is therefore the entire strategy — mixing a small quantity of infectious waste with general waste converts the whole of it into hazardous waste, multiplying the cost and the risk several-fold
- Hazards — injury and infection to waste handlers and sanitary staff (particularly hepatitis B, hepatitis C and HIV from sharps); infection to the community through scavenging and repacking; reuse of disposable syringes and needles after theft from waste, which has caused documented outbreaks of hepatitis in India; environmental contamination with dioxins and furans from incinerating chlorinated plastic; and mercury and cytotoxic drug contamination
- Governed in India by the BIO-medical waste management rules 2016 and their amendments, under the Environment (Protection) Act 1986. Compliance is a legal obligation of the occupier, and authorisation from the State Pollution Control Board is required
Segregation BY Colour Code
| Colour | Contents | Treatment and disposal |
|---|---|---|
| Yellow | Human anatomical waste (tissues, organs, body parts) and animal anatomical waste; soiled waste (dressings, cotton, bedding contaminated with blood or body fluids); expired and discarded medicines; chemical waste; chemical liquid waste; discarded linen and masks; and microbiology and biotechnology waste including cultures, stocks and blood bags — which must first be pre-treated by autoclaving or disinfection ON site | Incineration, plasma pyrolysis or deep burial. Not recycled |
| Red | Contaminated recyclable waste — disposable items made of plastic: tubing, bottles, intravenous sets and tubes, catheters, urine bags, syringes without needles, vacutainers and gloves | Autoclaving, microwaving or hydroclaving followed by mutilation or shredding, then sent to a registered recycler. Not incinerated, because burning chlorinated plastic generates dioxins |
| White (translucent, puncture-proof, leak-proof) | Sharps — needles, syringes with fixed needles, scalpels, blades, and any contaminated sharp object that may cause puncture or cut | Autoclaving or dry heat sterilisation followed by shredding or mutilation, then recycling or disposal in a sharps pit. Needles may be destroyed at the point of use with a needle destroyer |
| Blue (cardboard box with blue marking) | Broken or discarded and contaminated glass including medicine vials and ampoules; and metallic body implants | Disinfection by chemical treatment or autoclaving, washing, then sent for recycling |
| General (black) waste | Non-infectious waste — paper, packaging, food waste, garden waste | Municipal solid waste stream; it is not biomedical waste and must not be placed in coloured bags |
CLINICAL PEARL
Segregation happens at the bedside or nowhere. Once a used dressing has been dropped into general waste, no downstream process can separate it again — the entire bag becomes infectious. This is why the decision rests with the person generating the waste, at the moment of generation, and why correctly coloured bins must be at the point of use rather than in a corridor. It also means the most junior staff make the most consequential decision in the whole system.
Handling, Transport and Treatment
- Bags are filled to no more than three-quarters, then tied, labelled with the biohazard or cytotoxic symbol and with the details of the generating unit, and barcoded as required by the 2016 Rules
- NO untreated biomedical waste may be stored beyond 48 hours
- Transport in covered, labelled, dedicated trolleys and vehicles, by routes avoiding patient and public areas, to a common biomedical waste treatment facility (CBWTF) where one exists — which is the preferred arrangement, since a shared professional facility is safer and cheaper than each hospital operating its own incinerator
- Treatment technologies — incineration at high temperature for anatomical, soiled and pharmaceutical waste (but never for chlorinated plastic); autoclaving and microwaving for infectious plastic and sharps, with validation by chemical and biological indicators; chemical disinfection with 1% hypochlorite for liquid waste; plasma pyrolysis; and deep burial, permitted only for rural facilities without access to a treatment plant
- Liquid waste and effluent must meet discharge standards; laboratory and microbiological liquid waste is disinfected before discharge
- Records and reporting — daily records of waste generated, annual returns to the State Pollution Control Board, and immediate reporting of major accidents
Sterilisation, Disinfection and the Spaulding Classification
| Category | Definition and requirement | Examples |
|---|---|---|
| Critical | Enters sterile tissue or the vascular system; requires sterilisation | Surgical instruments, implants, needles, cardiac and urinary catheters — autoclaved, or ethylene oxide and plasma for heat-sensitive items |
| Semi-critical | Contacts mucous membranes or non-intact skin; requires at least high-level disinfection, which kills all organisms except large numbers of spores | Flexible endoscopes, respiratory and anaesthetic equipment, vaginal specula — glutaraldehyde, ortho-phthalaldehyde or peracetic acid |
| Non-critical | Contacts intact skin only; low- or intermediate-level disinfection suffices | Blood pressure cuffs, stethoscopes, bed rails, thermometers — alcohol wipes or a detergent |
- Endoscope reprocessing is a recurring source of outbreaks — the long narrow channels are difficult to clean, and manual cleaning before disinfection is the essential step, since organic material shields organisms from any disinfectant. Duodenoscopes in particular have transmitted carbapenem-resistant organisms internationally
- Environmental cleaning — detergent for routine cleaning; 1% hypochlorite for blood spills, C. Difficile and norovirus; attention to high-touch surfaces (bed rails, door handles, taps, monitors, keyboards); and cleaning validated by direct observation or fluorescent markers rather than assumed
Applied Aspects
- Never recap a needle; recapping is the commonest cause of needlestick injury and is prohibited. The user disposes of the sharp immediately, personally, into a puncture-proof container at the point of use — never handing it to someone else and never leaving it on a trolley
- Do not overfill sharps containers; they are sealed at three-quarters full, and overfilled containers cause injuries to the staff who handle them
- Mutilation and shredding prevent reuse, which is the specific Indian problem the Rules address — intact syringes recovered from waste have been repackaged and resold, causing hepatitis outbreaks
- Train and protect the waste handlers — they carry the greatest risk and the least knowledge. hepatitis B vaccination, tetanus immunisation, gloves, boots and masks are mandatory, and their occupational health is a legal responsibility of the hospital
- Waste management is a legal and environmental duty, not only a clinical one; non-compliance carries penalties, and it is a mandatory requirement for NABH accreditation
- The greatest gain comes from reducing the volume of hazardous waste — by correct segregation, by not using coloured bags for general waste, and by avoiding unnecessary use of disposables; every item wrongly placed in a yellow bag is incinerated at cost and at environmental expense
- Microbiology laboratory waste must be pre-treated on site by autoclaving before it leaves the laboratory; cultures and stocks contain far higher concentrations of organisms than any clinical specimen
- Chlorinated plastic must not be incinerated, which is why red-bag waste goes to autoclaving and recycling; burning polyvinyl chloride generates dioxins, which are persistent carcinogens
- Mercury from broken thermometers and sphygmomanometers is separately collected and never placed in general or biomedical waste; mercury-free devices are the better answer
- Cytotoxic waste requires separate handling and is incinerated at high temperature; spills need a dedicated kit and trained staff
- Placenta and anatomical waste go into yellow bags for incineration or deep burial; cultural expectations about their disposal need to be handled with sensitivity and explained rather than overridden
- Barcoding and annual returns are legal requirements under the 2016 Rules, and non-compliance carries penalties for the occupier personally
- Do not place general waste in coloured bags; this is the commonest error, and it multiplies both the cost and the environmental burden of disposal unnecessarily
- Only about 15% of hospital waste is hazardous, and correct segregation keeps it that way; incorrect segregation converts the whole stream into hazardous waste
- Place the correct bins at the point of generation; a bin in the corridor guarantees mis-segregation, exactly as a distant hand-rub dispenser guarantees missed hand hygiene
- Waste handlers need hepatitis B vaccination and protective equipment as a legal obligation, and they carry more risk than most clinical staff
- Common treatment facilities are preferable to hospital incinerators, which are frequently poorly maintained and operated below the temperatures needed to avoid dioxin formation
- Untreated waste must not be stored beyond 48 hours, and storage areas must be secure against scavenging, which is the route by which sharps re-enter circulation
- Colour coding is worth memorising precisely; it is a standard examination question and, more importantly, a daily practical decision made by every clinician
- Syringes go in red without their needles, and the needles in white — separating them at the point of use is what the needle destroyer or cutter is for
- Glass goes in blue, not in the sharps container, because it is recycled after disinfection rather than shredded
- Expired medicines are yellow-bag waste, not general waste, and must never be returned to the pharmacy shelf or flushed away
- Deep burial is permitted only where no treatment facility exists, and is a rural provision rather than a general option
- Segregation is decided by the person holding the item, which makes training of nurses, attendants and housekeeping staff the whole of the programme
- Reuse of disposables after theft from waste is the specific Indian hazard the mutilation and shredding requirements exist to prevent, and it has caused documented hepatitis outbreaks
- Liquid laboratory waste is disinfected before discharge, and effluent must meet discharge standards; the drain is not a disposal route for cultures
- Annual returns and daily records are legally required, and accreditation depends on them as much as on clinical standards
- Waste management is examinable and practical at once — the colour codes are asked in every examination and used in every clinical shift
Surveillance
Surveillance is the continuous, systematic collection, analysis and interpretation of health data, with timely dissemination to those who need to know so that action can be taken. Surveillance without feedback is data collection, not surveillance.
| Type | Description | Comment |
|---|---|---|
| Targeted (focused) | Selected units or infections — typically device-associated infections in intensive care | The preferred approach; it concentrates limited resources where the risk and the preventable burden are greatest |
| Comprehensive (whole-hospital) | All infections in all patients | Labour-intensive and rarely sustainable |
| Prevalence survey (point prevalence) | A snapshot of all patients on one day | Quick and cheap; good for a baseline and for advocacy, but it overestimates infections of long duration |
| Incidence surveillance | New infections over time in a defined population | The valid measure for trends and for comparison |
| Syndromic and laboratory-based | Alerts triggered by clinical syndromes or by laboratory isolates | Laboratory-based alerts detect resistant organisms and clusters automatically |
| Post-discharge surveillance | Follow-up after discharge | Essential for surgical site infection, since most present after the patient has gone home and are otherwise never counted |
- Rates must be expressed against a denominator that reflects exposure, or comparison is meaningless:
- Device-associated rate = infections ÷ device-days × 1,000. Using admissions or bed-days instead would make a unit look better simply for having fewer catheters — which is the right thing to do, but it must be captured as reduced device use rather than hidden
- Device utilisation ratio = device-days ÷ patient-days, which measures how much a unit uses devices and is itself a target for improvement
- Surgical site infection rate is stratified by wound class and by the NNIS or ASA risk index, because a contaminated emergency laparotomy and a clean elective hernia repair are not comparable
- Standard case definitions are essential — without them, a falling rate may simply mean stricter definitions or less diligent case-finding
CLINICAL PEARL
Measuring and feeding back infection rates reduces them, by itself. This was the central finding of the classic SENIC study: hospitals with organised surveillance, feedback to clinicians and a trained infection control nurse reduced infections by about a third, while those without saw rates rise. The mechanism is attention rather than any specific intervention — which is why the feedback loop, not the data collection, is the active ingredient.
Outbreak Investigation
An outbreak is the occurrence of cases of a disease in excess of what is normally expected in that population, place and time. In a hospital, two or more epidemiologically linked cases of an unusual organism may constitute one, and a single case of a rare or serious infection may be enough.
- 1. Establish the existence of an outbreak — compare with the baseline rate, and exclude pseudo-outbreaks caused by a new laboratory method, better case-finding, a contaminated reagent or a change in definition → 2.
- Confirm the diagnosis — verify the laboratory results and save the isolates for later typing → 3.
- Define a case and find cases — an explicit case definition by person, place and time, applied consistently
- then active case-finding → 4.
- Descriptive epidemiology — describe by time (an epidemic curve, whose shape distinguishes a point source from person-to-person spread), place (a spot map by ward, bed and theatre) and person (age, procedure, device, ward, and which staff were involved) → 5.
- Form a hypothesis about the source and the mode of transmission → 6.
- Test it analytically — a case-control study is usual in a hospital outbreak, since cases are few and exposures many
- a cohort study where the exposed group is defined → 7.
- Environmental and microbiological investigation — targeted sampling guided by the hypothesis, and typing of isolates by pulsed-field gel electrophoresis, MLST or whole-genome sequencing to establish whether the strains are truly the same → 8.
- Implement control measures — and do so as soon as a plausible source is suspected, without waiting for the analysis to be complete → 9.
- Evaluate by continued surveillance, and 10.
- Communicate — a written report, feedback to staff, and notification where required
- Control measures come before certainty, and this is the point at which investigations most often fail. The purpose of the investigation is to stop the outbreak, not to publish it, and a reasonable measure taken early is worth more than a perfect answer arrived at late
- Do not undertake routine environmental sampling — swabbing walls, floors and air without a hypothesis wastes resources, generates uninterpretable results and finds organisms that are always present. Sampling is done to test a specific hypothesis
- Beware the pseudo-outbreak — a cluster of positive cultures with no clinical disease, caused by contaminated collection equipment, a contaminated reagent or laboratory cross-contamination; the clue is that the patients are not ill
The Infection Control Programme
- The hospital infection control committee (HICC) — a multidisciplinary committee chaired at senior level, including the microbiologist, clinicians, surgeon, nursing superintendent, pharmacist, hospital administrator and engineer. It sets policy, reviews surveillance data and authorises action
- The infection control team (ICT) — the working arm, comprising an infection control officer (usually the microbiologist) and infection control nurses, who do the surveillance, education and daily liaison. A ratio of about one infection control nurse per 250 beds is the usual recommendation, and staffing this post is the single most important organisational decision
- Functions — surveillance with feedback; writing and updating policies (hand hygiene, isolation, device bundles, antibiotic policy, waste, sterilisation); education and training of all grades including cleaning and waste staff; outbreak investigation; audit; staff health and immunisation; and advising on new construction and renovation
- Antimicrobial stewardship is usually run alongside, sharing the same data and often the same people
- Accreditation — NABH in India and JCI internationally require a functioning infection control programme, which has been a significant driver of improvement in Indian hospitals
Common Hospital Outbreaks and Their Sources
| Organism or syndrome | Typical source to investigate |
|---|---|
| Pseudomonas aeruginosa | Water — taps, sinks, drains, humidifiers, nebulisers, water baths, and contaminated disinfectant solutions |
| legionella | Hospital water system — tanks, showers, cooling towers; favoured by stagnation and temperatures between 20 and 45°C |
| aspergillus | Air — construction, demolition, renovation and damp ceiling tiles; affects neutropenic units |
| Acinetobacter baumannii | Dry environmental surfaces and shared equipment in intensive care; survives for weeks |
| Clostridioides difficile | Spores on surfaces and hands; driven by antibiotic use, so the outbreak investigation must examine prescribing as well as cleaning |
| Norovirus | Patients, staff and surfaces; a very low infecting dose and rapid ward-wide spread; frequently requires ward closure |
| MRSA and CRE | Patient-to-patient on hands and equipment; screening of contacts is part of the investigation |
| Hepatitis B and C | Unsafe injection practice, multi-dose vials, reused syringes and inadequately reprocessed equipment — a documented cause of large Indian outbreaks |
| Post-injection or post-surgical abscess clusters | Contaminated multi-dose vials, disinfectant or intravenous fluid; rapidly growing mycobacteria are a characteristic cause after laparoscopic and cosmetic procedures |
Applied Aspects
- Report a cluster early rather than waiting to be sure; the cost of investigating a false alarm is small and the cost of a delayed outbreak is not
- Save the isolates when an unusual organism appears; typing is impossible retrospectively if the plates have been discarded, and without typing an outbreak cannot be confirmed or excluded
- Feed the data back to the clinical teams in a form they can act on — unit-level rates, trends, and comparison with previous periods; data sent only to administration changes nothing
- Do not use surveillance data punitively; the moment reporting is perceived as blame, case-finding deteriorates and the rates fall for the wrong reason
- Post-discharge follow-up is necessary for surgical site infection, or the reported rate will be a fraction of the true one and will mislead everybody
- Involve the engineers in outbreaks involving water, air conditioning or construction; Legionella, Pseudomonas and Aspergillus outbreaks are solved by plumbing and ventilation rather than by antibiotics
- Implement control measures before the investigation concludes; the purpose is to stop the outbreak, and a reasonable early measure beats a perfect late answer
- Recognise the pseudo-outbreak — positive cultures without ill patients point to contaminated reagents, collection equipment or laboratory cross-contamination rather than to a real cluster
- Assess construction and renovation in advance; an infection control risk assessment before building work begins prevents aspergillosis outbreaks that are very difficult to control once started
- Denominators matter — a unit that reduces catheter use will appear unchanged on a per-admission rate and improved on a per-device-day rate, and both numbers are needed to understand what happened
- Use standard case definitions, or an apparent improvement may simply reflect stricter criteria or less thorough case-finding
- An epidemic curve distinguishes a point source from spread — a sharp single peak suggests a common vehicle, successive waves suggest person-to-person transmission, and the shape guides the investigation before any culture is available
- Whole-genome sequencing has changed outbreak investigation, frequently showing that apparently linked cases are unrelated and that unsuspected cases belong together
- Fund the infection control nurse post; it is the single organisational decision most consistently associated with lower infection rates
- Targeted surveillance beats comprehensive surveillance where resources are limited, because data that nobody has time to analyse and feed back changes nothing
- Point prevalence surveys are a good starting point for a hospital with no surveillance at all — cheap, quick, and sufficient to establish that a problem exists and to justify a programme
- The SENIC finding still holds — surveillance with feedback and a trained infection control nurse reduces infection by about a third, and no single technical intervention matches that
Definition and Classification
A surgical site infection (SSI) is an infection occurring at or near the surgical incision within 30 days of the operation, or within 90 days where an implant has been placed.
| Type | Extent |
|---|---|
| Superficial incisional | Skin and subcutaneous tissue only |
| Deep incisional | Fascia and muscle layers |
| Organ / space | Any part opened or manipulated during the operation — for example an intra-abdominal abscess or mediastinitis. The most serious |
| Wound class | Description | Expected infection rate |
|---|---|---|
| Clean | Elective, no inflammation, and the respiratory, gastrointestinal and genitourinary tracts not entered — hernia repair, thyroidectomy | Under 2% |
| Clean-contaminated | A hollow viscus entered under controlled conditions without significant spillage — elective cholecystectomy, hysterectomy | About 5 to 10% |
| Contaminated | Major break in technique, gross spillage, acute non-purulent inflammation, or a fresh traumatic wound | About 15 to 20% |
| Dirty / infected | Established infection, perforated viscus, or an old traumatic wound with devitalised tissue | Over 30 to 40% |
- Organisms — Staphylococcus aureus (including MRSA) is much the commonest overall, with coagulase-negative staphylococci in implant surgery; gram-negative bacilli and anaerobes after gastrointestinal and gynaecological surgery, reflecting the flora of the organ opened
- The source is usually the patient's own skin or gut flora, not the theatre environment — which determines where prevention should be directed
CLINICAL PEARL
Antibiotic prophylaxis given after the incision is worthless, and given for days afterwards is harmful. The purpose is a bactericidal tissue concentration at the moment contamination occurs — so the dose goes in within 60 minutes before incision, is repeated during long operations or major blood loss, and stops within 24 hours. Continuing it "until the drain comes out" prevents nothing, selects resistant flora and increases C. Difficile risk.
Prevention
| Phase | Measures |
|---|---|
| Pre-operative | Treat remote infection and optimise nutrition and glycaemic control; stop smoking for at least 4 weeks; shorten pre-operative stay; bathe with soap or chlorhexidine; and DO not shave — if hair must be removed use clippers immediately before surgery, since a razor causes microabrasions that measurably increase infection |
| Antibiotic prophylaxis | A single dose of an appropriate agent within 60 minutes before incision; re-dose in prolonged surgery; discontinue within 24 hours |
| Intra-operative | Surgical hand preparation; skin antisepsis with alcoholic chlorhexidine (superior to aqueous povidone-iodine); sterile drapes, gowns and gloves; meticulous technique with gentle tissue handling, haemostasis and avoidance of dead space; normothermia; maintained tissue oxygenation; minimising theatre traffic and door opening; and validated sterilisation of instruments |
| Post-operative | Aseptic dressing technique; hand hygiene; keep the incision covered for 24 to 48 hours; maintain glycaemic control; remove drains early; and post-discharge surveillance |
Diagnosis, Treatment and Applied Aspects
- Diagnosis is clinical — pain, erythema, swelling, warmth, purulent discharge, wound dehiscence and fever, usually appearing between the fifth and tenth post-operative days
- Very early infection (within 48 hours) suggests Streptococcus pyogenes or Clostridium perfringens, both of which are aggressive and require immediate action
- Send pus or tissue, not a superficial swab — a swab of the wound surface grows colonising flora, whereas deep pus or tissue identifies the true pathogen
- The primary treatment is drainage — opening the wound, removing sutures where needed, debriding necrotic tissue, and dressings; antibiotics are adjunctive, and are indicated for cellulitis, systemic features, an implant or deep involvement. Antibiotics alone will not treat a collection
- Do not shave the site, and if hair removal is needed use clippers just before surgery; shaving the night before is traditional in many Indian hospitals and measurably increases infection
- Give prophylaxis on time and stop it on time; both errors are common, and prolonged surgical prophylaxis is one of the largest sources of unnecessary antibiotic use in Indian hospitals
- Control the blood glucose perioperatively even in non-diabetics, since hyperglycaemia impairs neutrophil function and is an independent risk factor
- Follow the patient after discharge; most surgical site infections appear after the patient has gone home, so a rate calculated from inpatient data alone is a substantial underestimate
Pathogenesis
- CAUTI is among the commonest healthcare-associated infections, and almost all hospital-acquired urinary infection is catheter-related
- The risk is about 3 to 7% per day of catheterisation, and is essentially cumulative — so by 30 days nearly every catheterised patient is bacteriuric. duration is by far the dominant risk factor, which makes early removal the central preventive measure
- Routes of entry — extraluminal (the commoner), with organisms from the perineum migrating up the outside of the catheter in the mucous sheath; and intraluminal, from contamination of the drainage system or reflux from the bag
- Biofilm forms on the catheter within days — organisms embedded in a polysaccharide matrix on both surfaces, protected from antibiotics and from host defences. This is why bacteriuria cannot be eradicated while the catheter remains, and why treatment usually requires changing or removing it
- Organisms — E. Coli, Klebsiella, Enterococcus, Pseudomonas, Candida, and proteus mirabilis, which is urease-producing: it splits urea, raises the urinary pH and precipitates struvite encrustation and blockage
- Other risk factors — female sex, diabetes, older age, breaks in the closed system, and poor insertion technique
CLINICAL PEARL
Asymptomatic bacteriuria in a catheterised patient should not be treated, and usually should not even be tested for. Nearly every long-term catheterised patient is bacteriuric; treating it does not prevent symptomatic infection, does not clear the biofilm, and reliably selects resistant organisms. Sending a "routine" catheter urine in a patient with no symptoms generates a positive report that is very hard not to treat — so the discipline begins with not ordering the test. The exceptions are pregnancy and before urological surgery.
Diagnosis and Prevention
- CAUTI requires symptoms plus bacteriuria. In a catheterised patient the usual symptoms of dysuria and frequency are absent, so the features are fever with no other source, suprapubic or flank tenderness, rigors, new confusion in the elderly, or haematuria. Cloudy or offensive urine alone is not an indication to treat
- Specimen — taken aseptically from the sampling port after disinfection, never from the drainage bag (which reflects bag flora) and never by disconnecting the system. Ideally the catheter is replaced first and the sample taken from the new one, since the old catheter's biofilm contaminates the specimen
- Significant count — conventionally 105 colony-forming units per mL, but 103 is significant in a symptomatic catheterised patient; pyuria is present in nearly all catheterised patients and does not distinguish infection from colonisation
| Bundle element | Detail |
|---|---|
| Avoid the catheter | Insert only for a defined indication — acute retention or obstruction, accurate output measurement in critical illness, selected surgery, sacral wound care in incontinence, and comfort in terminal care. Incontinence alone and staff or ward convenience are not indications |
| Consider alternatives | Intermittent catheterisation, condom drainage in men, bedside commode, timed voiding and absorbent pads |
| Aseptic insertion | Trained staff, hand hygiene, sterile gloves and equipment, antiseptic periurethral cleaning, single-use lubricant, and the smallest catheter that will drain |
| Maintain a closed system | Never disconnect the catheter from the drainage tube; sample only from the port; secure the catheter to prevent traction and urethral trauma |
| Keep the bag below the bladder | And off the floor, with the tubing free of kinks — to prevent reflux, which is a direct route for organisms into the bladder |
| Review daily and remove | The single most effective measure. Automatic stop orders, nurse-initiated removal protocols and daily reminders all reduce catheter-days and hence infection |
| What does not help | Routine catheter changes at fixed intervals; bladder irrigation with antiseptics or antibiotics; instilling antiseptic into the drainage bag; systemic antibiotic prophylaxis; and routine meatal antiseptic application — all of which are still widely practised and none of which is beneficial |
Treatment and Applied Aspects
- Remove the catheter if possible, or replace it if it must stay and has been in place for more than a week; this removes the biofilm and measurably improves the response to treatment
- Treat symptomatic infection with a 7-day course guided by culture and local resistance patterns, and de-escalate when sensitivities are available; longer courses are needed for delayed response or bacteraemia
- Do not treat asymptomatic bacteriuria or candiduria; for candiduria in a catheterised patient, removing or changing the catheter clears most cases without any antifungal
- Ask daily whether the catheter is still needed, and record the indication; in practice a large proportion of catheters in Indian wards have no current indication and are simply never removed
- Educate about bag position; a drainage bag placed on the bed or lifted above the bladder during transfer allows reflux, and this is among the commonest observed lapses
- Consider Proteus when a catheter blocks repeatedly or the urine is alkaline and encrusted; a urease-producing organism will continue to block catheters until it is addressed
Definition and Pathogenesis
Ventilator-associated pneumonia (VAP) is pneumonia developing more than 48 hours after endotracheal intubation and mechanical ventilation. It is the commonest healthcare-associated infection in intensive care and carries the highest attributable mortality.
- Early-onset VAP (within 4 days) is caused by relatively sensitive community organisms — Streptococcus pneumoniae, Haemophilus influenzae, methicillin-sensitive S. Aureus
- Late-onset VAP (after 4 days) is caused by multidrug-resistant hospital flora — Pseudomonas aeruginosa, Acinetobacter baumannii, Klebsiella and MRSA. This distinction drives the choice of empirical treatment
- The central mechanism is microaspiration of contaminated oropharyngeal secretions that pool above the endotracheal tube cuff and leak past it into the lower airway
- The endotracheal tube itself is the problem — it bypasses the natural defences of the upper airway, splints the glottis open, abolishes effective cough, impairs mucociliary clearance, and provides a biofilm surface from which organisms are showered into the lung with each suction or bagging
- Contributing factors — supine position; enteral feeding with gastric distension; sedation and paralysis abolishing cough; gastric alkalinisation by stress ulcer prophylaxis, permitting gastric bacterial overgrowth; contaminated ventilator circuits, humidifiers and nebulisers; and prior antibiotics selecting resistant flora
CLINICAL PEARL
The tube that is keeping the patient alive is also what is infecting them. Every protective mechanism of the upper airway — the glottis, the cough, mucociliary clearance — is disabled by the endotracheal tube, and its surface grows a biofilm inches from the alveoli. This is why no VAP prevention measure is as effective as extubating the patient, and why the most successful bundles are built around daily sedation interruption and spontaneous breathing trials rather than around antiseptics.
Diagnosis
- Diagnosis is genuinely difficult, because every element of the definition is common in ventilated patients for other reasons — infiltrates from oedema, atelectasis or ARDS; fever from any inflammatory process; and a raised white count from critical illness
- Clinical criteria — a new or progressive radiographic infiltrate together with at least two of: fever or hypothermia, leucocytosis or leucopenia, purulent tracheal secretions, and worsening oxygenation. The Clinical Pulmonary Infection Score (CPIS) formalises this
- Microbiology — quantitative culture is used to separate infection from colonisation, since every ventilated airway is colonised: endotracheal aspirate ≥106 CFU/mL; bronchoalveolar lavage ≥104; protected specimen brush ≥103
- Take the specimen before starting or changing antibiotics, or the culture becomes uninterpretable and de-escalation becomes impossible
- Blood cultures, pleural fluid where present, and biomarkers such as procalcitonin, which are more useful for deciding when to stop antibiotics than for deciding when to start them
The Vap Prevention Bundle
| Element | Rationale |
|---|---|
| Head-OF-bed elevation to 30–45 degrees | Reduces gastro-oesophageal reflux and microaspiration; simple, free, and frequently not done |
| Daily sedation interruption and assessment of readiness to extubate | Shortens ventilator days, which is the dominant risk factor — the most effective element of the bundle |
| Oral care with chlorhexidine | Reduces the oropharyngeal bacterial load that is aspirated (though the evidence has been questioned in some populations) |
| Subglottic secretion drainage | A specially designed tube removes the pooled secretions sitting above the cuff — the very fluid that leaks into the lung |
| Maintain cuff pressure at 20–30 cm H2O | Too low permits leakage past the cuff; too high causes tracheal mucosal ischaemia |
| Prefer non-invasive ventilation and oral intubation | Avoiding the tube altogether is best; nasal intubation predisposes to sinusitis and thence to VAP |
| Peptic ulcer and DVT prophylaxis; early enteral feeding | Part of the standard bundle, though acid suppression itself slightly increases pneumonia risk and should be given only where indicated |
| Circuit management | Change circuits only when soiled or malfunctioning, not routinely; drain condensate away from the patient; use sterile water in humidifiers |
| Hand hygiene and gloves for airway contact | Standard precautions applied at every suction |
Treatment and Applied Aspects
- Start empirical treatment promptly once specimens are taken, guided by early versus late onset, prior antibiotic exposure and the local antibiogram — which differs greatly between units and is the only rational basis for the choice
- DE-escalate at 48 to 72 hours on the culture result, and treat for 7 days in most cases; shorter courses are as effective as longer ones and select less resistance
- Stop antibiotics if VAP is not confirmed and another explanation for the infiltrate emerges; continuing "just in case" is how intensive care units generate their own resistant flora
- Extubate as early as it is safe to do so; every additional ventilator day adds risk, and no bundle element matters as much
- Audit bundle compliance rather than assuming it; bundles work only when every element is performed every time, and head-of-bed elevation in particular is commonly documented but not maintained
- Acinetobacter outbreaks are characteristic of Indian ICUs, and are driven by environmental persistence on ventilators, monitors and bed rails — so control requires thorough environmental cleaning and contact precautions, not only better antibiotics
Definition and Pathogenesis
A central line-associated bloodstream infection (CLABSI) is a laboratory-confirmed bloodstream infection in a patient who has had a central line in place for more than 2 days, with no other identifiable source.
- It is the most costly healthcare-associated infection per episode and carries substantial mortality, but is also among the most preventable — several large programmes have driven rates close to zero, which changed the field's view of what is achievable
- Four routes of infection:
- (1) extraluminal migration of skin flora along the outside of the catheter from the insertion site — the commonest route in short-term catheters, which is why skin antisepsis and insertion technique matter most
- (2) intraluminal contamination of the hub from repeated handling — the commonest route in long-term catheters, which is why hub disinfection and minimising line access matter most
- (3) haematogenous seeding from a distant infection
- (4) Contaminated infusate, which is rare but causes clusters
- Biofilm forms on both surfaces within days, sheltering organisms from antibiotics and from host defences — the reason that a line infection frequently cannot be cured with the line in place
- Organisms — coagulase-negative staphylococci (much the commonest, and also the commonest blood culture contaminant, which creates real interpretive difficulty), S. Aureus (the most dangerous, with a high rate of metastatic complications), Enterococcus, gram-negative bacilli, and candida, particularly with parenteral nutrition
- Risk factors — femoral site (highest risk), then internal jugular, with subclavian the lowest; emergency insertion; multiple lumens; duration; parenteral nutrition; and frequency of line access
CLINICAL PEARL
The central line bundle is the clearest demonstration that "inevitable" infections often are not. Before the Keystone ICU project, a background rate of catheter infections was accepted as a cost of intensive care. Five simple steps — none of them new — applied together and audited every time, with nurses empowered to stop the procedure if a step was skipped, reduced rates to near zero and held them there. The active ingredient was not the knowledge but the reliability of execution.
The Insertion and Maintenance Bundles
| Insertion bundle | Detail |
|---|---|
| Hand hygiene | Before donning sterile equipment |
| Maximal sterile barrier precautions | Cap, mask, sterile gown, sterile gloves and a full-body sterile drape — not merely a small fenestrated towel |
| Chlorhexidine skin antisepsis | 2% chlorhexidine in alcohol, applied with friction and allowed TO dry; superior to povidone-iodine |
| Optimal site selection | Avoid the femoral vein where possible; subclavian has the lowest infection risk, balanced against a higher mechanical risk. Ultrasound guidance reduces attempts and trauma |
| Daily review of line necessity, with prompt removal | The single most effective element |
| A checklist and the authority to stop | An observer, usually a nurse, confirms each step and is explicitly empowered to halt a non-emergency insertion if a step is omitted — the cultural change that makes the technical steps reliable |
- Maintenance measures — "scrub the hub", disinfecting the access port with alcohol or chlorhexidine for 15 seconds and allowing it to dry before every access; aseptic technique for all line handling; a transparent semipermeable dressing changed every 7 days or when soiled or loose (gauze every 2 days); chlorhexidine-impregnated dressings in high-risk patients; minimising the number of lumens and of access episodes; and replacing administration sets no more often than every 96 hours (but within 24 hours for lipid emulsions and blood)
- Do not change catheters routinely at fixed intervals, and do not exchange over a guidewire to prevent infection — both increase risk without benefit
- Do not give systemic antibiotic prophylaxis for line insertion or maintenance
Diagnosis, Treatment and Applied Aspects
- Paired blood cultures — drawn simultaneously from the catheter and from a peripheral vein, before antibiotics. Two findings support a line source: differential time TO positivity, with the catheter sample turning positive at least 2 hours earlier (reflecting a higher inoculum from the line); and a higher quantitative colony count from the line
- Catheter tip culture by the MAKI semi-quantitative roll plate method, with ≥15 colonies significant; the tip is cultured only when infection is suspected, never routinely
- Distinguishing contamination from infection — a single bottle growing coagulase-negative staphylococci in a well patient is usually a contaminant; growth in both paired sets, or in repeated sets, indicates true infection
- Remove the line in severe sepsis or shock, in persistent bacteraemia after 72 hours of appropriate treatment, in suppurative thrombophlebitis or tunnel infection, and always with S. Aureus, candida, Pseudomonas and mycobacteria — these are not salvageable and attempting to keep the line causes deaths
- Antibiotic lock therapy — instilling a high concentration into the lumen — may be used with systemic treatment to attempt salvage of a long-term tunnelled line infected with a less virulent organism
- Duration and complications — 5 to 7 days after removal for coagulase-negative staphylococci; at least 14 days for S. Aureus, with echocardiography to exclude endocarditis and a search for metastatic foci; and 14 days after the first negative culture for Candida, with fundoscopy
- Ask daily whether the line is needed — the same discipline as with urinary catheters and ventilators, and the same reason it works
The Risk
A sharps or needlestick injury is percutaneous inoculation, or contact of broken skin or mucous membrane, with blood or another potentially infectious body fluid. It is the commonest occupational exposure in healthcare.
| Virus | Risk per percutaneous exposure to a positive source | Prevention |
|---|---|---|
| Hepatitis B | Up to 30% (about 6 to 30%, higher if the source is HBeAg positive) — roughly 100 times more transmissible than HIV | An effective vaccine exists; this is the one that is entirely preventable in advance |
| Hepatitis C | About 1.8% (1 to 3%) | NO vaccine and NO effective post-exposure prophylaxis; monitoring, with early treatment if infection occurs |
| HIV | About 0.3% percutaneous; about 0.09% for mucous membrane exposure — much lower than is generally feared | Post-exposure prophylaxis, which is highly effective |
- Factors increasing risk — a deep injury, visible blood on the device, a hollow-bore needle (which carries more blood than a suture needle), a needle that was in the source's artery or vein, and a high viral load in the source
- Commonest circumstances — recapping needles, disposal-related injuries, handling used sharps left on trolleys or beds, injury during suturing, and injuries to housekeeping and waste staff from improperly discarded sharps — a group at high risk and frequently overlooked
- Under-reporting is the norm, particularly among doctors and surgeons, and it is the main obstacle to prophylaxis being given in time
CLINICAL PEARL
Hepatitis B is the greatest risk and the only one you can eliminate before it happens. It is about a hundred times more transmissible than HIV, yet attention and anxiety after a needlestick focus almost entirely on HIV. A healthcare worker who is vaccinated and has documented anti-HBs above 10 mIU/mL is protected, needs no hepatitis B prophylaxis after any exposure, and has removed the largest component of occupational risk permanently. Every student should be vaccinated and have the antibody titre checked.
Immediate Management
- 1. First aid immediately — wash the wound with soap and running water
- irrigate mucous membranes and eyes copiously with water or saline.
- Do not squeeze, scrub, or apply bleach, alcohol or antiseptic to the wound, and do not suck it — these damage tissue and do not reduce transmission → 2.
- Report immediately to the designated officer — delay is the main reason prophylaxis fails → 3.
- Assess the exposure — the fluid involved, the route, the depth, and the device → 4.
- Assess the source — test for HBsAg, anti-HCV and HIV with consent, using a rapid test where available → 5.
- Assess the exposed person — hepatitis B vaccination status and anti-HBs titre, and baseline HIV, HCV and liver function → 6.
- Give prophylaxis as indicated — and for HIV, within hours, ideally within 2 and certainly within 72 → 7.
- Counsel, follow up and document
| Virus | Post-exposure action |
|---|---|
| Hepatitis B | If the exposed person is vaccinated and a known responder (anti-HBs above 10) — nothing is needed. If unvaccinated or a non-responder, and the source is positive or unknown — hepatitis B immunoglobulin plus the vaccine course, started within 24 hours and certainly within 7 days |
| Hepatitis C | NO immunoglobulin and NO prophylaxis. Baseline and follow-up anti-HCV, with HCV RNA at 4 to 6 weeks; if seroconversion occurs, early direct-acting antiviral treatment cures over 95% |
| HIV | PEP with a three-drug regimen — in India commonly tenofovir, lamivudine and dolutegravir — for 28 days, started as soon as possible, ideally within 2 hours. The first dose should not wait for formal counselling or for the source result. Follow-up testing at 6 weeks, 3 months and 6 months |
| Tetanus | Consider prophylaxis for a contaminated injury |
Prevention and Applied Aspects
- Never recap a needle; if recapping is unavoidable, use the one-handed scoop technique. Recapping remains the commonest single cause of injury
- Dispose of the sharp yourself, immediately, at the point OF use, into a puncture-proof container that is sealed at three-quarters full — never pass a used sharp to another person and never leave one on a trolley or bed
- Use safety-engineered devices where available — retractable needles, needleless connectors, blunt suture needles — and needle destroyers, which are widely used in India
- Adopt the "hands-free" or neutral zone technique in theatre, placing sharps in a designated tray rather than passing them hand to hand; and announce sharps
- Vaccinate against hepatitis B and check the response — this is the most important single measure, and every medical and nursing student should be vaccinated before clinical contact
- Report every exposure, however trivial it seems and however senior the person; under-reporting by doctors is well documented and denies them prophylaxis and follow-up they may need
- Universal precautions protect against all three viruses at once, and are applied to every patient rather than to those known to be infected — because most infectious sources are not known to be infectious at the time
- Do not delay PEP for the source result; start it and stop it later if the source proves negative, since effectiveness falls sharply with every hour
WHY Healthcare Workers Need Protection
- Healthcare workers are at increased risk of several vaccine-preventable infections, and can also transmit them to vulnerable patients — so immunisation protects the worker and the patient equally
- Occupational transmission to patients is well documented for hepatitis B, influenza, measles, varicella and pertussis; a single infectious worker in a neonatal unit or oncology ward can cause an outbreak
- The obligation is therefore twofold — an employer duty to offer and fund immunisation and to keep records, and a professional duty of the worker to accept protection against infections they might pass to patients
| Vaccine | Recommendation and notes |
|---|---|
| Hepatitis B | Essential and the most important. Three doses at 0, 1 and 6 months, with anti-HBs checked 1 to 2 months after the last dose. A titre above 10 mIU/mL indicates protection and no boosters are needed. Non-responders (5 to 10%) are given a second full course; persistent non-responders must be identified, since they need immunoglobulin after any exposure. Should be completed before clinical contact begins |
| Influenza | Annual vaccination, chiefly to protect patients — staff frequently work through mild illness and shed virus before symptoms. Uptake is poor in India and worldwide |
| MMR (measles, mumps, rubella) | Two doses for those without documented immunity; measles is highly transmissible in waiting rooms, and rubella immunity matters for staff working with pregnant women. Live vaccine — contraindicated in pregnancy and significant immunosuppression |
| Varicella | Two doses for staff without a history of chickenpox or documented immunity, particularly those working with neonates, oncology and transplant patients. Live vaccine |
| Tdap (tetanus, diphtheria, pertussis) | Especially for those working with infants, who are the group at greatest risk from pertussis and too young to be fully immunised themselves |
| Typhoid | For laboratory staff handling Salmonella and in high-prevalence settings; recommended in Indian practice |
| COVID-19 | As per prevailing national policy |
| Meningococcal, rabies, polio, hepatitis A | For specific exposures — laboratory staff working with N. Meningitidis; those handling rabies specimens or animals; and as locally indicated |
| BCG | Not routinely recommended for adult healthcare workers in India, where most are already vaccinated and exposure is universal; protection against adult pulmonary tuberculosis is poor. Prevention rests on ventilation, early diagnosis and respirators |
CLINICAL PEARL
Influenza vaccination of staff is mainly for the patients. A young healthy doctor gains modest personal benefit — which is why uptake is poor. But influenza is transmissible before symptoms appear, and staff characteristically work through mild illness. Vaccinating staff reduces mortality among patients in long-term care measurably. The case for it is professional rather than personal, and it needs to be argued on those terms.
Other Aspects of Staff Health
- Pre-employment assessment — immunisation history and serology, and screening for tuberculosis in high-burden settings
- Tuberculosis — the most important occupational infection in Indian healthcare, with rates in health workers several times those of the general population. Control depends on administrative measures (triage, prompt diagnosis, separating coughing patients, treating early), environmental measures (natural ventilation, which is cheap and highly effective in Indian conditions, and negative-pressure rooms where available) and personal protection (fit-tested N95 respirators). Staff should have a low threshold for investigating their own persistent cough
- Exclusion from work — staff with diarrhoea or vomiting should stay away until 48 hours after symptoms resolve; those with infectious conjunctivitis, herpetic whitlow, exudative skin lesions, chickenpox, measles or infectious tuberculosis must be excluded. The culture of working through illness is a genuine patient safety hazard and requires that sick leave be practically available
- Pregnant staff need advice on rubella, varicella, parvovirus B19, cytomegalovirus and toxoplasma exposure, and may need reassignment
- Blood-borne virus infected workers — those infected with hepatitis B, hepatitis C or HIV require occupational health assessment, may need restriction from exposure-prone procedures depending on viral load and national guidance, and are entitled to confidentiality and to continued employment where safe
- Occupational health also covers latex allergy, chemical exposure to glutaraldehyde and cytotoxic drugs, radiation, violence at work, and psychological wellbeing and burnout, which affect performance and therefore patient safety
Applied Aspects
- Complete hepatitis B vaccination before clinical contact begins, and have the antibody titre checked; a student who starts clinical work unvaccinated is taking an avoidable risk in the very setting where exposure is likeliest
- Know your own anti-HBs status — it determines what happens after a needlestick, and looking it up in a crisis is too late
- Do not work with diarrhoea or fever; the professional instinct to carry on is misplaced when the risk falls on patients who cannot choose
- Ventilation is the cheapest tuberculosis control measure in Indian hospitals — opening windows and using cross-ventilation in waiting areas and outpatient departments achieves a great deal at no cost
- Live vaccines are contraindicated in pregnancy and immunosuppression, which affects MMR and varicella; plan them accordingly
- An occupational health service is not a luxury; without one, exposures go unreported, immunisation is patchy, and infected staff continue working — and all three of these are patient safety problems as much as staff welfare ones
Bacteriological Examination of Water
- The purpose is not to find pathogens — they are present intermittently and in small numbers, and testing for each would be impossible. The purpose is to detect faecal contamination, which implies that pathogens may be present
- An indicator organism must be: present whenever faecal contamination is present and absent otherwise; present in larger numbers than the pathogens; survive longer in water than the pathogens (so its absence guarantees theirs); not multiply in water; and be easily and cheaply detected
| Indicator | Significance |
|---|---|
| escherichia coli | The ideal and definitive indicator — it is exclusively of faecal origin, so its presence means recent faecal contamination |
| Coliforms (total) | Lactose-fermenting gram-negative bacilli; some occur in soil and vegetation, so a positive result is suggestive but not proof |
| Thermotolerant (faecal) coliforms | Grow at 44°C; a more specific indicator of faecal origin |
| Streptococcus faecalis (enterococci) | Survives longer than E. Coli; indicates more remote contamination |
| Clostridium perfringens | Spores survive for very long periods, so its presence with no E. Coli indicates old or intermittent contamination |
- Methods — the multiple tube (presumptive coliform count) method, in which tubes of MacConkey broth are inoculated and acid and gas production recorded, giving the most probable number (MPN) per 100 mL from statistical tables; the membrane filtration method, which is faster and gives a direct colony count and is now preferred; and the rapid H2S strip test, a cheap presence-or-absence field test widely used in India
- Standard for drinking water (WHO and BIS) — E. Coli or thermotolerant coliforms must be absent in any 100 mL sample. No level of faecal contamination is acceptable in drinking water
- Sampling — in sterile bottles containing sodium thiosulphate to neutralise residual chlorine (or the chlorine continues to act during transport and gives a falsely clean result); transported at 4°C and examined within 6 hours
- Chemical and physical parameters — residual chlorine (0.5 mg/L after 30 minutes contact), pH, turbidity, and chemical contaminants including fluoride, arsenic, nitrate and iron, all of which are significant problems in parts of India
CLINICAL PEARL
Water is tested for E. Coli rather than for cholera because the indicator is chosen to be more persistent than what it stands for. If the organism that survives longest is absent, everything more fragile is absent too. Testing directly for Vibrio cholerae would be slower, costlier, and could reassure falsely — a negative result would say nothing about typhoid, hepatitis A or the next pathogen to arrive.
Bacteriological Examination of Milk
- Milk is an excellent culture medium and has historically transmitted tuberculosis (bovine), brucellosis, Q fever, streptococcal infection, salmonellosis, campylobacteriosis and E. Coli O157. Contamination arises from the infected udder, from the handler, from utensils and from water
| Test | Principle |
|---|---|
| Methylene blue reduction test | Bacterial metabolism reduces the dye and decolourises it; the faster the decolourisation, the heavier the bacterial load. Simple and cheap; the standard field test |
| Standard plate count and coliform count | Quantifies total bacteria and detects faecal contamination |
| Phosphatase test | Tests whether pasteurisation was adequate. Alkaline phosphatase is naturally present in raw milk and is destroyed by correct pasteurisation, and it is slightly more heat-resistant than M. Tuberculosis — so a negative phosphatase test guarantees that the pathogens have been killed |
| Turbidity test | Confirms adequate sterilisation (ultra-heat treatment) |
| Brucella ring test (milk ring test) | Herd screening for brucellosis |
- Pasteurisation — the holder (LTLT) method at 63°C for 30 minutes, or the HTST (flash) method at 72°C for 15 seconds, followed by rapid cooling. It kills vegetative pathogens without sterilising the milk or significantly altering its nutritional value or taste
- The phosphatase test is a beautiful piece of indicator logic — rather than looking for the pathogen, it measures an enzyme deliberately chosen to be slightly harder to destroy than the most heat-resistant pathogen concerned
Bacteriological Examination of Air
- Air-borne organisms travel on droplet nuclei, dust and skin scales; the last are a major source in operating theatres, since a person sheds thousands of skin scales per minute
- Settle plate method — open Petri dishes exposed for a defined period; simple and cheap, and it measures the organisms actually settling onto a surface, which is what matters for a wound. It does not sample a known volume of air
- Slit sampler and air centrifuge (Casella, Andersen sampler) — draw a measured volume of air across an agar surface, giving a quantitative count per cubic metre
- Standards — conventional operating theatres should have fewer than about 35 colony-forming units per cubic metre during operation, and ultraclean (laminar flow) theatres used for joint replacement under 10; air changes of 15 to 25 per hour with HEPA filtration and positive pressure relative to adjacent areas
- Routine environmental air sampling is not recommended as a matter of course; it is done to commission or validate a new theatre or air-handling system, after repairs, or to investigate a specific outbreak — and sampling without a hypothesis produces results nobody can interpret
Applied Aspects
- Use sodium thiosulphate bottles for chlorinated water, or residual chlorine will sterilise the sample in transit and the report will be falsely reassuring
- E. Coli must be absent in 100 mL — there is no "acceptable" level of faecal contamination in drinking water, and this is the single standard to remember
- The H2S strip test is a practical field tool for Indian rural water surveillance, requiring no laboratory, no incubator and minimal training
- A negative phosphatase test proves pasteurisation was adequate, which is why it is the regulatory test rather than culture for pathogens
- Boiling remains the most reliable household treatment for suspect water; chlorination is effective for bacteria and most viruses but not for Cryptosporidium, Giardia cysts or amoebic cysts, which need filtration or boiling
- Do not sample the environment routinely — whether air, water or surfaces — outside validation and outbreak investigation; the results are uninterpretable and consume resources better spent on hand hygiene and device care
General Principles
The value of any microbiological report is limited by the quality OF the specimen. A poor specimen cannot be rescued by any laboratory technique, and it produces not merely an unhelpful result but a misleading one, on which a patient may be treated for weeks.
| Principle | Detail |
|---|---|
| The right specimen from the right site | Material from the actual site of infection, not from an adjacent surface. Pus or tissue is always better than a swab of the surface, which grows colonising flora; sputum, not saliva; a deep wound sample, not a swab of the discharge |
| Before antimicrobial therapy | The single most important rule. Even one dose can render a culture sterile while leaving the patient infected — and without a culture, DE-escalation becomes impossible and the patient stays on broad-spectrum treatment |
| Adequate quantity | Organisms may be few; 10 mL of pus tells more than a swab dipped in it. For blood cultures the volume is the single most important determinant of yield |
| Aseptic collection | Skin antisepsis and sterile equipment, to avoid contamination with commensals that will later be impossible to distinguish from pathogens |
| Correct timing | Early-morning sputum and urine (most concentrated); blood cultures at any time, and not only at a fever spike; night blood for microfilariae; midday terminal urine for S. Haematobium; stool early in a diarrhoeal illness |
| Correct container and transport medium | Sterile, leak-proof, appropriate to the organism sought |
| Prompt transport | Ideally within 1 to 2 hours; delay allows commensals to overgrow pathogens and fastidious organisms to die |
| Complete labelling and clinical details | The request form is part of the specimen. Without the clinical question, the suspected organism, the site and the antibiotic history, the laboratory cannot choose the right media, stains or incubation conditions |
CLINICAL PEARL
The request form determines what the laboratory looks for, and a form marked only "C/S" quietly excludes most of microbiology. Routine culture will not detect Mycobacterium, Legionella, anaerobes, fungi, Cryptosporidium, Nocardia or any virus — each needs a different medium, stain, atmosphere or incubation time. The laboratory cannot look for everything on every specimen, so what the clinician writes decides what can possibly be found.
Transport Media and Containers
| Medium or container | Use |
|---|---|
| STUART and AMIES transport media | Semi-solid, non-nutritive media that keep organisms alive without allowing them to multiply — so the proportions of the flora are preserved. Amies with charcoal neutralises inhibitory substances and suits Neisseria gonorrhoeae and Bordetella |
| CARY-BLAIR medium | For stool — preserves Salmonella, Shigella, Vibrio and Campylobacter |
| Alkaline peptone water | Enrichment and transport for vibrio cholerae, which tolerates alkali better than the competing flora |
| Venkatraman-ramakrishnan (VR) medium | An Indian transport medium for cholera stool |
| Viral transport medium | Buffered salt solution with protein and antibiotics to suppress bacterial overgrowth; for respiratory and vesicle swabs |
| Boric acid urine container | Preserves the bacterial count for up to 24 hours where refrigeration or prompt transport is not possible |
| Blood culture bottles | With SPS (sodium polyanethol sulphonate) as anticoagulant, which also inhibits complement, lysozyme and aminoglycosides |
| Anaerobic transport system | Oxygen-free vials or a syringe with the air expelled and the needle capped, for pus and deep tissue |
- Storage — most bacteriological specimens may be refrigerated at 4°C if delayed, with three important exceptions: cerebrospinal fluid (meningococcus and H. Influenzae die on chilling — keep at room temperature or 37°C), Neisseria gonorrhoeae specimens, and blood cultures, which go to the incubator
- Viral specimens go at 4°C for prompt processing or −70°C for storage, never at −20°C
- Triple packaging is required for transporting infectious substances — a leak-proof primary container, absorbent material, a leak-proof secondary container, and a rigid outer package with a biohazard label
Specimen Rejection and Common Errors
- A laboratory that never rejects specimens is not protecting patients, because a result generated from an unsuitable specimen is worse than no result — it carries the same authority and none of the validity
- Grounds for rejection — unlabelled or mislabelled; leaking or broken; wrong container or medium; excessive delay; an inadequate quantity; a duplicate request within a short interval; a dried-out swab; and specimens whose nature makes them uninterpretable
- Specimens that should generally not be cultured at all — the tip of a Foley catheter; a swab of a superficial ulcer or a chronic wound surface; the surface of a decubitus ulcer; vomitus; and a 24-hour sputum or urine collection, which overgrows
- Saliva submitted as sputum is the commonest error in respiratory specimens, and is screened out microscopically before culture
- Rejection must be communicated with an explanation and a repeat request, not merely recorded; the purpose is a better specimen, not a dispute
Processing and Reporting
Macroscopic examination — appearance, consistency, blood, pus, worms or grains → microscopy — a gram stain above all, which gives an answer in minutes and guides immediate treatment; also Ziehl-Neelsen, KOH, India ink, wet mount and immunofluorescence → culture on appropriate media — enriched, selective, differential and enrichment broths — under the correct atmosphere and temperature → identification by colony morphology, biochemical reactions, serology, automated systems or MALDI-TOF → antimicrobial susceptibility testing where clinically relevant → Non-culture methods where needed — antigen detection, serology, molecular tests → reporting — with interpretation, promptly, and with critical results telephoned
- Critical (alert) results are telephoned immediately — a positive blood culture, a positive cerebrospinal fluid Gram stain or culture, acid-fast bacilli in any specimen, and the isolation of an organism of public health importance. A written report arriving the next day is too late
- Selective reporting of susceptibilities — laboratories deliberately withhold reserve agents from the routine report to discourage their use, which is a stewardship intervention operating through the report itself
- Report interpretation, not merely findings — distinguishing probable pathogen from likely contaminant or colonising flora is part of the microbiologist's job and should not be left entirely to the clinician
Choosing the Right Specimen
| Suspected infection | Correct specimen | Common wrong specimen |
|---|---|---|
| Pneumonia | Early-morning sputum, or bronchoalveolar lavage; blood cultures; urinary antigen | Saliva; a throat swab |
| Sinusitis | Antral washout or sinus aspirate | A nasal swab, which reports nasal flora |
| Abscess or wound | Aspirated pus or deep tissue | A swab of the surface or of the discharge |
| Osteomyelitis of the diabetic foot | Bone biopsy or deep tissue | A superficial ulcer swab |
| Urinary infection | Midstream clean-catch urine; suprapubic aspirate in infants | A catheter tip; urine from the drainage bag |
| Enteric fever, week 1 | Blood culture; bone marrow if already treated | Widal in the first week, which is too early |
| Pinworm | Perianal adhesive tape before washing | Stool, which is negative in over 95% |
| Genitourinary tuberculosis | Three early-morning whole urine specimens, concentrated | A single midstream sample |
| Cryptosporidiosis | Stool with a modified acid-fast stain, requested specifically | Routine "stool for ova and cysts", which will not show it |
Applied Aspects
- Take cultures before the first dose of antibiotic; this single habit determines whether the rest of the admission is guided by evidence or by guesswork
- Send pus, not a swab, whenever there is a collection; aspirate it into a syringe and send it, which yields far more organisms and permits anaerobic culture
- Write the clinical details and the suspected diagnosis; the laboratory is a consultant, not a vending machine, and a form marked "C/S" wastes the specimen
- Talk to the microbiologist in a difficult case before sending the specimen rather than after the report; the choice of specimen and test is where the diagnosis is usually won or lost
- A negative culture does not exclude infection — prior antibiotics, fastidious organisms, inadequate volume, wrong medium and delayed transport all produce false negatives, and the clinical picture retains its weight
- A positive culture does not prove infection either; contaminants and colonisers are common, and the report must be interpreted against the site, the specimen quality and the patient
- Label at the bedside, not afterwards; a mislabelled specimen is the most dangerous laboratory error, because it produces a confident result belonging to somebody else
- Do not refrigerate cerebrospinal fluid or gonococcal specimens; the general rule that chilling preserves has two important exceptions and both are clinically costly
Definitions
- Bacteraemia is the presence of viable bacteria in the blood; sepsis is life-threatening organ dysfunction caused by a dysregulated host response to infection; and septic shock is sepsis with circulatory and metabolic abnormality carrying a substantially higher mortality
- Transient bacteraemia follows dental procedures, endoscopy and even tooth-brushing, and is cleared within minutes; intermittent bacteraemia occurs with an abscess; and continuous bacteraemia indicates an intravascular source — endocarditis, an infected line or a mycotic aneurysm
- The pattern matters practically: because endocarditis produces continuous bacteraemia, blood may be drawn at any time, and repeatedly positive cultures with the same organism are themselves evidence for it
Blood Culture Technique
| Element | Requirement and reason |
|---|---|
| Volume — the single most important variable | Bacteraemia is often of low density (fewer than 10 organisms per mL in adults, and sometimes fewer than 1). 8 to 10 mL per bottle and 20 to 30 mL per set in adults; yield rises by about 3% for every additional mL. In neonates and children, 1 to 3 mL according to weight, since their bacteraemia is of higher density |
| Number of sets | Two to three sets from separate venepuncture sites. Two sets detect about 90% and three about 98% of bacteraemias. A single set is inadequate and, crucially, makes it impossible to distinguish contamination from true infection |
| Timing | Draw at any time; it is not necessary to wait for a fever spike, and doing so wastes hours. In suspected endocarditis, three sets are taken over a period before starting treatment where the patient is stable |
| Before antibiotics | Absolutely; a single prior dose substantially reduces yield |
| Skin antisepsis | The main determinant of contamination rates. 2% chlorhexidine in alcohol (or povidone-iodine), applied with friction and allowed TO dry fully — the drying time is the contact time, and not waiting is the commonest error. Do not palpate the vein again after preparing the skin |
| Bottle preparation | Disinfect the rubber septum with alcohol; it is not sterile under the cap |
| Blood-to-broth ratio | 1:5 to 1:10, to dilute out serum bactericidal factors, complement and any antibiotic present; SPS in the bottle also neutralises these |
| Site | Peripheral venepuncture. Do not draw from an existing line, which has a much higher contamination rate — the exception is suspected CLABSI, where a paired line and peripheral sample is deliberately taken |
CLINICAL PEARL
Volume matters more than anything else, and a single small bottle is close to useless. An adult with S. Aureus bacteraemia may have fewer than one organism per millilitre of blood. Drawing 3 mL when 10 is required does not give a slightly less sensitive test — it may sample no organisms at all. Every other refinement of blood culture technique is secondary to filling the bottles properly.
Processing and Interpretation
- Automated continuous-monitoring systems (BacT/alert, BACTEC) detect CO2 production colorimetrically or fluorimetrically every few minutes, flagging positives within hours rather than at daily inspection. Most significant pathogens are detected within 24 to 48 hours; bottles are held for 5 days, and longer for fastidious organisms such as the HACEK group, Brucella and fungi
- On a positive flag — an immediate gram stain is performed and telephoned to the clinician at once, since it narrows the empirical treatment within minutes; subculture follows, with identification and susceptibility testing, and MALDI-TOF or molecular panels applied directly to the positive broth can give an identification within an hour
- Special methods — lysis-centrifugation for fungi and mycobacteria; biphasic (Castaneda) bottles for Brucella; and bone marrow culture, which is the most sensitive test in enteric fever and remains positive despite prior antibiotics
| Finding | Interpretation |
|---|---|
| The same organism in multiple sets | True bacteraemia |
| S. Aureus, S. Pneumoniae, E. Coli and other Enterobacterales, Pseudomonas, Candida, group A streptococcus | Almost always significant, even from a single bottle — never dismissed as contaminants |
| Coagulase-negative staphylococci, Bacillus, Corynebacterium, Cutibacterium, viridans streptococci from a single bottle | Usually contaminants — skin flora introduced during collection. But they are genuine pathogens in the presence of a prosthetic valve, joint or line, so the clinical context decides |
| Growth after a long delay, or in only one of a pair | Favours contamination |
| Polymicrobial growth | Suggests gut or biliary source, or contamination |
| A contamination rate above 3% | Indicates a problem with collection technique, and is itself an audit measure — each false positive costs unnecessary antibiotics, extra tests and prolonged stay |
Pyrexia of Unknown Origin
Pyrexia OF unknown origin (PUO) is a temperature above 38.3°C on several occasions, lasting more than 3 weeks, with no diagnosis after appropriate initial investigation.
- The 3-week criterion excludes self-limiting viral illness, and the "appropriate investigation" criterion excludes fevers that are simply uninvestigated — both are what make the definition useful
- Causes in India — infections predominate (tuberculosis, especially extrapulmonary and miliary; enteric fever; abscesses; infective endocarditis; malaria; kala-azar; brucellosis; HIV and its opportunistic infections); then malignancy (lymphoma, leukaemia, renal cell carcinoma); connective tissue and inflammatory disease (adult Still disease, vasculitis, systemic lupus); and miscellaneous causes including drug fever, which is common and easily reversed
- Tuberculosis is much the commonest cause of PUO in India, and extrapulmonary disease with a normal chest radiograph accounts for most of the diagnostic difficulty
- The approach is a repeated history and examination — travel, animal and occupational exposure, drugs, sexual history, surgery, prostheses, and a careful search for lymphadenopathy, murmurs, skin lesions and fundal changes. Re-examination often yields what the first examination missed
- Investigations — repeated blood cultures; malaria films and rapid tests; tuberculosis workup with sputum, CBNAAT and tissue; HIV testing; serology directed by exposure; imaging including ultrasound, CT and where available FDG-pet; bone marrow aspiration and culture, which is high-yield in India for tuberculosis, kala-azar, histoplasmosis and haematological malignancy; and biopsy of any accessible abnormality
- Avoid empirical "therapeutic trials" where possible — empirical antitubercular treatment is very commonly given in India and obscures the diagnosis for months while committing the patient to hepatotoxic drugs; where it is unavoidable, the endpoint should be defined in advance
- Stop unnecessary drugs; drug fever resolves within 72 hours of withdrawal and is diagnosed no other way
Laboratory Diagnosis of Enteric Fever
| Week of illness | Test with the highest yield | Comment |
|---|---|---|
| Week 1 | Blood culture (about 80% positive) | The definitive test; 10 to 15 mL of blood, since the bacteraemia is of low density. Yield falls sharply after antibiotics |
| Any week, especially after antibiotics | Bone marrow culture (about 90%, the highest of all) | Remains positive despite prior treatment, because antibiotic concentrations in marrow are lower; invasive, so reserved for difficult cases |
| Week 2 onward | WIDAL test (agglutinins to O and H antigens) | A rising titre in paired sera is what matters; a single titre is unreliable in an endemic population where baseline titres are high from past infection and vaccination. Negative in week 1, so it is frequently ordered too early and then wrongly reassures |
| Week 2 to 3 | Stool and urine culture | Positive as excretion begins; also identifies carriers |
| Chronic carriage | Repeated stool culture; bile or duodenal aspirate; Vi antibody | The gallbladder is the reservoir, particularly with gallstones |
| Any stage | Typhidot (IgM), rapid antigen tests, PCR | Convenient but of variable performance; they do not replace culture |
- The Widal test is over-used and over-interpreted in India — ordered in the first week when it is necessarily negative, and acted upon as a single titre when only a rising titre is meaningful. A blood culture in the first week answers the question properly and also gives susceptibilities, which matter given widespread resistance
Applied Aspects
- Fill the bottles — inadequate volume is the commonest reason a blood culture is negative in a genuinely bacteraemic patient
- Take two or three sets from separate sites, so that a coagulase-negative staphylococcus can be interpreted at all; a single set makes the result uninterpretable whichever way it falls
- Let the antiseptic dry before puncturing; this is the commonest cause of a high contamination rate and takes 30 seconds
- Never dismiss S. Aureus in a blood culture — it is essentially never a contaminant, requires a search for endocarditis and metastatic foci, echocardiography, and at least 14 days of treatment
- Do not wait for a fever spike; this is a persistent myth that delays diagnosis and treatment by hours
- Consider bone marrow culture in prolonged fever in India; it is high-yield for enteric fever, tuberculosis and kala-azar together, on a single specimen
- Do not order a Widal in the first week; it is necessarily negative and the negative result is then wrongly taken to exclude enteric fever
- A single Widal titre means little in an endemic population; only a rising titre in paired sera is interpretable, and the test is a poor substitute for a blood culture
- Re-examine the patient in a PUO; a new murmur, a node, a skin lesion or a fundal change appearing over days is frequently what makes the diagnosis when investigation has not
- Review the drug chart in every prolonged fever; drug fever is common, costs nothing to test for, and resolves within 72 hours of stopping the agent
- Avoid an empirical antitubercular trial where the diagnosis can still be pursued; it is common in India, obscures the picture for months and commits the patient to hepatotoxic drugs
Collection of Cerebrospinal Fluid
- Lumbar puncture at L3-L4 or L4-L5 under strict asepsis; the opening pressure must be measured with a manometer, which is diagnostically valuable and is therapeutic in cryptococcal meningitis
- Contraindications — signs of raised intracranial pressure with focal deficits or papilloedema, a suspected space-occupying lesion, bleeding diathesis, and infection at the puncture site. Where imaging is needed first, blood cultures are taken and antibiotics started immediately — the lumbar puncture may wait, the treatment may not
- Three or four sterile tubes, numbered in order — conventionally tube 1 for biochemistry, tube 2 for microbiology, tube 3 for cell count (least contaminated by a traumatic tap) and tube 4 for special tests
- A paired blood glucose must be taken at the same time, ideally shortly before; the cerebrospinal fluid glucose is meaningless without it, since the normal value is a ratio of about two-thirds of the blood level
- Transport immediately and DO not refrigerate — Neisseria meningitidis and Haemophilus influenzae die rapidly at 4°C. The specimen goes at room temperature or 37°C and is processed within an hour. This is among the most frequently violated rules in clinical practice
- Volume — more is better where tuberculosis or fungal infection is suspected, since organisms are scanty; 5 to 10 mL for mycobacterial culture
CLINICAL PEARL
- Do not delay antibiotics for a lumbar puncture, and do not put the sample in the fridge. Bacterial meningitis kills in hours, and the cerebrospinal fluid remains abnormal and often PCR-positive for hours after the first dose — so nothing diagnostic is lost by treating first. What is lost is the culture if the specimen sits at 4°C, because the two commonest bacterial pathogens are killed by chilling.
- Treat early
- transport warm.
Examination of Cerebrospinal Fluid
| Parameter | Normal | Pyogenic | Tuberculous | Viral | Fungal |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| Appearance | Clear, colourless | Turbid or frankly purulent | Clear or slightly opalescent; a cobweb (spider-web) clot may form on standing | Clear | Clear or slightly turbid |
| Cells / mm3 | 0–5 lymphocytes | 1,000–5,000+, polymorphs | 50–500, lymphocytes (polymorphs early) | 10–500, lymphocytes | 20–500, lymphocytes |
| Protein (mg/dL) | 15–45 | 100–500, markedly raised | Very high, 100–500 and sometimes above 1,000 | Normal or mildly raised | Raised |
| Glucose | Two-thirds of blood level (45–80) | Markedly low, often under 40% of blood | Low | Normal — the key discriminator | Low |
| Pressure | 10–20 cm H2O | Raised | Raised | Normal or mildly raised | Very high in cryptococcal disease |
| Key test | — | Gram stain and culture; antigen tests | ZIEHL-neelsen and CBNAAT; culture | PCR | INDIA ink and cryptococcal antigen |
- A low cerebrospinal fluid glucose is the single most useful discriminator between bacterial, tuberculous and fungal meningitis on the one hand and viral meningitis on the other, and it can be available within minutes
- Early bacterial meningitis may show few cells, particularly in the neutropenic and the very young, and early tuberculous meningitis may show a polymorph predominance that later shifts to lymphocytes — so the pattern must be read alongside the clinical picture rather than mechanically
- A traumatic tap is distinguished from subarachnoid haemorrhage by clearing of the blood between successive tubes and the absence of xanthochromia after centrifugation; a correction of about 1 white cell per 500 to 1,000 red cells may be applied, but heavily blood-stained fluid is best interpreted cautiously
Microbiological Tests
- Gram stain of the centrifuged deposit — positive in 60 to 90% of untreated pyogenic meningitis, and it identifies the organism within minutes: gram-negative intracellular diplococci (meningococcus), gram-positive lanceolate diplococci (pneumococcus), gram-negative coccobacilli (H. Influenzae), and gram-positive bacilli (Listeria) in neonates, the elderly and the immunosuppressed
- Culture on blood and chocolate agar in 5 to 10% CO2, with enrichment broth; the reference standard, though it is often negative after antibiotics
- ZIEHL-neelsen stain on the deposit or on the cobweb clot for tuberculosis — insensitive, so a negative result means little; CBNAAT (Xpert MTB/RIF Ultra) is far more sensitive, gives a result in hours and simultaneously reports rifampicin resistance; and mycobacterial culture on liquid media
- INDIA ink for Cryptococcus, and the cryptococcal antigen lateral flow assay, which is more than 95% sensitive and is the test of choice
- Antigen detection by latex agglutination for meningococcus, pneumococcus, H. Influenzae type b and group B streptococcus — useful chiefly in partially treated meningitis where culture has been sterilised
- Molecular tests — multiplex meningitis and encephalitis PCR panels covering the common bacteria, viruses and Cryptococcus in a single run; HSV PCR is the test of choice in encephalitis and has replaced brain biopsy
- Where the fluid is likely to be sterilised by prior treatment, blood cultures, antigen tests and PCR retain their yield and should all be used
Likely Organisms BY Age and Host
| Group | Commonest organisms | Practical point |
|---|---|---|
| Neonate | Group B streptococcus, E. Coli, listeria; and in India Klebsiella, Acinetobacter and S. Aureus | Presentation is non-specific; Listeria requires ampicillin, which cephalosporins do not cover |
| Infants and children | S. Pneumoniae, N. Meningitidis, H. Influenzae type b | Hib and pneumococcal conjugate vaccination have greatly reduced the first and third |
| Adolescents and young adults | N. Meningitidis, S. Pneumoniae | Outbreaks in hostels and among pilgrims; a purpuric rash demands immediate treatment before any investigation |
| Older adults | S. Pneumoniae, Listeria, gram-negative bacilli | Add ampicillin for Listeria above 50 years |
| Post-neurosurgical, shunt or head injury | Staphylococci, gram-negative bacilli including Pseudomonas | Shunt infection usually requires removal of the device |
| Immunosuppressed and HIV | cryptococcus, M. Tuberculosis, Listeria, Toxoplasma | Presentation is subacute with few signs; cryptococcal antigen and CBNAAT should be sent routinely |
| Any age in India | Tuberculous meningitis | Must be considered in every subacute or lymphocytic meningitis; treatment is often started on clinical grounds |
Applied Aspects
- Give the first dose of antibiotic within an hour of suspicion, taking blood cultures first; every hour of delay in bacterial meningitis worsens the outcome measurably
- Add dexamethasone before or with the first dose in suspected pneumococcal meningitis, which reduces hearing loss and mortality; giving it afterwards is of little value
- Do not refrigerate the specimen, and take it to the laboratory yourself if necessary; a sample left in a fridge overnight will often grow nothing
- Take the paired blood glucose, which is forgotten remarkably often and renders the most useful single parameter uninterpretable
- Start empirical antitubercular treatment on clinical suspicion in India where the picture fits, since confirmation is slow and insensitive and delay causes permanent damage; but send CBNAAT and culture first
- Measure and manage the opening pressure in cryptococcal meningitis; repeated therapeutic lumbar puncture saves sight and life independently of the antifungal
- Cover Listeria with ampicillin in neonates, in adults over 50 and in the immunosuppressed; cephalosporins do not treat it, and this is a common gap in empirical regimens
- A normal cell count does not exclude meningitis in the neutropenic or the very young, who cannot mount a cellular response
- Send cryptococcal antigen and CBNAAT routinely on cerebrospinal fluid in an HIV-positive patient, since both cryptococcal and tuberculous meningitis are common and present subacutely
- Distinguish a traumatic tap from subarachnoid haemorrhage by comparing successive tubes and looking for xanthochromia after centrifugation
- Antigen tests and PCR retain their yield after antibiotics, which makes them particularly valuable in the partially treated patient who arrives having already had a dose elsewhere — a very common Indian presentation
- Send enough fluid for mycobacterial work — 5 to 10 mL — since bacilli are scanty in tuberculous meningitis and a small volume guarantees a negative result
- Look for the cobweb clot on standing, which is characteristic of tuberculous meningitis and is itself a good specimen for Ziehl-Neelsen staining
- Purpura with fever is meningococcal disease until proved otherwise, and parenteral antibiotics are given immediately, before transfer and before any investigation
- Imaging before lumbar puncture delays nothing if antibiotics are given first; the rule is to take blood cultures, treat, and then image and tap
- Multiplex panels give an answer in an hour but must be read alongside the cell count, protein and glucose, since detecting nucleic acid is not the same as establishing the cause
- An early tuberculous meningitis may show polymorphs and only later become lymphocytic, so the cell type at a single time point should not exclude it
- Repeat the lumbar puncture if the picture does not fit; the evolution over 24 to 48 hours is often more informative than the first sample
- Latex antigen tests earn their place in partially treated meningitis, where culture has been sterilised but antigen remains detectable
Upper Respiratory Tract Specimens
| Specimen | Indication and technique |
|---|---|
| Throat swab | Rubbed firmly over both tonsils and the posterior pharyngeal wall, and over any exudate, avoiding the tongue, uvula and saliva. For group A streptococcus, diphtheria and viral studies. Rapid antigen tests for group A streptococcus are available |
| Swabs for diphtheria | Taken from beneath the edge of the membrane, since the organism lies at its base; send three swabs and inform the laboratory, which will need Loeffler serum slope and tellurite medium |
| Nasopharyngeal swab or aspirate | Passed along the floor of the nose to the nasopharynx; for viruses, Bordetella pertussis and meningococcal carriage. A per-nasal swab on a flexible wire is used for pertussis |
| Nasal swab | For S. Aureus carriage screening (the anterior nares), not for diagnosing sinusitis |
| Ear swab | From the discharge in otitis externa or a perforated otitis media, after cleaning the canal |
| Antral washout or sinus aspirate | The only reliable specimen in sinusitis; a nasal swab reflects nasal flora and is uninterpretable |
Sputum
- Collect early morning sputum, which has pooled overnight and has the highest yield; the patient rinses the mouth with water first (not antiseptic), takes a deep breath and coughs from the chest, into a wide-mouthed sterile container
- The specimen must be sputum, not saliva — this is the commonest error in all of clinical microbiology, and the laboratory screens for it microscopically before culturing
- Quality is assessed by low-power microscopy — a satisfactory specimen has more than 25 pus cells and fewer than 10 squamous epithelial cells per low-power field. Squamous cells come from the mouth, so their presence means the specimen is saliva. An unsatisfactory specimen is rejected and repeated, since culturing it would report oral flora as though it were a pathogen
- Where the patient cannot expectorate — induced sputum with nebulised hypertonic saline (an aerosol-generating procedure requiring respiratory protection); gastric lavage in the early morning for children and infants with tuberculosis, who swallow their sputum; bronchoalveolar lavage or protected specimen brush with quantitative culture; and pleural fluid or lung aspirate
- For tuberculosis — under India's programme, two samples (spot and early morning) are examined by fluorescence microscopy after Ziehl-Neelsen or auramine staining; CBNAAT (Xpert MTB/RIF) is now the recommended initial test in many situations, detecting the organism and rifampicin resistance in about 2 hours; liquid culture (MGIT) takes 2 to 3 weeks against 6 to 8 for solid Lowenstein-Jensen medium and remains the reference standard for drug susceptibility
CLINICAL PEARL
Twenty-five pus cells and fewer than ten squamous cells is the difference between a lung specimen and a mouth specimen. Squamous epithelial cells can only have come from the oropharynx, so their abundance proves the sample is saliva carrying oral flora — and culturing it will grow viridans streptococci, Neisseria and Candida, which will then be treated. Screening the specimen before culturing it prevents a wrong diagnosis, which is why a good laboratory rejects samples rather than obliging.
Processing and Interpretation
- Gram stain — a predominant organism with pus cells and few squamous cells supports its significance: gram-positive lanceolate diplococci (S. Pneumoniae), gram-negative coccobacilli (H. Influenzae), gram-positive cocci in clusters (S. Aureus), gram-negative bacilli
- Culture on blood and chocolate agar with CO2, and MacConkey; semi-quantitative reporting to indicate predominance
- The interpretive difficulty is that the upper airway is heavily colonised, so growth of an organism does not prove it is causing the pneumonia; the Gram stain, the quantity and the clinical picture decide
- Quantitative thresholds for lower respiratory specimens — bronchoalveolar lavage ≥104, protected specimen brush ≥103, endotracheal aspirate ≥106 colony-forming units per mL
- Organisms that are always significant when isolated from a respiratory specimen — Mycobacterium tuberculosis, Legionella, Nocardia, Histoplasma, Pneumocystis, influenza and SARS-CoV-2 — because none is a normal coloniser
- Organisms requiring special methods — Legionella (buffered charcoal yeast extract agar; urinary antigen is the practical test); Mycoplasma and Chlamydophila (serology and PCR, since culture is impractical); Bordetella pertussis (Bordet-Gengou or Regan-Lowe medium, and PCR); and viruses (PCR on a nasopharyngeal swab)
- Blood cultures should accompany sputum in pneumonia severe enough to require admission, and pneumococcal and Legionella urinary antigen tests are rapid and remain positive after antibiotics have begun
Laboratory Diagnosis of Tuberculosis
| Test | Performance and use |
|---|---|
| Smear microscopy (Ziehl-Neelsen or auramine fluorescence) | Requires 10,000 bacilli per mL, so it is insensitive — positive in perhaps half of pulmonary cases and far fewer extrapulmonary ones. But it is cheap, rapid, and identifies the most infectious patients, which is why it remains the backbone of programmes |
| CBNAAT (Xpert MTB/RIF Ultra) | Detects the organism and rifampicin resistance in about 2 hours from a closed cartridge at BSL-2; far more sensitive than smear, and now the recommended initial test in many situations under India’s programme |
| Liquid culture (MGIT) | 2 to 3 weeks, against 6 to 8 for Lowenstein-Jensen solid medium; the reference standard and the basis of full drug susceptibility testing. Requires BSL-3 |
| Line probe assay | Detects mutations conferring resistance to first- and second-line drugs |
| Tuberculin skin test and IGRA | Detect infection, not disease, and cannot distinguish latent from active tuberculosis — of very limited value in a highly endemic population where most adults are positive |
| Histopathology and ADA | Caseating granulomas in tissue; adenosine deaminase in pleural, ascitic and cerebrospinal fluid supports the diagnosis |
- Extrapulmonary tuberculosis is paucibacillary, so smears are usually negative and the diagnosis rests on tissue, CBNAAT, culture and the clinical picture together
Applied Aspects
- Look at the specimen before sending it; watery clear saliva is not sputum, and sending it wastes a day and generates a misleading report
- Send two samples for tuberculosis and request CBNAAT where available; a single negative smear excludes very little, and CBNAAT also reports rifampicin resistance immediately
- Consider gastric lavage in children, who swallow rather than expectorate sputum, and take it early in the morning before the stomach empties
- Do not culture a nasal swab for sinusitis or a throat swab for pneumonia; the specimen must come from the site of infection or the report describes commensals
- Use urinary antigen tests in severe community-acquired pneumonia; they are rapid, unaffected by prior antibiotics, and detect the two pathogens whose treatment differs most
- A sputum culture growing Candida essentially never means pneumonia in an immunocompetent adult, and treating it is a common and avoidable error
- A negative smear does not exclude tuberculosis, since about half of pulmonary cases and most extrapulmonary ones are smear-negative; CBNAAT and culture are needed
- The tuberculin test cannot diagnose active disease in India, where most adults are already infected; it answers a question nobody is asking
- Take a throat swab from both tonsils and the pharyngeal wall, avoiding the tongue; a swab wiped over the tongue reports oral flora
- Warn the laboratory when diphtheria is suspected, since it requires Loeffler slope and tellurite medium that are not set up routinely, and treatment with antitoxin cannot wait for confirmation
- Blood cultures in pneumonia are worth taking in anyone ill enough for admission; they are positive in a minority but give an unambiguous answer with susceptibilities when they are
- Induced sputum and bronchoscopy are aerosol-generating, and require respiratory protection and preferably a ventilated room where tuberculosis is possible
- Gastric lavage before the child rises is the practical way to obtain tuberculosis specimens in infants, who swallow their sputum rather than expectorating it
- CBNAAT reports rifampicin resistance at the same time, which is why it has value beyond speed — it identifies the patients who need a different regimen from the outset
- A rejected sputum specimen is a service, not an obstruction; culturing saliva would report oral commensals with the authority of a laboratory report
- Legionella needs a urinary antigen test, since it will not grow on routine media and is otherwise missed entirely in severe community-acquired pneumonia
- Serology is the practical route for Mycoplasma and Chlamydophila, which cannot be cultured routinely; PCR where available
- Nasopharyngeal swabs are for viruses and pertussis, not for diagnosing lower respiratory infection, and the site sampled must match the question asked
- Two sputum samples, spot and early morning, are the programme standard for tuberculosis in India; a single sample lowers the yield appreciably
- Fluorescence microscopy reads more fields in less time than Ziehl-Neelsen and is now standard in Indian programme laboratories, raising sensitivity without any new specimen
- Culture remains necessary for drug susceptibility, so it is requested alongside CBNAAT wherever resistance is suspected or treatment is failing
- Sinus and middle ear specimens must come from the site, by aspirate or washout; anything else describes the flora of the passage leading to it
- Extrapulmonary tuberculosis needs tissue, not fluid alone; a biopsy sent fresh for CBNAAT and culture as well as in formalin for histology answers far more than either alone
Urine — Collection
| Method | Technique and use |
|---|---|
| Midstream clean-catch (MSU) | The routine specimen. An early-morning sample after cleaning the perineum with water (not antiseptic, which inhibits growth); the first portion is discarded to flush the distal urethra, and the midstream is collected. Early-morning urine has been in the bladder for hours, allowing bacterial multiplication and giving a valid count |
| Catheter specimen | Aspirated aseptically from the sampling port, never from the drainage bag and never by disconnecting the closed system |
| Suprapubic aspiration | The reference standard, bypassing the urethra entirely, so any growth is significant. Used in neonates and infants and where contamination cannot otherwise be excluded |
| Urine bag (paediatric) | Highly prone to contamination; a positive result must be confirmed by catheter or suprapubic specimen, though a negative result is useful |
| Terminal midday urine | For Schistosoma haematobium eggs |
| Three early-morning specimens | For genitourinary tuberculosis — the whole volume is concentrated, since bacilli are shed intermittently and in small numbers |
- Transport within 2 hours, or refrigerate at 4°C for up to 24 hours, or use a boric acid container. Urine is an excellent culture medium, so a specimen left at room temperature allows a few contaminants to multiply into a "significant" count — producing a false diagnosis of infection
Urine — Examination and Interpretation
- Macroscopic — turbidity, blood, and the classical characteristics; dipstick for nitrite (produced by Enterobacterales reducing dietary nitrate, and specific but insensitive — requiring several hours in the bladder, and negative with Enterococcus and Pseudomonas, which do not reduce nitrate) and leucocyte esterase (sensitive, less specific)
- Microscopy of uncentrifuged urine — pyuria (more than 10 leucocytes per mm3, or more than 5 per high-power field of centrifuged deposit); red cells; white cell casts, which localise infection to the kidney; bacteria; and squamous epithelial cells, whose presence indicates contamination
- Semi-quantitative culture by the calibrated loop method, using a loop delivering a known volume onto blood agar and MacConkey or CLED medium
| Count and setting | Interpretation |
|---|---|
| ≥105 CFU/mL of a single organism in a clean-catch MSU | Significant bacteriuria (KASS criterion). In an asymptomatic person, two consecutive specimens are needed |
| 104–105 | Doubtful — repeat |
| ≥102–103 in a symptomatic young woman | Significant — the "acute urethral syndrome"; applying the 105 threshold here misses genuine infection, which is the commonest interpretive error in urine microbiology |
| Any growth from suprapubic aspiration | Significant — the bladder is normally sterile |
| ≥103 in a symptomatic catheterised patient | Significant — but symptoms are required, and asymptomatic bacteriuria is not treated |
| Three or more organisms | Contamination — repeat with proper technique |
| Pyuria with a sterile culture | "sterile pyuria" — consider prior antibiotics, tuberculosis, Chlamydia or gonococcal urethritis, fastidious organisms, stones, tumour, interstitial nephritis or analgesic nephropathy |
CLINICAL PEARL
The Kass threshold of 105 was derived from asymptomatic pregnant women, and applying it to a symptomatic young woman misses real infection. A woman with dysuria and frequency may have only 102 organisms per mL, because rapid diuresis and frequent voiding prevent the count from building. Reporting such a specimen as "no significant growth" and withholding treatment is a common error — the threshold depends on the clinical question, not on the laboratory.
Stool — Collection and Examination
- Collect early in the illness and before antibiotics, into a clean dry wide-mouthed container free of urine, water and disinfectant; select portions with blood, mucus or pus. A rectal swab is acceptable where stool is unavailable, particularly in children and in cholera
- Transport within 2 hours or use CARY-BLAIR medium; alkaline peptone water or VR medium for cholera. Examine within 30 minutes for trophozoites
- Macroscopic — consistency (rice-watery in cholera; blood and mucus in dysentery), and worms or proglottids
- Microscopy — saline and iodine wet mounts for ova, cysts and trophozoites; pus cells and red cells, whose presence indicates an invasive (inflammatory) diarrhoea and whose absence points to a toxin-mediated or viral cause. Hanging-drop preparation shows the darting motility of Vibrio cholerae, abolished by specific antiserum
- Culture media — MacConkey and XLD or DCA for Salmonella and Shigella, with selenite F broth as enrichment; TCBS for Vibrio; Campylobacter selective agar at 42°C in microaerophilic conditions; and sorbitol-MacConkey for E. Coli O157
- Non-culture tests — modified acid-fast stain for the coccidia (which must be requested specifically); antigen tests for rotavirus, Giardia, Cryptosporidium and Entamoeba histolytica; C. Difficile GDH and toxin testing; and multiplex PCR panels
- Three specimens on alternate days for parasites, because excretion is intermittent
Distinguishing Inflammatory from Non-inflammatory Diarrhoea
| Feature | Inflammatory (invasive) | Non-inflammatory (secretory) |
|---|---|---|
| Site | Colon | Small intestine |
| Stool | Small volume with blood and mucus; tenesmus | Large volume, watery, no blood or pus |
| Fever | Usually present | Usually absent |
| Stool microscopy | Pus cells and red cells present | Few or NO pus cells |
| Mechanism | Mucosal invasion and ulceration | Enterotoxin or reduced absorptive surface |
| Organisms | Shigella, Salmonella, Campylobacter, enteroinvasive and enterohaemorrhagic E. Coli, Entamoeba histolytica, C. Difficile | V. Cholerae, enterotoxigenic E. Coli, rotavirus, norovirus, Giardia, Cryptosporidium, preformed toxin of S. Aureus and B. Cereus |
| Approach | Culture is worthwhile; antibiotics may be indicated | ORS and zinc; culture rarely needed; antibiotics usually not indicated |
- The presence of pus cells in the stool is a cheap and immediate triage, distinguishing the group in whom culture and antibiotics may help from the much larger group who need only rehydration
Applied Aspects
- Do not apply the 105 threshold to a symptomatic patient; treat a young woman with typical symptoms and a lower count, and record why
- Do not treat asymptomatic bacteriuria except in pregnancy and before urological instrumentation; treating it in the catheterised and the elderly selects resistance and confers no benefit
- Refrigerate or use boric acid if the urine cannot reach the laboratory within 2 hours; a warm specimen left for hours converts contamination into a diagnosis
- Most acute diarrhoea needs no stool culture — it is self-limiting and the result arrives after recovery. Culture is indicated for bloody diarrhoea, severe or persistent illness, fever with systemic features, the immunosuppressed, recent antibiotics, outbreaks and food handlers
- Ask for a modified acid-fast stain in HIV with chronic diarrhoea; the coccidia are invisible on routine microscopy
- ORS and zinc, not antibiotics, are the treatment for most childhood diarrhoea; the laboratory's role is chiefly to identify the minority who need something more
- Look for pus cells in the stool before deciding whether to culture; their presence identifies invasive disease and their absence identifies the majority who need only fluids
- Send a hanging-drop preparation in suspected cholera; the darting motility abolished by antiserum gives a presumptive diagnosis within minutes, which matters in an outbreak
- Sterile pyuria should prompt a search for tuberculosis and for chlamydial or gonococcal urethritis, and three early-morning urine specimens are the appropriate next step in India
- White cell casts localise infection to the kidney, which distinguishes pyelonephritis from cystitis on a simple microscopic examination
- Nitrite is specific but insensitive — negative with Enterococcus and Pseudomonas, and in frequent voiding — so a negative dipstick does not exclude infection
- Culture stool in bloody diarrhoea, not in every diarrhoea; the result of a routine culture in self-limiting watery illness arrives after the patient has recovered
- Three or more organisms in a urine culture means contamination, and the right response is a repeat specimen with proper technique rather than an antibiotic
- Screen and treat asymptomatic bacteriuria in pregnancy, where it progresses to pyelonephritis and preterm birth — one of the few settings in which treating it is clearly right
- Suprapubic aspiration settles a doubtful result in an infant, since any growth from a normally sterile bladder is significant and bag specimens are unreliable
Purpose and Principles
- The purpose is to guide treatment for the individual patient, to generate cumulative antibiogram data for empirical policy, and to detect emerging resistance for surveillance
- It is not performed on every isolate — not on organisms with predictable susceptibility (group A streptococcus remains universally penicillin sensitive), not on contaminants, and not on normal flora
- Standards — the CLSI (used in India) and EUCAST publish breakpoints and methods, updated annually; results are reported as S (susceptible), I (susceptible, increased exposure) or R (resistant)
| Method | Principle and comment |
|---|---|
| KIRBY-BAUER disc diffusion | A standardised inoculum of 0.5 McFarland turbidity is lawn-cultured on mueller-HINTON agar of 4 mm depth; antibiotic discs are applied and the zone OF inhibition measured after 16 to 18 hours and compared with published breakpoints. Simple, cheap, flexible and the workhorse of Indian laboratories — but qualitative, giving no MIC |
| Broth or agar dilution | Doubling dilutions of antibiotic; gives the minimum inhibitory concentration (MIC) — the lowest concentration preventing visible growth. The reference method |
| E-test (gradient strip) | A plastic strip with a continuous antibiotic gradient; the MIC is read where the elliptical zone intersects the strip. Combines the simplicity of diffusion with a quantitative result; used for penicillin in pneumococcus, for vancomycin, and for fastidious organisms |
| Automated systems (VITEK, MicroScan, Phoenix) | Miniaturised broth microdilution with automated reading; give identification and MIC within hours, with expert software flagging implausible results |
| Molecular detection of resistance genes | mecA for MRSA, vanA for VRE, carbapenemase genes, and CBNAAT for rifampicin resistance in tuberculosis. Rapid, but detects the gene rather than the phenotype, and a gene may be present without being expressed |
- MBC (minimum bactericidal concentration) is the lowest concentration killing 99.9% of the inoculum; it matters in endocarditis, meningitis and neutropenia, where bactericidal activity is required
- Serum bactericidal titre and synergy testing in selected severe infections
CLINICAL PEARL
"Susceptible" means the organism is likely to respond at the site and the dose usually given — not that it will die wherever it is. Breakpoints are set against achievable serum concentrations, so an organism reported susceptible may still fail in the cerebrospinal fluid, the urine, an abscess or a biofilm, where the drug does not reach or does not work. This is why an undrained abscess or a retained catheter does not respond to a perfectly matched antibiotic.
Special Tests and Quality Control
- MRSA detection — a cefoxitin disc (a better inducer of mecA than oxacillin), or detection of the mecA gene or PBP2a protein
- ESBL detection — screening with a third-generation cephalosporin, then a combined disc or double-disc synergy test showing restoration of activity by clavulanic acid, which inhibits ESBLs
- Carbapenemase detection — the modified carbapenem inactivation method (mCIM), the modified Hodge test (now largely superseded), and molecular detection of blaNDM, blaOXA-48 and blaKPC
- D-test — detects inducible clindamycin resistance in staphylococci: an erythromycin disc placed beside a clindamycin disc flattens the clindamycin zone into a "D" shape. A positive D-test means clindamycin will fail in vivo despite appearing susceptible — a clinically important trap
- Vancomycin must be tested by an MIC method, not by disc diffusion, which cannot detect reduced susceptibility in staphylococci
- Colistin requires broth microdilution; disc diffusion and gradient strips are unreliable because the molecule diffuses poorly in agar
- Quality control — standard reference strains (ATCC 25922 E. Coli, ATCC 25923 S. Aureus, ATCC 27853 Pseudomonas) are tested regularly, with results plotted against expected ranges; the inoculum density, medium depth, pH, cation content and disc storage are all controlled, since each affects zone size
Applied Aspects
- Read the whole report, not just the sensitivities; the specimen type, the Gram stain and the quantity determine whether the organism matters at all
- Choose the narrowest effective agent from the report rather than the broadest one listed; laboratories increasingly suppress reserve agents from the routine report for exactly this reason
- A susceptible report does not guarantee success where there is an undrained collection, a retained device, a biofilm, or poor penetration to the site — source control comes first
- Ask about the D-test before using clindamycin for a staphylococcal infection, since inducible resistance causes treatment failure that the routine report does not predict
- Use the local cumulative antibiogram for empirical choices; resistance differs between hospitals and between wards, and a national guideline cannot substitute for local data
- Report and act on unusual resistance immediately — a carbapenem-resistant isolate or a vancomycin-resistant staphylococcus requires confirmation, infection control action and notification, not simply a line on a report
Automation in Bacteriology
| System | Function |
|---|---|
| Automated blood culture (BacT/alert, BACTEC) | Continuous monitoring for CO2 production by colorimetric or fluorescent sensors, read every few minutes. Flags positives within hours instead of at daily manual inspection, and reduces the incubation period from 7 days to 5 |
| Automated identification and susceptibility (VITEK 2, MicroScan, Phoenix) | Miniaturised biochemical panels and broth microdilution read photometrically; give identification and MICs within 4 to 18 hours, with expert systems flagging implausible or unusual phenotypes |
| Total laboratory automation | Automated specimen inoculation, incubation with digital plate imaging, and growth detection; reduces manual handling and standardises reading |
| Automated mycobacterial culture (MGIT) | Liquid culture with fluorescent oxygen-quenching detection; positive in about 2 weeks against 6 to 8 for solid media |
Maldi-tof Mass Spectrometry
A single colony is smeared onto a target plate and overlaid with a chemical matrix → A laser pulse ionises the sample — matrix-assisted laser desorption/ionisation → The ions are accelerated down a vacuum flight tube; lighter ions arrive first — time OF flight → The pattern of ribosomal protein masses forms a species-specific fingerprint → This is compared against a reference database → An identification is returned in minutes, at a reagent cost of a few rupees
- It has transformed diagnostic bacteriology — replacing days of biochemical testing with a result in minutes, at very low running cost after the instrument is purchased. It identifies bacteria, mycobacteria, yeasts and moulds, and can be applied directly to positive blood culture broth
- Its limitations — a high capital cost; performance depends entirely on the database, so under-represented organisms are misidentified; it distinguishes closely related species poorly in some genera (Shigella from E. Coli, and within the viridans streptococci); it requires a pure culture; and it gives NO susceptibility information
- It solved the Candida auris problem, which conventional biochemical systems misidentify as other species — a case where the technology made an outbreak visible that had been occurring unrecognised
Molecular Diagnostics
| Method | Application |
|---|---|
| Real-time PCR | Detection and quantification — viral load in HIV, hepatitis B and C and CMV, which guides treatment and monitors response |
| CBNAAT / Xpert MTB/RIF Ultra | A cartridge-based closed system requiring minimal training; detects M. Tuberculosis and rifampicin resistance in about 2 hours. Deployed nationwide under India's tuberculosis programme and among the most consequential diagnostic advances in Indian public health |
| Line probe assays | Detect resistance mutations for first- and second-line antitubercular drugs |
| Multiplex syndromic panels | Simultaneous detection of many pathogens from one specimen — respiratory, gastrointestinal, meningitis-encephalitis and bloodstream panels, in about an hour |
| Lamp (loop-mediated isothermal amplification) | Amplification at a constant temperature, needing no thermocycler; suited to field and peripheral use |
| Whole-genome sequencing | Outbreak investigation with far greater discrimination than older typing; resistance gene detection; and phylogenetic tracking, as used through the COVID-19 pandemic |
| Metagenomic sequencing | Sequences all nucleic acid in a specimen without a prior hypothesis; valuable in culture-negative infection, though costly and difficult to interpret |
CLINICAL PEARL
Molecular tests detect nucleic acid, which is not the same as detecting infection. They stay positive after the organism is dead — so a positive result may reflect treated infection, colonisation, or a passenger organism rather than the cause of the illness. They also cannot usually give a full susceptibility profile. Culture remains necessary for phenotypic susceptibility testing and for proving viability, which is why molecular methods have supplemented rather than replaced it.
Point-of-care Testing and Applied Aspects
- Rapid point-of-care tests have changed Indian practice more than any laboratory instrument, because they work where there is no laboratory — malaria rapid diagnostic tests, dengue NS1 and IgM, HIV rapid tests, rK39 for kala-azar, hepatitis B surface antigen, syphilis, the cryptococcal antigen lateral flow assay, and rapid antigen tests for influenza and SARS-CoV-2
- Their strengths — a result within minutes, no electricity or trained microscopist required, use at the bedside or in the field, and a decision made while the patient is still present
- Their limitations — lower sensitivity than laboratory methods, so a negative result often does not exclude the diagnosis; no susceptibility information; variable quality between manufacturers; and dependence on correct storage and technique
- Interpret according to pre-test probability — the same test performs quite differently in a high- and a low-prevalence setting, and a positive result in a low-prevalence population is more likely to be false
- Rapid diagnostics support stewardship by allowing earlier de-escalation and by ruling infection in or out before broad-spectrum treatment is entrenched — their value lies as much in the antibiotics they prevent as in the diagnoses they make
- Technology does not replace the specimen; a MALDI-TOF identification of a contaminant is still a contaminant, and a multiplex panel run on saliva submitted as sputum reports oral flora faster and more expensively than culture would
Collection
- Pus or tissue is far superior to a swab, and this is the single most important point. Aspirate pus into a syringe, expel the air, cap the needle or transfer into a sterile container, and send several millilitres; a swab carries a fraction of the material, dries out, and preferentially samples the surface
- Sample the deep part of the wound or the advancing edge, after cleaning and debriding the surface; a swab of the surface of a chronic ulcer grows colonising flora and is essentially uninterpretable
- Tissue from the base of a diabetic foot ulcer or from bone is the correct specimen in osteomyelitis, and superficial swabs correlate poorly with what is found in bone
- For anaerobes — send pus in a capped syringe or an oxygen-free transport vial, promptly and without refrigeration; anaerobes die on exposure to air, and a swab in ordinary transport medium is the commonest reason anaerobic culture fails
- Take specimens before antibiotics and before antiseptic application
CLINICAL PEARL
A swab of the surface of a chronic ulcer answers a question nobody asked. Every chronic wound is colonised, so the culture reports the flora of the dressing rather than the organisms invading the tissue — and the resulting list, often including Pseudomonas and Enterococcus, invites treatment of a wound that needs debridement and offloading instead. Culture what you would operate on: deep tissue, bone, or aspirated pus.
Examination
- Macroscopic — colour, consistency and smell, which are genuinely informative: a foul, putrid odour indicates anaerobes; blue-green pus with a sweetish smell suggests pseudomonas; thick creamy yellow pus is typical of S. Aureus; anchovy-sauce pus indicates an amoebic abscess; and grains indicate mycetoma, whose colour and microscopy distinguish actinomycetoma from eumycetoma. sulphur granules indicate Actinomyces
- Gram stain — rapid and directive: clusters of gram-positive cocci (staphylococci), chains (streptococci and enterococci), gram-negative bacilli, and a mixed flora with pus cells suggesting anaerobes. Pus cells without organisms may indicate prior antibiotics, tuberculosis, or an anaerobic or fastidious organism
- Other stains — ZIEHL-neelsen (and a modified method for Nocardia, which is weakly acid-fast); KOH and calcofluor for fungi; and Giemsa
- Culture — blood agar, MacConkey and an enrichment broth aerobically; anaerobic culture on blood agar with neomycin in an anaerobic jar or cabinet for 48 hours or longer; Sabouraud agar for fungi; and mycobacterial culture where indicated
- Common organisms — Staphylococcus aureus (the commonest in skin and soft tissue), Streptococcus pyogenes (spreading cellulitis and necrotising infection), gram-negative bacilli and anaerobes in abdominal, perineal and diabetic foot infection, Pseudomonas in burns and moist wounds, and rapidly growing mycobacteria in post-surgical and post-injection abscesses
Special Situations and Applied Aspects
- Necrotising soft tissue infection is a surgical emergency in which pain out of proportion to the signs, systemic toxicity, crepitus and rapid progression demand immediate exploration; the diagnosis is made in theatre and delaying for imaging or culture costs limbs and lives
- Gas gangrene — Clostridium perfringens; a Gram stain showing large gram-positive bacilli with few pus cells (the alpha-toxin destroys leucocytes) is highly suggestive and available in minutes
- Post-surgical and post-injection abscess clusters in India are characteristically caused by rapidly growing mycobacteria (M. Chelonae, M. Abscessus, M. Fortuitum) from contaminated disinfectant, instruments or injectable solutions; they are acid-fast, grow in a week rather than the usual weeks, and are missed unless specifically sought
- The primary treatment of an abscess is drainage; antibiotics are adjunctive, and no antibiotic penetrates a collection reliably
- Send pus, not a swab — the single change that would most improve the quality of wound microbiology in routine practice
- Request anaerobic culture explicitly and provide a suitable specimen; anaerobes are involved in most abdominal, pelvic, dental and diabetic foot infections and are routinely under-reported because the specimen never permitted their growth
- Smell the specimen — a putrid odour is strong evidence of anaerobes and is available before any test, and blue-green pus points to Pseudomonas
- Culture bone, not the overlying ulcer, in suspected osteomyelitis of the diabetic foot; superficial swabs correlate poorly with the organisms actually in the bone and lead to the wrong antibiotic
- Consider rapidly growing mycobacteria in a cluster of post-operative or post-injection abscesses that fail to respond, and request acid-fast staining and culture specifically
- Pus cells without organisms on Gram stain suggest prior antibiotics, tuberculosis, an anaerobe or a fastidious organism, and should prompt further staining rather than a report of "no growth"
- Do not delay surgery for microbiology in necrotising infection; the diagnosis is made in theatre and specimens are taken there
- Send several millilitres where pus is available; volume matters here as in blood culture, and a swab dipped into an abscess wastes what has already been obtained
Syndromic Approach and Specimens
| Syndrome | Organisms | Specimen and tests |
|---|---|---|
| Urethral discharge | Neisseria gonorrhoeae, Chlamydia trachomatis, Mycoplasma genitalium, Trichomonas | Urethral swab or first-void urine. Gram stain showing gram-negative intracellular diplococci within polymorphs is over 95% sensitive and specific in a symptomatic man — a diagnosis in minutes. NAAT for both gonorrhoea and chlamydia |
| Genital ulcer | Treponema pallidum, HSV, Haemophilus ducreyi, Klebsiella granulomatis, LGV serovars of C. Trachomatis | Dark-ground microscopy of serum from the ulcer base for syphilis; PCR; serology; Giemsa for donovan bodies in donovanosis |
| Vaginal discharge | Bacterial vaginosis, Candida, Trichomonas; and cervicitis from gonorrhoea or chlamydia | PH, whiff test, wet mount and Gram stain with NUGENT scoring; NAAT for cervicitis |
| Pelvic inflammatory disease | Gonorrhoea, chlamydia, anaerobes, Mycoplasma | Endocervical swab for NAAT; treatment is empirical and started before results, since delay causes infertility |
| Genital warts and cervical disease | HPV | Clinical; HPV DNA testing; cytology |
- N. Gonorrhoeae is fastidious and dies rapidly — the swab is plated immediately onto pre-warmed selective medium (Thayer-Martin or New York City) and incubated in 5 to 10% CO2; if transport is unavoidable, Amies with charcoal is used and the specimen is not refrigerated. This fragility is why culture rates are poor and why NAAT has largely replaced it — though culture remains essential for susceptibility testing, which matters greatly given rising cephalosporin resistance
- NAATs are the tests of choice for gonorrhoea and chlamydia, being far more sensitive, usable on urine and self-collected swabs, and unaffected by transport delays — but they give no susceptibility data
Serological Diagnosis of Syphilis
| Test type | Examples | Characteristics |
|---|---|---|
| Non-treponemal (reaginic) | VDRL, RPR | Detect antibody to cardiolipin, not to the treponeme. Cheap, quantitative, and the titre falls with successful treatment — so they are used for screening and for monitoring response. Prone to biological false positives in pregnancy, malaria, leprosy, tuberculosis, autoimmune disease, viral infection and drug use — all common in India. Also show the prozone phenomenon, in which a very high antibody titre gives a falsely negative result unless the serum is diluted |
| Treponemal (specific) | TPHA, TPPA, FTA-ABS, treponemal EIA | Detect antibody to the organism itself. More specific and used to confirm. They remain positive for life despite cure, so they cannot distinguish active from treated infection and cannot be used to monitor treatment |
- The two types are complementary and neither is sufficient alone — a reactive VDRL is confirmed with a treponemal test, and a positive treponemal test requires a VDRL titre to establish activity and provide a baseline
- Dark-ground microscopy of serum expressed from a primary chancre shows the motile spirochaete and is positive before serology becomes reactive, which makes it the diagnostic test in early primary syphilis
- Antenatal VDRL screening is mandatory in India, and congenital syphilis is entirely preventable by a single dose of benzathine penicillin — making a missed screening one of the more indefensible failures in antenatal care
CLINICAL PEARL
The VDRL tells you whether the infection is active; the TPHA tells you whether it ever happened. Treponemal antibody persists for life, so a positive TPHA in a treated patient means nothing about their current state — while the VDRL titre falls fourfold or more with cure and rises again with reinfection or relapse. Using the wrong one to judge treatment leads either to treating a cured patient indefinitely or to missing an active infection.
Applied Aspects
- Syndromic management is national policy in India, treating the syndrome at the first visit with colour-coded kits without waiting for laboratory confirmation. It ensures that a patient who may not return is treated, and it covers the likely organisms — but it over-treats, cannot detect asymptomatic infection, and generates no susceptibility data
- Screen for all sexually transmitted infections when one is found, including HIV, syphilis and hepatitis B, with consent and counselling; co-infection is the rule rather than the exception
- Partner notification and treatment are part of the treatment; treating the index patient alone guarantees reinfection and continued transmission
- Genital ulcers increase HIV transmission several-fold, so their prompt treatment is an HIV prevention measure as well as a cure
- Gonococcal resistance is a serious and worsening problem, with quinolones long abandoned and cephalosporin resistance emerging; this makes culture and susceptibility testing important for surveillance even where NAAT is used for diagnosis
- Confidentiality and a non-judgemental manner are clinically necessary, not merely courteous; stigma is what prevents presentation, disclosure and partner notification, and therefore what sustains transmission
- A Gram stain of urethral discharge in a man gives the diagnosis in minutes, and remains one of the most useful bedside investigations in all of clinical microbiology
- Dilute the serum if syphilis is strongly suspected and the VDRL is negative; the prozone phenomenon produces a false negative at very high antibody titres, which is exactly when the disease is most active
Congenital Infection
- The classical group is torch — TOxoplasma, Others (syphilis, varicella, parvovirus B19, HIV, hepatitis B, Zika), Rubella, Cytomegalovirus and Herpes simplex
- The "torch screen" as usually ordered is a poor test — a panel of IgG results in an infant reflects maternal antibody, is positive in most of an Indian population, and answers no question. It should be replaced by targeted testing directed by the clinical findings
- The general principles are two: IgM does not cross the placenta, so IgM in the infant must be its own and indicates congenital infection; and maternal IgG crosses and persists for up to 18 months, so infant IgG is uninterpretable unless followed serially or compared with the maternal titre
| Infection | Distinguishing features | Diagnostic approach |
|---|---|---|
| Toxoplasmosis | Chorioretinitis, hydrocephalus, diffuse intracranial calcification | Infant IgM and IgA; maternal IgG avidity to date the infection; PCR on amniotic fluid |
| Rubella | Sensorineural deafness, cataract, patent ductus arteriosus | Infant rubella IgM; persistence of IgG beyond the expected decline; virus in urine or throat swab |
| Cytomegalovirus | Microcephaly, periventricular calcification, sensorineural deafness that may appear late; most infants normal at birth | Virus or DNA in urine or saliva within the first 3 weeks of life — after that, congenital and perinatal infection cannot be distinguished |
| Syphilis | Snuffles, rash involving palms and soles, hepatosplenomegaly, osteochondritis; later Hutchinson teeth and interstitial keratitis | Infant VDRL titre fourfold higher than the mother's; treponemal IgM; dark-ground microscopy of nasal discharge or a lesion; long bone radiographs |
| Herpes simplex | Acquired mainly at delivery, not in utero; skin, eye and mouth disease, CNS disease, or disseminated infection with high mortality | PCR on cerebrospinal fluid, blood and surface swabs; treat on suspicion with acyclovir |
| HIV | Usually perinatal; asymptomatic at birth | DNA PCR at 6 weeks — never antibody testing before 18 months |
CLINICAL PEARL
- The calcification pattern separates the two commonest congenital infections.
- diffuse scattered intracranial calcification points to toxoplasmosis
- periventricular calcification points to cytomegalovirus. Both may present with a small head and a deaf infant, and the imaging distinction is available immediately while serology takes days — and it directs which targeted test to send rather than ordering a panel that answers nothing.
Neonatal Sepsis
- Early-onset sepsis (within 72 hours) is acquired from the maternal genital tract before or during delivery. Risk factors are prolonged rupture of membranes beyond 18 hours, maternal fever, chorioamnionitis, prematurity and unclean delivery. Organisms are group B streptococcus and E. Coli in Western series, but in India Klebsiella, E. Coli, Acinetobacter and S. Aureus predominate
- Late-onset sepsis (after 72 hours) is acquired from the environment, from hands and from devices — coagulase-negative staphylococci, S. Aureus, Klebsiella, Acinetobacter, Pseudomonas and Candida
- The clinical presentation is non-specific — poor feeding, lethargy, temperature instability (often HYPOthermia rather than fever), respiratory distress, apnoea, abdominal distension, jaundice and seizures. "Not doing well" is the presentation, and a low threshold for investigation and treatment is correct because deterioration is rapid
- Investigations — blood culture (1 to 3 mL, which is a large volume for a neonate but essential); a sepsis screen comprising total and differential leucocyte count, immature-to-total neutrophil (I:T) ratio above 0.2, C-reactive protein and micro-ESR, of which two or more positive components support the diagnosis; lumbar puncture, since meningitis accompanies a significant proportion and cannot be predicted clinically; urine culture in late-onset sepsis; and a chest radiograph
- Treatment is started immediately on suspicion, guided by the local antibiogram, and reviewed at 48 to 72 hours with de-escalation or discontinuation
Applied Aspects
- Do not order a "torch screen"; order the specific test suggested by the findings, and interpret it knowing what maternal antibody does
- Test urine or saliva within 3 weeks for congenital cytomegalovirus, or the opportunity to prove it is lost permanently — and with it the case for valganciclovir, which improves hearing outcomes
- Compare the infant's VDRL titre with the mother's; a fourfold higher titre indicates the infant's own infection rather than transplacental antibody
- Diagnose infant HIV by DNA PCR, never by antibody before 18 months
- Take an adequate blood culture volume even in a small neonate; the temptation to take 0.5 mL produces a falsely negative culture and commits the baby to empirical treatment
- Prevention matters more than diagnosis in India — clean delivery practices, antenatal screening for syphilis and HIV, hepatitis B birth-dose vaccination, exclusive breastfeeding, hand hygiene in the newborn unit and kangaroo mother care, which reduces neonatal infection and mortality measurably at no cost
- Hypothermia rather than fever is the commoner temperature abnormality in neonatal sepsis, and a cold baby who is feeding poorly deserves the same urgency as a febrile one
Biosafety Levels
Biosafety is the containment of biological agents to prevent laboratory-acquired infection and release into the environment. biosecurity is the protection of dangerous agents against theft or deliberate misuse.
| Level | Agents (risk group) | Requirements |
|---|---|---|
| BSL-1 | Organisms unlikely to cause disease in healthy adults — Bacillus subtilis, non-pathogenic E. Coli K12 | Standard microbiological practice; open bench; handwashing; no special containment. Teaching laboratories |
| BSL-2 | Moderate hazard, treatable, limited community spread — Salmonella, Staphylococcus, E. Coli, hepatitis B, HIV, most clinical specimens | The level of a routine diagnostic laboratory. Restricted access, biohazard signage, trained staff, and a biological safety cabinet for any aerosol-generating procedure; autoclave available |
| BSL-3 | Serious disease, potentially lethal, airborne transmission, treatment available — M. Tuberculosis culture, Brucella, Coxiella, SARS-CoV-2 culture, the dimorphic fungi, yellow fever | A dedicated laboratory with controlled access, a double-door entry with anteroom, negative pressure with directional airflow, HEPA-filtered exhaust, all work in a safety cabinet, and respiratory protection |
| BSL-4 | Life-threatening, high transmissibility, NO treatment or vaccine — EBOLA, Marburg, Lassa, NIPAH, smallpox | Maximum containment: a Class III cabinet or positive-pressure suit, a separate isolated building, airlocks and chemical showers, all effluent decontaminated. In INDIA at NIV Pune and NIHSAD Bhopal |
CLINICAL PEARL
Tuberculosis is the reason a district hospital laboratory cannot simply "do more". Handling a clinical specimen is BSL-2 work, but culturing M. Tuberculosis is BSL-3, because the culture contains vastly more organisms than the sputum and any manipulation aerosolises them. This is precisely why CBNAAT mattered so much in India: it gives a result including rifampicin resistance in a closed cartridge at BSL-2, putting reliable diagnosis within reach of laboratories that could never build a containment suite.
Laboratory-acquired Infection
- The commonest laboratory-acquired infections — tuberculosis, brucellosis (the classic laboratory infection, from sniffing plates and from aerosols, and often unrecognised because the organism was not suspected), Q fever, typhoid, shigellosis, hepatitis B, and the dimorphic fungi
- Routes — aerosol inhalation is much the commonest and the least noticed, generated by centrifuging, vortexing, pipetting, opening lyophilised ampoules, flaming loops, and dropping a plate; percutaneous injury from needles and broken glass; ingestion from mouth pipetting (now prohibited), eating and smoking in the laboratory, and hand-to-mouth contact; and splashes to mucous membranes
- Most incidents are never reported, and many laboratory-acquired infections are recognised only when the worker presents as a patient elsewhere
| Control measure | Detail |
|---|---|
| Engineering controls | Biological safety cabinets (Class I protects the worker; Class II protects worker, product and environment and is the standard for clinical work; Class III is a sealed glovebox); sealed centrifuge buckets; directional airflow; autoclaves; and eyewash and shower facilities |
| Administrative controls | Standard operating procedures, a biosafety manual, training and competency assessment, restricted access, a designated biosafety officer, and an exposure reporting system that people actually use |
| Practice | NO mouth pipetting; no eating, drinking, smoking or applying cosmetics; no storing food in laboratory refrigerators; minimise sharps and never recap; handle all specimens as infectious; disinfect the bench before and after work; and handwashing on leaving |
| Personal protection | Laboratory coat worn only in the laboratory, gloves, eye protection, and a respirator where indicated |
| Immunisation and health surveillance | Hepatitis B for all; typhoid and rabies for relevant work; baseline serum storage; and post-exposure protocols |
| Spill management | A written procedure and a spill kit; for a large spill, evacuate and allow the aerosol TO settle for 30 minutes before entering, then cover with absorbent material and apply 1% hypochlorite from the periphery inwards |
| Waste | Microbiological cultures are pre-treated by autoclaving ON site before leaving the laboratory |
Applied Aspects
- Suspect the diagnosis before opening the plate — clinical details on the request form warn the laboratory that Brucella, a dimorphic fungus or M. Tuberculosis may be present, and this is exactly how laboratory-acquired infection is prevented
- Never sniff a culture plate; this remains a described practice for identifying Pseudomonas and has caused brucellosis and other infections
- Use sealed centrifuge buckets and open them inside a safety cabinet; centrifugation is the most efficient aerosol generator in the laboratory
- Report every exposure, including apparently trivial splashes and aerosol incidents; under-reporting denies the worker prophylaxis and the laboratory the chance to correct a hazard
- Vaccinate laboratory staff against hepatitis B and check the response, and store a baseline serum sample where the work justifies it
- Biosafety cabinets must be validated periodically; an uncertified cabinet gives protection nobody has verified, which is more dangerous than an open bench used cautiously
Quality Assurance
Quality assurance is the total programme ensuring that laboratory results are reliable, reproducible and clinically useful. It covers everything from the request to the interpretation, not merely the analysis.
| Phase | Content and where errors arise |
|---|---|
| Pre-analytical | Test selection, request form, patient and specimen identification, collection technique, container, transport and storage. The source OF most laboratory errors — commonly quoted as 60 to 70% — and largely outside the laboratory's direct control, which is why it is the phase most often neglected and most worth improving |
| Analytical | Media, reagents, equipment, method, staff competence, and internal and external quality control. The phase that receives most attention and contributes perhaps 10 to 15% of errors |
| Post-analytical | Result entry, turnaround time, reporting, critical-value communication, and interpretation by the clinician. A correct result reported late, to the wrong patient, or misunderstood has failed just as completely |
- Internal quality control (IQC) — performed by the laboratory on its own work, continuously: reference strains (ATCC 25922 E. Coli, ATCC 25923 S. Aureus, ATCC 27853 Pseudomonas) tested with each new batch of media, discs and reagents; sterility and performance checks on every media batch; autoclave monitoring with chemical indicators (Bowie-Dick tape) and biological indicators (Geobacillus stearothermophilus spores for steam, Bacillus atrophaeus for hot air and ethylene oxide); temperature logs for incubators, refrigerators and water baths; equipment calibration and maintenance; and stain performance checks
- External quality assessment (EQA) or proficiency testing — blinded specimens sent by an external agency at intervals, processed as routine specimens and the results compared with the peer group. It detects systematic errors the laboratory cannot see in itself, which is precisely what internal control cannot do. In India, schemes are run by AIIMS, CMC Vellore and other centres
- The essential discipline is that EQA specimens are handled exactly like routine ones — treating them specially defeats the entire purpose and is a recognised temptation
- Documentation — standard operating procedures for every procedure, records of training and competency, equipment logs, and corrective and preventive action records for every non-conformity
CLINICAL PEARL
Most laboratory errors happen before the specimen reaches the laboratory. The pre-analytical phase — a mislabelled bottle, a swab instead of pus, a delayed transport, a request form marked only "C/S" — accounts for the large majority, and no amount of analytical rigour can compensate. This means the greatest gains in laboratory quality come from training clinical and nursing staff, not from buying instruments; and it makes specimen quality a clinical responsibility rather than a laboratory complaint.
Accreditation and Laboratory Indicators
- NABL (National Accreditation Board for Testing and Calibration Laboratories) accredits Indian laboratories against iso 15189, the international standard for medical laboratories, covering both management and technical requirements. NABH accredits hospitals and includes laboratory standards
- Accreditation requires documented procedures, competent and trained staff, calibrated equipment, participation in EQA, internal audit, management review, complaint handling, and a system of continual improvement
- Useful quality indicators — specimen rejection rate; blood culture contamination rate (which should be under 3% and directly reflects collection technique); turnaround time for critical results; the proportion of positive cultures; EQA performance; the rate of repeat requests; and critical-value communication compliance
- The laboratory's clinical role — producing and circulating an annual cumulative antibiogram, advising on antibiotic policy, participating in infection control and stewardship, telephoning critical results, and being available for consultation. A microbiology laboratory that only issues reports is working at a fraction of its usefulness
Applied Aspects
- The clinician controls the pre-analytical phase, which is where most errors occur; labelling the specimen correctly, sending the right material before antibiotics, and writing the clinical details are the highest-value quality interventions available
- Treat a rejection as information rather than obstruction; the laboratory is preventing a misleading report from entering the patient's record
- Monitor the blood culture contamination rate as a ward-level quality measure; it is easily calculated, directly actionable, and each false positive costs unnecessary antibiotics and additional hospital days
- Use the local antibiogram when writing or following an empirical antibiotic policy; it is the laboratory's most valuable single output and is frequently produced and then ignored
- Participate in EQA honestly; a laboratory that handles proficiency specimens specially learns nothing and continues to make the same errors on patients
- Accreditation is a means, not an end — its value lies in the documented processes and the habit of audit it enforces, and a laboratory can hold a certificate while failing patients if the culture behind it is one of compliance rather than of improvement
- Internal control cannot detect a systematic error, because the laboratory is checking its own method against its own expectations; only external assessment reveals a consistent bias
- Turnaround time is part of quality; a correct result issued after the clinical decision has been made has failed the patient as surely as a wrong one
- Telephone critical results and record that it was done; a positive blood culture or cerebrospinal fluid Gram stain sitting in a report queue is a patient safety incident
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